Mader Exam Prep Development and Aging Chapter 22

Inquiry Into Life, 16e, Mader

Chapter 22 Development and Aging

1) How does a sperm penetrate an egg?

A) Enzymes in the acrosome dissolve the zona pellucida.

B) The sperm binds to a receptor protein in the membrane and this initiates endocytosis.

C) The forward pressure of the flagellum forces it through the plasma membrane.

D) Spermatids are wedge-shaped and are chemically attracted to the inside cytoplasm of the egg cell.

E) The haploid sets of chromosomes match across the membrane and this triggers the membrane to dissolve.

2) Generally only one sperm fertilizes an egg because

A) sperm compete against one another before entering and only the most fit sperm is able to fertilize the egg.

B) sperm travel such a great distance that no two sperm are likely to arrive at the same time.

C) there is only one passageway available for a sperm to enter the egg.

D) many sperm enter but only one set of chromosomes can fuse with the egg nucleus; the other sperm are absorbed.

E) when the first sperm fuses with the egg membrane, the membrane depolarizes, which blocks the entry of any other sperm.

3) A fertilized egg undergoes cell division without overall growth in the process called

A) cleavage.

B) gastrulation.

C) differentiation.

D) morphogenesis.

E) embryology.

4) During the formation of an embryo, a hollow sphere of cells with a fluid-filled cavity inside is termed a

A) morula.

B) blastula.

C) blastocoel.

D) gastrula.

E) neurula.

5) The fluid-filled blastocoel forms during which stage of cellular development?

A) morula

B) blastula

C) gastrula

D) zygote

E) neurula

6) Which one of the following structures is derived from the ectoderm?

A) gut lining

B) nervous system

C) lungs

D) bones

E) bladder lining

7) The last tissue layer to be formed during gastrulation is the

A) endoderm.

B) ectoderm.

C) mesoderm.

D) gastroderm.

E) epiderm.

8) After gastrulation in vertebrates, the blastopore will eventually become the

A) brain.

B) heart.

C) mouth.

D) anus.

E) ear.

9) Which of the following develops from the germ layer called the endoderm?

A) skin and nervous system

B) muscles and blood

C) gut and pancreas

D) nervous system and muscles

E) epithelial lining of the urinary bladder

10) The cardiovascular and urinary systems form from the ________ layer.

A) endoderm

B) ectoderm

C) mesoderm

D) blastoderm

E) gastroderm

11) A failure of the cells in the ectoderm to differentiate correctly would most affect which of the following body systems?

A) epidermis of the skin

B) cardiovascular system

C) urinary system

D) digestive system

E) endocrine system

12) The ________ is a dorsal supporting rod present in the early embryonic development of the vertebrates.

A) neural plate

B) neural tube

C) notochord

D) neurula

E) vertebral column

13) Which system in a developing embryo is the first to become visually evident?

A) reproductive

B) circulatory

C) excretory

D) respiratory

E) nervous

14) The egg from a ________ has been observed to form a gray crescent after fertilization.

A) fish

B) frog

C) reptile

D) chicken

E) human

15) Which of the following describes the process in which cells become specialized in structure and function?

A) development

B) pattern formation

C) cellular differentiation

D) morphogenesis

E) embryology

16) Another term for programmed cell death is

A) morphogenesis.

B) apoptosis.

C) pattern formation.

D) cellular differentiation.

E) mitosis.

17) Which of the following describes an event associated with development?

A) cells divide and get larger

B) cells become specialized in structure and function

C) body parts are shaped and patterned into a specific form

D) tissues and organs become arranged in the body

E) All of the answer choices describe events associated with development.

18) Morphogenesis is

A) the total life cycle of any animal.

B) the formation of the shape of the body.

C) the mechanism by which gametes are formed.

D) a study of the beginning and ending of life.

E) the study of aging.

19) The parceling out of maternal determinants during mitosis is known as

A) homeostasis.

B) induction.

C) morphogenesis.

D) cytoplasmic segregation.

E) aging.

20) The process in which one embryonic tissue influences the development of another tissue by the use of signals called inducers is known as

A) neurulation.

B) gastrulation.

C) induction.

D) cytoplasmic segregation.

E) homeotic pattern formation.

21) In experiments with the roundworm Caenorhabditis elegans, researchers were able to trace the development of the generalized zygote into the specialized cells of the adult roundworm, a schematic that formed a(n)

A) homeobox.

B) pattern formation.

C) cytoplasmic segregation.

D) induction.

E) fate map.

22) Which of the following determines the relationship of the individual parts of an organism?

A) embryonic signposts

B) morphogen genes

C) cytoplasmic segregation routes

D) induction genes

E) fate maps

23) Which statement is true about homeotic genes?

A) Each homeotic gene has a variable region and a sequence called the homeobox that is very similar in all such genes.

B) They have been found in almost all eukaryotic organisms.

C) All homeotic genes are thought to be derived from an original DNA sequence that has been highly conserved in evolution because of its importance to animal evolution.

D) They are sequentially arranged on the chromosome in the same sequence they are activated during development of the embryo in Drosophila.

