Test Bank

Chapter 1: Understanding marketing

1. Which of the following is not a dimension of the holistic marketing concept?

a. relationship marketing

b. integrated marketing

c. social marketing

d. performance marketing

2. The use of marketing to drive social change in behaviours that benefit individuals and society is referred to as ______.

a. cause marketing

b. cause-related marketing

c. sustainability marketing

d. social marketing

3. All the following are examples of Industry 4.0 innovations EXCEPT ______.

a. internet connectivity

b. virtual reality headsets

c. self-driving cars

d. smartphones

4. The decisions and activities related to bringing an offer to market is referred to as ______.

a. value

b. marketing

c. production

d. delivering

5. Markets can be identified by all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. product category

b. geographic region

c. type of buyer

d. branded rewards

6. An offer targeted to consumers and sold by consumers is referred to as ______.

a. C2C

b. B2C

c. C2B

d. B2B

7. The value of making a product available when it is needed is referred to as ______.

a. form utility

b. time utility

c. place utility

d. possession utility

8. Which of the following is not one of the 4Ps in the classic marketing mix?

a. product

b. purpose

c. price

d. place

9. Product, place, price, and promotion known collectively as the 4Ps were expanded to include ______.

a. position, process, and presence

b. people, position, and placement

c. position, process, and placement

d. people, process, and presence

10. An entity for sale is referred to as ______.

a. product

b. price

c. place

d. promotion

11. Marketers use all of the following design elements to suggest sensory perceptions in virtual environments EXCEPT ______.

a. touch

b. sounds

c. aesthetics

d. scents

12. Processing data close to the source is known as ______.

a. edge computing

b. living services

c. machine learning

d. metadata

13. Digital elements of Industry 4.0 driving the era of marketing convergence include all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. internet of everything

b. digital reality

c. additive manufacturing

d. robotics

14. Cognitive technologies include all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. big data analytics

b. artificial intelligence

c. machine learning

d. language processing

15. The set of technology tools used to support and operate marketing activities is referred to as ______.

a. marketing convergence

b. marketing mix

c. marketing technology stack

d. marketing concept process

Chapter 2: Understanding buyers

1. How prospective customers evaluate, buy, use, and dispose of products is known as ______.

a. buyer cognition

b. buyer remorse

c. buyer behaviour

d. buyer characteristics

2. Buyers include all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. individuals

b. platforms

c. families

d. organizations

3. Buyer behaviour is influenced by ______.

a. individual characteristics, sociocultural factors, and environmental factors

b. group characteristics, cultural factors, and environmental factors

c. individual characteristic, social factors, and cultural factors

d. group characteristics, sociocultural factors, and macro-environmental factors

4. Commercial transactions occurring online are known as ______.

a. a-commerce

b. online commerce

c. e-commerce

d. C2C commerce

5. All of the following are a consumer decision-making model stage EXCEPT ______.

a. information search

b. purchase

c. need recognition

d. pre-purchase decisions

6. Marketers can interrupt the stages of the consumer decision-making process with ______.

a. push communications

b. push-pull communications

c. pull communications

d. pull-push communications

7. Changes in buyer behaviour due to the digital age include ______.

a. search is limited to search engines

b. connected customers are not influenced by many resources

c. consumers discover products and research purchases offering same day shipping

d. consumers may see a benefit in researching all kinds of products

8. The interactions people have with brands before, during, and after purchase is known as ______.

a. touchpoints

b. customer journey mapping

c. decision triggers

d. formative attitudes

9. Why do companies engage in the research activity of customer journey mapping?

a. to increase their market share by targeting specific customers

b. to influence buyer behaviour

c. to capture details of the consumer decision-making process

d. to identify the brands most purchased by consumers

10. The Second Moment of Truth occurs at the point of ______.

a. sale

b. experience evaluation

c. product return

d. product research

11. What stage of the consumer decision-making process do post-purchase satisfied customers bypass?

a. need recognition

b. post-purchase outcomes

c. evaluation of alternatives

d. information search

12. Differences between B2B buyers and B2C buyers include all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. independence

