Genetics Review | Ch5 – Test Bank – 18th Edition

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Student name:__________

TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1) Because genes may code for antibodies, structural proteins, enzymes and other proteins, and various RNAsthe most appropriate definition of agene is a "nucleic acid sequence that encodes a functional polypeptide."

⊚ true
⊚ false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.
2) Gene mutation is a phenomenon that occurs in all creatures. Select the statements below that correctly apply to gene mutation.

A) Mutation in the intronic sequence is more common than mutation in the exonic sequence.
B) Mutations in intronic sequence can directly affect the mRNA that is produced.
C) Mutations are often silent, meaning that the mutation has no effect on what amino acid is specified by the codon present in mRNA.
D) Mutations are one source of variation upon which natural selection can act to affect evolution of a species.

3) Cancer is a disease of uncontrolled cell division. Additionally, cancerous cells may detach from their neighbors and move to new areas of the body where they continue to divide in an uncontrolled manner. Select the statements/scenarios below that correctly apply to cancer.

A) You have been diagnosed with a mutation that makes a proto-oncogene less effective. This mutation is considered grave news and has your physician concerned.
B) You have been diagnosed with a mutation that makes a tumor suppressor gene more effective. This mutation is considered grave news and has your physician concerned.
C) During a Biology exam your friend answers "True" to the following question:"P53 is a tumor suppressor gene product that is only rarely associated with human cancers." When discussing this with your friend you disagree with her response.
D) During a Biology exam your friend answers "True" to the following question:"Ras is a normally occurring cellular protein that conveys growth factor signals to promote cell division." When discussing this with your friend you disagree with hisresponse.

4) Which of the statements below correctly describe cancer? Choose all that apply.

A) The results of a lab test demonstrate a silent mutation within aproto-oncogene of the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer.
B) The results of a lab test demonstrate an inversion within aproto-oncogene of the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer.
C) The results of a lab test demonstrate a silent mutation within a tumor suppressorof the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer.
D) The results of a lab test demonstrate an inversion within a tumor suppressorof the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
5) What was the relationship between Gregor Mendel's work and Charles Darwin's publication on evolution?

A) Mendel's work came before Darwin's and gave Darwin a critical piece of the evolutionary puzzle.
B) Mendel read Darwin's work and this inspired him to experiment with principles of heredity.
C) Both were contemporaneous and worked back-and-forth, providing ongoing feedback for each other's work.
D) Mendel's discoveries were shortly after Darwin's publication, but the implications of his work were not understood for over 30 years.

6) What was the relationship between Gregor Mendel's work and the growing understanding of cells and chromosomes?

A) Mendel's work immediately generated great interest in what was the genetic material.
B) Mendel was unaware of chromosomes and genes, both of which were identified decades after his death.
C) Breakthroughs in cytology and the structure of chromosomes were the factor that led Mendel to his experiments.
D) Mendel's work led cell biologists to discover the nucleus and its role.

7) At its simplest, meiosis could be described as

A) duplication-division.
B) duplication-duplication-division.
C) duplication-division-division.
D) division.

8) If an egg of a worm contains 6 chromosomes following meiosis, it comes from a worm that has ______ chromosomes in each body cell.

A) 3
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24

9) Sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes _____, or come into "side-by-side contact" to form a tetrad.

A) crossing-over
B) locus
C) dyad
D) synapse

10) The location of a gene on a chromosome is called the gene __________.

A) tetrad
B) locus
C) dyad
D) synapsis

11) Which of the following are sex chromosomes of a normal human male?

A) XY
B) XX
C) XO
D) YO

12) If a gene is not on the sex chromosome, it is found on a(an)

A) autosome.
B) locus.
C) dyad.
D) asexual chromosome.

13) Which is a correct usage of phenotype and genotype?

A) Phenotype is the cause of genotype.
B) Phenotype is restricted to characteristics involving size and color.
C) One phenotype may produce many genotypes.
D) Two different genotypes may produce the same phenotype.

14) Which of the following is NOT part of Mendel's law of segregation?

A) Each individual contains two factors for each trait.
B) One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual.
C) Each gamete contains one copy of each factor.
D) Fertilization restores the presence of the two factors.

15) In a cross of parents with AA and aa genotypes for a particular trait, F 1 offspring would have which genotype(s)?

A) AA and Aa
B) AA, Aa, and aa
C) AA only
D) Aa only

16) F 2 offspring of a monohybrid cross involving Aa genotype show which genotype(s)?