E) All the answer choices accurately describe homeotic genes.

24) The presence of the same homeotic genes in a wide range of organisms indicates that

A) these genes evolved early in the history of life.

B) all organisms are composed of exactly the same proteins.

C) the same homeotic mutations are likely to appear in all organisms.

D) essentially we can complete the genome mapping of all animals in a short time.

E) structures remain fairly constant, but regulation of animal development varies widely across the kingdom.

25) A homeotic gene codes for a(n) ________ protein, a sequence of 60 amino acids, sets of which determine the genes to be turned on during development.

A) induction

B) morphogenesis

C) growth

D) regulatory

E) homeodomain

26) Genes that determine how segments develop during morphogenesis are known as

A) induction genes.

B) cleavage genes.

C) differentiation genes.

D) homeotic genes.

E) master genes.

27) Which of the following structures is responsible for gas exchange in the egg of a chicken?

A) yolk sac

B) amnion

C) embryo

D) umbilical cord

E) chorion

28) Which of the following structures provides nourishment for the developing chick embryo?

A) umbilical cord

B) allantois

C) yolk sac

D) embryo

E) chorion

29) The allantois

A) becomes the umbilical blood vessels in humans.

B) is a structure composed of two germ layers.

C) provides nourishment to the chick embryo.

D) is involved in gas exchange in the chick embryo.

E) becomes the chorionic villi in humans.

30) Which part of the blastocyst will develop into the human embryo?

A) archenteron

B) blastopore

C) chorion

D) trophoblast

E) inner cell mass

31) A pregnancy test is sensitive to which hormone? What structure produces this hormone?

A) FSH; anterior pituitary

B) estrogen; ovary

C) progesterone; corpus luteum

D) HCG; trophoblast

E) GnRH; hypothalamus

32) The human blastocyst

A) gives rise to umbilical blood vessels.

B) contains a fluid-filled central cavity.

C) is the expanded end of the gastrula.

D) has three germ layers.

E) is the fertilized egg.

33) Implantation occurs during the

A) fertilization.

B) first week.

C) second week.

D) second month.

E) fourth month.

34) In human development, what is the site of early blood cell formation for the fetus?

A) umbilical cord

B) placenta

C) amniotic fluid

D) yolk sac

E) allantois

35) The sac that surrounds the fetus and usually ruptures just before childbirth is the

A) gastrula.

B) allantois.

C) yolk sac.

D) amnion.

E) archenteron.

36) Which association is mismatched?

A) chorion—gas exchange

B) amnion—blood vessels

C) allantois—waste storage

D) yolk sac—food storage

E) yolk—nourishment

37) Which of the following serves as an insulator for the embryo?

A) amniotic fluid

B) allantois

C) chorion

D) primitive streak

E) yolk sac

38) During pregnancy, maternal and fetal blood mix with each other.

39) The sex of the fetus can be first determined in which month of development?

A) first

B) second

C) third or fourth

D) six or seventh

E) eighth or ninth

40) In fetal circulation, which structure allows blood from the right atrium to directly enter the left atrium?

A) umbilical cord

B) arterial duct

C) foramen ovale

D) venous duct

E) right ventricle

41) The placenta develops from

A) fetal membranes only.

B) maternal tissue only.

C) both fetal and maternal tissue.

D) separate polar bodies that develop just the placental tissues.

E) from the yolk sac.

42) During which month can the fetal heartbeat be heard by a physician with a stethoscope for the first time?

A) first

B) second

C) fourth

D) sixth

E) eighth

43) In order to provide for easier birth, a newborn baby has membranous areas of skull called

A) oval windows.

B) bursa.

C) sutures.

D) septa.

E) fontanels.

44) From months 5 to 7, a fetus is covered in a fine down called

A) chorion.

B) fuzz.

C) lanugo.

D) vernosa.

E) hairs.

45) Which of the following ducts connect the pulmonary trunk to the aorta in the fetus?

A) oval opening

B) venous duct

C) arterial duct

D) umbilical artery

E) umbilical vein

46) When a baby is born, what change(s) need to occur in fetal circulation for it to survive?

A) The oval opening (foramen ovale) must close.

B) The arterial duct must close.

C) The umbilical arteries and veins close.

D) Fetal blood must be shunted toward the lungs after tying off the umbilical cord.

E) All of the answer choices describe changes that need to occur in order for the baby to survive.

47) The afterbirth refers to the

A) expulsion of the placenta and membranes.

B) expulsion of the uterine lining.

C) expulsion of the amniotic membrane.

D) expulsion of the fetus.

E) period of time from birth to nursing.

48) During which stage of labor will the cervix be dilated?

A) stage 1

B) stage 2

C) stage 3

D) stage 4

E) The cervix does not need to dilate for labor.

49) Which of the following hormones causes the uterus to contract?

A) oxytocin

B) estrogen

C) progesterone

D) testosterone

E) prolactin

50) Which hormone causes the mammary lobules in the breast to contract, causing milk to flow? Which organ releases the hormone?