b. the relevance of hard and soft costs

c. characteristics of the decision unit

d. partner buying relationships

13. The B2B buyer decision-making model, comprising six stages, includes ______.

a. vendor selection and order

b. pre-purchase evaluation

c. solution recognition

d. evaluation of alternative proposals

14. Which source of information do B2B buyers use to add and eliminate alternatives?

a. the first moment of truth

b. the second moment of truth

c. the third moment of truth

d. the zero moment of truth

15. What is the number one pain point affecting the B2B buyer journey experience?

a. lack of customer base knowledge

b. lack of speed in interactions with their supplier

c. lack of internal framework to facilitate transactions

d. lack of effective communication among in-house marketing teams

Chapter 3: Segmentation, targeting, and positioning

1. The process of dividing the total market into market segments is referred to as ______.

a. personalized marketing

b. market divisibility

c. market segmentation

d. marketing strategy

2. Without a focus on segmentation, organizations in competitive markets become ______.

a. efficient by avoiding unnecessary expenses

b. inefficient and risk failure

c. efficient and more competitive

d. inefficient and avoid misclassifying prospective customers

3. Members of a market segment are ______.

a. heterogenous

b. isogamous

c. amalgamous

d. homogenous

4. Forrester’s Empowered Customer Segmentation Framework includes all of the following characteristics EXCEPT ______.

a. willingness to purchase

b. self-efficacy

c. information savviness

d. device usage

5. A disadvantage of the firmographics market segmentation bases is ______.

a. limited understanding of buyer behaviour and purchasing patterns

b. limited insights into the underlying motives and needs driving market behaviour

c. inaccessible data

d. grouping markets by descriptive characteristics, answering “how” questions

6. The segmentation procedure includes ______.

a. setting segmentation focuses

b. identifying objectives relevant for the project scope

c. assessing segmentation ineffectiveness

d. identifying data sources and collecting data

7. All of the following are stages in a job map for the Jobs-To-Be-Done-Theory EXCEPT ______.

a. monitor

b. determine

c. locate

d. prepare

8. Which of the following targeting strategies is most commonly used?

a. marketing automation strategy

b. mass marketing

c. multi-segment strategy

d. concentration strategy

9. The target market relative attractiveness of segments can be assessed using all of the following characteristics EXCEPT ______.

a. inaccessible

b. substantial

c. durable

d. actionable

10. Customer journeys and buyer personas are developed for each target segment once target segments are ______.

a. differentiated

b. selected

c. identified

d. accessible

11. Which technology makes personalization at the individual level possible?

a. artificial intelligence

b. cloud computing

c. digital analytics

d. edge computing

12. An assertion of the reasons the target market should choose a brand’s offer is known as a ______.

a. positioning statement

b. value proposition

c. mission statement

d. target proposition

13. Which of the following are required to identify the positioning strategy?

a. points of differentiation and points of parity

b. unique selling proposition and competitive frame of reference

c. points of parity and points of differentiation

d. competitive frame of reference and points of differentiation

14. The positioning base with brand image, ideal self, and symbolism descriptive options is referred to as ______.

a. emotion

b. transformational

c. values

d. principles

15. Creating a positioning map requires which three steps?

a. define the market, choose the two dimensions, and plot the positions of each brand

b. define the market, choose the four quadrants, and plot the positions of each competing brand

c. define the market, choose the two dimensions, and plot the positions of each competing brand

d. define the market, choose the four quadrants, and plot the positions of each brand

Chapter 4: Marketing research and analysis

1. Marketing research includes which two types of research?

a. demographic and geographic research

b. economic and behavioural research

c. social and opinion research

d. psychographic and values research

2. Marketing managers use marketing research for all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. assess the ineffectiveness of marketing activities

b. identify trends

c. reduce risk and uncertainty

d. inform marketing mix decisions

3. Marketing decision support system modelling software can answer questions related to all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. budget optimization

b. sales promotion optimization

c. process optimization

d. price optimization

4. Which of the following is a marketing information systems source of information?

a. market research

b. market knowledge

c. market data

d. market intellect

5. Analyzing and synthesizing the meaning of patterns and relationships is a key function of ______.

a. wisdom

b. knowledge

c. information

d. data

6. All of the following can be guided by information from an organization’s marketing information system EXCEPT ______.

a. segmentation

b. targeting

c. positioning

d. marketing mix operational decisions

7. The articulation of what information is needed and how it can be obtained efficiently and effectively is referred to as ______.