A) Aa only
B) AA and Aa
C) Aa and aa
D) AA, Aa, and aa

17) Since a testcross backcrosses with a pure homozygous recessive strain, the offspring of an Aa genotype crossed by an aa genotype would show which genotype(s)?

A) aa only
B) Aa only
C) AA and Aa
D) Aa and aa

18) You expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F 2 offspring in which type of cross?

A) monohybrid cross
B) dihybrid cross
C) test cross
D) sex-linked cross

19) In the case of tall and dwarf pea plants, if a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype,

A) it can be either TT or Tt.
B) it can be either Tt or tt.
C) it can be only TT.
D) it can be only tt.

20) Alleles are genes that

A) are linked.
B) are lethal when homozygous.
C) occupy corresponding places in homologous chromosomes.
D) are never heterozygous.

21) In Mendel's pea plants, round seeds (R) were dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) were recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy, the recessive allele (s). If these genes are not linked, which of the following is true of a heterozygous dihybrid cross?

A) It is impossible to obtain offspring that are homozygous for both dominant genes.
B) It is impossible to obtain offspring that are homozygous for both recessive genes.
C) It is impossible to obtain offspring that are homozygous dominant for one trait and homozygous recessive for the other trait.
D) It is possible to produce offspring that are homozygous dominant for both traits, homozygous dominant for one trait but not the other, and homozygous recessive for both traits.

22) Gene interactions in which an allele at one locus prevents the expression of an allele at another locus is called

A) complete dominance.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) epistasis.
D) pleiotropy.

23) A trait caused by genes at several loci is an example of which of these?

A) multiple alleles at one locus
B) epistasis
C) pleiotropy
D) polygenic inheritance

24) Which of the following is NOT correct about X-linked characteristics?

A) More males than females are affected.
B) If a female exhibits the trait, all of her sons will also inherit and exhibit it.
C) Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it.
D) Males have two copies of the alleles for the trait, but females have only one.

25) Males are said to be ________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.

A) codominant
B) polygenic
C) hemizygous
D) homozygous

26) At which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur?

A) prophase of the first meiotic division
B) anaphase of the first meiotic division
C) prophase of the second meiotic division
D) anaphase of the second meiotic division

27) Why is crossing-over important?

A) Crossing-over provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells.
B) Crossing-over increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain recombined genetic material.
C) Crossing-over increases chromosome condensation.
D) Crossing-over separates the homologous chromosomes.

28) What is a synaptonemal complex?

A) the internal structure of nucleoprotein that makes up a chromosome
B) a proteinaceous structure that holds together two sister chromatids
C) the spindle fibers that attach from pole to pole without binding chromosomes
D) the set of cells produced from a single original parent cell in oogenesis

29) Turner syndrome (XO) would be an example of

A) aneuploidy.
B) changes in the linear arrangement of genes within one chromosome.
C) trisomy.
D) polyploidy.

30) Down syndrome is an example of

A) aneuploidy.
B) changes in the liner arrangement of genes within one chromosome.
C) monosomy.
D) polyploidy.

31) A section of a chromosome breaks out and then reinserts itself into the gap it left, but in the opposite direction. What is this called?

A) aneuploidy
B) an inversion
C) a translocations
D) a deletion

32) Beadle and Tatum's mutated Neurospora were unable to grow on minimal media plus metabolite B, but did grow on minimal media plus metabolites C and D, indicating enzyme 2 was missing from the hypothetical pathway.

A) If only enzyme 1 was missing, then growth would occur with just metabolite B.
B) From the limited data given here, enzyme 1 could also be missing from the original experiment.
C) Any minimal media with metabolite D should grow the Neurospora without revealing if the strain contains or lacks enzymes 1, 2 or 3.
D) Failure to grow on minimal media possessing metabolite C reflects a lack of enzyme 3.
E) All of the choices are correct.

33) A codon is composed of _______ bases.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) six

34) Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct?

A) Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
B) Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break.
C) DNA polymerase catalyzes DNA replication.
D) Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds.

35) What is the function of DNA ligase?

A) To carry DNA into a new cell.
B) To join the end of the new strand to the old one.
C) To make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA.
D) To destroy damaged DNA.

36) Which RNA molecules carry genetic information away from DNA when it is needed for the construction of a protein?