A) prolactin; hypothalamus

B) prolactin; anterior pituitary

C) oxytocin; hypothalamus

D) oxytocin; anterior pituitary

E) estrogen; ovaries

51) Milk production is triggered in breasts by which hormone? Which organ releases this hormone?

A) prolactin; hypothalamus

B) prolactin; anterior pituitary

C) oxytocin; hypothalamus

D) oxytocin; anterior pituitary

E) estrogen; ovaries

52) Which statement is true regarding aging?

A) Genetics may partially determine how long a person lives.

B) DNA mutations accumulate as the body ages.

C) Lack of calcium in a person's diet may lead to bone loss.

D) Some proteins become cross-linked and reduce organ function.

E) All of the answer choices are true statements about aging.

53) Which of the following would provide evidence that lifestyle choices can increase the effects of aging?

A) Children of short-lived parents live shorter lives than children of long-lived parents.

B) Cells only divide for a set number of divisions.

C) Cell lines become nonfunctional before their maximum number of divisions is reached.

D) Smoking and excessive alcohol intake are linked to shorter life spans.

E) Certain genes that code for antioxidant enzymes to detoxify free radicals are present in animals that live longer.

54) As we become older, the

A) skin becomes more elastic.

B) heart decreases in size.

C) blood vessels become more rigid.

D) production of gametes continues in both sexes.

E) liver receives increased blood flow.

55) Free radicals cause aging because

A) they collect in the organs and skin, forming large molecules that interfere with organ function.

B) they donate electrons to molecules that are nearby, like DNA and proteins, causing damage to the molecule.

C) free radicals combine together and attack DNA.

D) free radicals combine with oxygen, reducing the functionality of the mitochondria.

E) they speed up metabolic processes, causing the organs to wear out faster.

56) Some of the changes that are attributed to aging are actually brought about by poor health habits. One of these is osteoporosis, which could be prevented by

A) adequate calcium intake and eating a high-protein diet.

B) avoiding cigarettes, an adequate calcium intake, and exercise.

C) exercise and a high-protein diet.

D) drinking adequate amounts of water, and exercising.

E) a low-fat and protein diet.

57) Which of these describes how the skin changes with aging?

A) loss of elasticity

B) loss of adipose tissue

C) loss of sweat glands

D) loss of sebaceous (oil) glands

E) All of the answer choices are changes seen in the skin with aging.

58) Women are less likely than men to suffer from a heart attack. This is thought to be true because

A) women have less stressful lives than men.

B) men have testosterone and women do not.

C) women have estrogen and men do not.

D) women tend to take better care of their health.

E) women have a genetic resistance that prevents them from having heart attacks.

59) Which of the following is true about age-related issues?

A) Neurons are extremely sensitive to oxygen deficiency, so loss of brain function may occur due to narrowing of the blood vessels rather than aging.

B) With age, some sensory receptors require more stimulation to function at the same level as before.

C) Strength in the muscles that control breathing may be lost, leading to breathing difficulties.

D) Osteoporosis, the loss of bone density, can be lessened or prevented by making good lifestyle choices.

E) All of the answer choices are true.

60) What is the difference between a skin cell and a stem cell?

A) A skin cell gives rise only to other skin cells and a stem cell gives rise only to stem cells.

B) A skin cell has a full complement of DNA, but a stem cell does not.

C) Stem cells have telomerase; skin cells lack telomerase.

D) Stem cells are not found in humans, while skin cells are.

E) Stem cells arise from skin cells when select genes are turned on.

61) The statement "a child is more closely related to its mother than to its father" is

A) not true because there is an equal contribution from both parents.

B) true because the egg contains more than just DNA and the sperm only contributes DNA.

C) not true because the egg only contributes DNA, while the sperm contributes enzymes from the acrosome and mitochondria.

D) true because the mother's blood flows into the umbilical cord and, therefore, the baby shares the mother's blood.

E) true because it is possible for a woman to become pregnant without the sperm.

62) List and describe the major events during the three stages of birth.

63) What role does the acrosome play in fertilization?

A) It contains enzymes that digest a pathway for the sperm through the zona pellucida.

B) It contains lipids that digest a pathway for the sperm through the zona pellucida.

C) It contains enzymes that digest a pathway for the sperm through the corona radiata.

D) It contains lipids that digest a pathway for the sperm through the corona radiata.

E) It causes the zona pellucida to become the fertilization membrane.

64) Which of the following is an advantage of breast-feeding?

A) Colostrum provides proteins and antibodies to the baby.

B) Breast-fed babies are less likely to develop stomach and intestinal illnesses, including diarrhea, during the first 13 weeks of life.

C) Suckling causes uterine contractions that help reduce the uterus to its normal size.

D) Breast-feeding uses up calories that can help a woman return to her normal weight.

E) All of the answer choices are advantages of breast-feeding.

65) During which stage of birth is the placenta delivered?

A) third stage

B) first stage

C) second stage

D) fourth stage.

E) It is done prior to stage one.

66) Describe the steps involved in the fertilization of an egg.

67) List the three embryonic germ layers and indicate a structure that forms from each layer.