a. research problem

b. syndicated research

c. coordinated research

d. request for proposal

8. Which of the following is not a general research role?

a. predictive

b. analytical

c. descriptive

d. diagnostic

9. Information sources created for some other purpose is known as ______.

a. secondary material

b. secondary information

c. secondary data

d. secondary research

10. Which of the following is not a basic stage of the focus group process?

a. conducting

b. projecting

c. planning

d. analyzing

11. Projective research techniques can be categorized into all of the following types EXCEPT ______.

a. completion

b. elicit ordering

c. expressive

d. construction

12. Which one of the following is not a neuromarketing research technique?

a. functional magnetic resonance imaging

b. electroencephalography

c. electromagnetic positron scanning

d. steady state topography

13. Which type of research may complement or replace qualitative research?

a. descriptive research

b. ethnographic research

c. scanner-based research

d. exploratory research

14. Making sure the method of data gathering leads to consistent results is referred to as ______.

a. accuracy

b. trustworthiness

c. credibility

d. reliability

15. A survey report should include which of the following?

a. the research technique

b. the vision statement of the survey

c. a definition of study variables

d. the target population’s gender and ages

Chapter 5: Marketing strategy

1. Marketing strategy results in ______.

a. organizational strategic fit

b. organizational strategic perspective

c. organizational goal achievement

d. organizational strategic intent

2. The term used to describe a clear, concise expression of the organization’s reason for being is referred to as a(n) ______.

a. aspirational statement

b. strategic statement

c. vision statement

d. mission statement

3. Value chain processes are ______.

a. intradependent

b. self-dependent

c. interdependent

d. independent

4. All of the following are cited, by some experts, as strategic planning process limitations EXCEPT ______.

a. contingency assessment

b. ambition

c. innovation

d. future competitive advantage

5. Porter’s Five Forces Model is useful for assessing ______.

a. weaknesses and identifying possible partnerships

b. strengths and identifying possible partnerships

c. opportunities and identifying possible partnerships

d. threats and identifying possible partnerships

6. Which one of the following describes Ansoff’s Matrix market development strategic option?

a. new products and new markets

b. new products and existing markets

c. existing products and new markets

d. existing products and existing markets

7. Which one of the following strategies does not offer a competitive advantage?

a. discrete strategy

b. disruptive strategy

c. differentiated strategy

d. sustaining strategy

8. All of the following are objectives marketers pursue EXCEPT ______.

a. improve brand or product awareness

b. expand perceived customer value

c. generate sales leads

d. improve search engine rankings

9. Which step of the strategic planning process operationalizes the overall marketing strategy?

a. formulate a marketing strategy

b. identify the target market

c. determine the marketing objectives

d. identify a strategic opportunity

10. An obsession for winning that infiltrates every level of an organization is known as ______.

a. strategic purpose

b. strategic vision

c. strategic intent

d. strategic fit

11. Expanding into parallel products is referred to as ______.

a. perpendicular integration

b. vertical integration

c. parallel integration

d. horizontal integration

12. As part of the strategic planning process, formulating a marketing strategy includes all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. product strategies

b. pricing strategies

c. promotional strategies

d. purpose strategies

13. Organizations typically target a mass market with which one of the following approaches?

a. impersonalized

b. undifferentiated

c. differentiated

d. concentrated

14. A marketing plan outline includes all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. performs a situational analysis

b. identifies strategic opportunities

c. implements flexibility strategies

d. describes the target market

15. Marketing objectives can be expressed using the acronym SMART. What does the M stand for?

a. measurable

b. marketing plan

c. market creation

d. mission statement

Chapter 6: Creating value: Products and services

1. Intangible products exist in the synchronous moments of ______.

a. experiences and ideas

b. production and consumption

c. development and enhancement

d. connectivity and capabilities

2. All of the following are SaaS Services EXCEPT ______.

a. DropBox

b. Zoom

c. Uber

d. Google apps

3. Which of the following is a useful tool to identify a core product?

a. Bain’s Elements of Value

b. Forrester’s Empowered Customer Segmentation Framework

c. Jobs-To-Be-Done Theory

d. Porter’s Five Forces Model

4. Which of the following products are not considered substitutable?

a. shopping products

b. specialty products

c. convenience products

d. unsought products

5. Product development can be valuable in all of the following circumstances EXCEPT when ______.

a. customers develop brand loyalty

b. flagship products are successful

c. market trends change

d. localities demand specific tastes

6. Which company does not market product ecosystems?

a. Facebook

b. Apple

c. Amazon

d. Dell

7. Which type of innovation introduces “new to the world” products?

a. social innovations

b. discontinuous innovations

c. disruptive innovations

d. continuous innovations

8. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of the scrum method?