A) ribosomal RNA
B) transfer RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) primary mRNAtranscript

37) Messenger RNA is transcribed using which strand of DNA?

A) sense strand
B) antisense strand
C) messenger RNA is not transcribed from DNA
D) both strands of DNA are typically used

38) Transfer RNA functions in

A) delivering amino acids to the mRNA-ribosome complex.
B) synthesizing mRNA.
C) delivering amino acids to DNA.
D) None of the choices is correct.

39) What is the anticodon for GCG?

A) AUA
B) UAU
C) CGC
D) AGA

40) Sections of DNA that do not code for a final product, and which may intervene in a DNA sequence are

A) transcribed into tRNA.
B) exons.
C) introns.
D) interferons.

41) Which of the following processes synthesizes mRNA, tRNA, or rRNA?

A) translation
B) transcription
C) transposition
D) None of the choices is correct.

42) A complex of mRNA used to allow multiple molecules of the same protein to be synthesized concurrently is called a(n) _______________.

A) anticodon
B) transcription factor
C) intron
D) polysome

43) Which type of RNA molecule forms the large and small subunits of the cytoplasmic structure that builds proteins?

A) ribosomal RNA
B) transfer RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) primary mRNAtranscript

44) On the cloverleaf-shaped tRNA, what is exposed to form base pairs with complementary codon bases in the mRNA?

A) a polysome
B) an intron
C) an anticodon
D) RNA polymerase

45) The first control in gene activity is _______ control.

A) translational
B) transcriptional
C) gene rearrangement
D) DNA modification

46) Which level of control in gene activity involves delay in translation, such as the buildup of oocytes messenger RNA until fertilization activates egg metabolism?

A) translational control
B) transcriptional control
C) gene rearrangement
D) DNA modification

47) Methylation of cytosine residues is involved in

A) feedback control.
B) translational control.
C) gene rearrangement.
D) DNA modification and control.

48) Which type of molecule produces variable lengths of DNA with "sticky ends"?

A) DNA ligase
B) RNA polymerase
C) reverse transcriptase
D) restriction enzyme

49) To make recombinant DNA,

A) bacterial DNA is annealed with restriction endonucleases.
B) DNA is cleaved with restriction endonucleases and annealed together with plasmid or viral DNA.
C) plasmid or viral DNA is cloned in mammalian cells.
D) the "sticky ends" of the DNA must be annealed to the nuclear membrane.

50) The polymerase chain reaction is

A) part of the normal process of DNA replication in the cell.
B) a way to amplify small samples of DNA when a short sequence is known.
C) a method for constructing complementary DNA by transcribing the base sequence with reverse transcriptase.
D) None of the choices is correct.

51) You are a science journalist writing a piece on the history of our study of DNA. Your editor would like you to summarize your current work so she can evaluate it and determine the readiness of your work for publication. Compare the following statements and determine which best conveys the facts related to your study of DNA.

A) Statement 1—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel. Those scientists used knowledge of DNA to determine the mechanisms of evolutionand the principles of heredity, respectively."
B) Statement 2—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel. Their work on evolution and the principles of evolution led Beadle and Tatum to propose a link between DNA and metabolism."
C) Statement 3—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Beadle and Tatum who, based on other work being completed in the decades surrounding their work, proposed a link between DNA and metabolism."
D) Statement 4—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Beadle and Tatum who, based on other work being completed in the decades surrounding their work, proposed a link between DNA and the principles of heredity."

52) Which statement related to gene mutations is most accurate?

A) Silent mutations are always found in the intronic DNA.
B) Silent mutations are always found in the exonic DNA.
C) A change in the coding sequence, that alters the functionality of a protein, is always detrimental.
D) Most changes in the DNA sequence of a gene are silent and have no major effect on protein functionality.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
53) Body cells and gametes typically have the diploid and ____________ number of chromosomes, respectively.

54) The phenomenon where an allele at one locus may mask or prevent the expression of an allele at another locus acting on the same trait is called ____________.

55) Males are said to be ___________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.

56) Aneuploidy is the addition or subtraction of a single _____________ to or from a diploid set.

57) The most familiar form of aneuploidy in humans results in Down Syndrome or ________ _________.

58) mRNA molecules interact with _______ for the production of proteins.

59) _________ _________ are enzymes derived from bacteria; they cleave double-stranded DNA at a particular site determined by the particular base sequences (recognition site) at that point.