a. incremental improvements to existing products

b. complex problem solving through creative and adaptive teamwork

c. lean development

d. Kanban

9. What does the design-to-value process use to ensure objectivity?

a. product research data, competitive intelligence, and cost analysis

b. consumer research data, artificial intelligence, and statistical analysis

c. product research data, artificial intelligence, and statistical analysis

d. customer research data, competitive intelligence, and cost analysis

10. What does the design-to-cost component of strategic product value management safeguard?

a. brand equity and margins

b. margins and profitability

c. primary demand and brand equity

d. profitability and primary demand

11. Which stage of the product life cycle will experience increased sales and new competition?

a. introduction phase

b. growth stage

c. maturity stage

d. decline

12. Which type of positioning, in the maturity stage of the product life cycle, associates a product with a different category?

a. reverse positioning

b. differentiated positioning

c. breakaway positioning

d. stealth positioning

13. Which adopter category represents the smallest percentage of the population?

a. early adopters

b. early majority

c. innovators

d. laggards

14. Which of the following is not a factor that drives product adoption?

a. compatibility

b. observability

c. trialability

d. complexity

15. What motivates innovators and early adopters to be among the first to acquire an innovation?

a. product scarcity

b. social proof

c. media hype

d. decreased risk

Chapter 7: Offering value: Price

1. Which one of the following terms is not synonymous with price?

a. premium

b. fee

c. seller’s investment

d. rent

2. The single most important decision in evaluating a business is ______.

a. purchasing power

b. pricing power

c. product power

d. sales power

3. Price strategy is designed to achieve all of the following objectives EXCEPT ______.

a. sales

b. margin

c. product trial

d. brand identity

4. At what level of price management is price strategy determined?

a. product market level

b. industry level

c. transaction level

d. supply level

5. Which pricing objective drops sets prices to optimize earnings?

a. maximize profit

b. maximize revenue

c. maximize sales growth

d. maximize profit margin

6. Which type of pricing orientation relies upon benchmarking?

a. cost-based pricing orientation

b. customer value-based pricing orientation

c. competition-based pricing orientation

d. price-based pricing orientation

7. Which of the following factors do companies utilizing a combined pricing orientation not consider?

a. substitutable alternatives

b. competitive intensity

c. gross profitability of the transaction

d. attributes and benefits customers value

8. Which of the following pricing tactics sets price at double the cost?

a. target-return pricing

b. keystone pricing

c. cost-plus pricing

d. prestige pricing

9. How do organization’s using customer-value based pricing score on price orientation?

a. weak

b. medium

c. semi-strong

d. strong

10. Which one of the following does not encourage price leaks?

a. cash discounts for prompt payment

b. the cost of carrying accounts payable

c. freight expenses

d. cooperative advertising allowances

11. While shopping for shoes, you can use the assortment in the store as ______.

a. internal reference prices

b. price transparency

c. price cues

d. external reference prices

12. Which of the following harm a buyer’s ability to make an optimized purchase decision?

a. belief and perception

b. emotion and value

c. substitutes and alternatives

d. price and quality

13. A brands position in the market in relative to its ______.

a. marketing channel

b. perceived value

c. competition

d. psychological influence on customers

14. Which variable is not used in dynamic pricing algorithms?

a. product supply

b. competitor prices

c. demographics

d. current spending patterns

15. Which dynamic pricing model estimates how much each product affects consumer price perception, using actual market data?

a. long-tail model

b. omnichannel model

c. KVI model

d. competitive-response model

Chapter 8: Distributing value: Place

1. A channel of distribution is a path a firm’s product takes including all of the following EXCEP ______.

a. transforming inputs

b. the suppliers involved

c. transporting inputs

d. the firm’s involved

2. A distribution channel can be depicted as a ______.

a. linear chain

b. horizontal chain

c. vertical chain

d. parallel chain

3. Which one of the following is not a primary category of intermediaries?

a. supplier

b. wholesaler

c. retailer

d. marketer

4. Which of the following is not an example of how an intermediary provided facilitating services for other channel members?

a. providing sales support

b. transportation and delivery

c. forecasting supply

d. managing warranties

5. Which of the following intermediaries does not have the infrastructure, systems, or resources to perform all of the necessary supply chain activities?

a. wholesaler

b. distributor

c. manufacturer

d. retailer

6. The channel strategy specifies which of the following?

a. distribution

b. structure

c. procurement process

d. warehousing

7. The channel level is also known as the ______ of the distribution channel.

a. length

b. width

c. height

d. scope

8. What type of channel mode integrates sales channels and sales modes across an entire channel strategy?

a. multi-channel mode

b. omnichannel mode

c. cross-channel mode

d. single channel mode

9. Which type of distribution intensity decision is common for convenience goods like snacks and beverages?

a. moderate distribution

b. exclusive distribution

c. selective distribution

d. intensive distribution

10. A major decision included in the channel strategy is ______.

a. sales platforms

b. channel width

c. channel partnerships

d. transporting inputs

11. Market demand for integrated shopping experiences has driven market demand for ______.

a. cross-channel distribution

b. multi-channel distribution

c. single channel distribution

d. omnichannel distribution

12. What is the most expensive part of the shipping process?

a. picking orders from warehouse shelves

b. last-mile delivery

c. packaging of orders

d. loading packages on transportation systems

13. Which of the following is a characteristic of an adaptable distribution network?

a. Products are available to consumers how they want them.

b. Products are available to consumers when they want them.

c. Products are available to consumers why they want them.

d. Products are available to consumers from whom they want them.

14. Real-time and in-store inventory management capabilities are made possible by all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. algorithmic modelling

b. internet of things sensors

c. data capture and management

d. block chain

15. Which one of the following is not a digitization of supply chain benefit?

a. higher margins

b. improved decision-making

c. lower inventory warehousing costs

d. better product and service quality partner to partner

Chapter 9: Communicating value: Promotion

1. Organizations rely upon strategically developed marketing mixes to ensure a strong ______.

a. mission statement for customers

b. value proposition for customers

c. distribution channel for customers

d. marketing plan for customers

2. Media content can be expressed using the acronym PESO. What does the S stand for?

a. sensor media

b. supply media

c. shared media

d. social media

3. Which element in the promotional mix may be expressed using any of the media types in the PESO model?

a. personal selling

b. direct marketing

c. sales promotion

d. advertising

4. Which one of the below is not an example of social media marketing?

a. video content

b. blogs

c. shared photos

d. online video ads

5. Most digital advertising is purchased and delivered using ______.

a. an ad network

b. programmatic advertising

c. advertising publishers

d. content marketing

6. A viewable display impression is defined as an ad that loads ______.

a. at 60% or more and remains present for at least three seconds

b. at 50% or more and remains present for at least one second

c. at 70% or more and remains present for at least one second

d. at 100% and remains present for at least three seconds

7. Which one of the following is not a type or topic of branded content?

a. nonfiction

b. instructions

c. opinions

d. poetry

8. The two primary players in the communications process are ______.

a. encoding and decoding

b. channels and mediums

c. responses and feedback

d. senders and receivers

9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a politely interrupted marketing communication?

a. They persist for an amount of time controlled by the receiver.

b. They enable receiver engagement.

c. They are interruptive.

d. They turn on a prospect to a brand idea.

10. Which one of the following is not a stage of an effective communications campaign?

a. campaign planning

b. execution

c. campaign media concepting

d. campaign design

11. All of the following are hierarchy of effects stages EXCEPT ______.

a. conative

b. innovative

c. cognitive

d. affective

12. A client brief includes ______.

a. brand positioning

b. media planning

c. research

d. public relations

13. A disadvantage of the MARCOM mix advertising element is ______.

a. negative perception of some modes

b. cost per contact can be high

c. lack of control over outcome

d. difficulty cutting through clutter

14. Which campaign executional style depicts the way a consumer group lives?

a. testimonial

b. lifestyle

c. demonstration

d. slice of life

15. Which of the following is a television media channel advantage?

a. visual impact

b. measurability

c. high reach possible

d. variety of ad formats possible

Chapter 10: Extending value: People, process, and presence in the customer experience

1. The interdependent service relationship between buyers and sellers is consistent with ______.

a. customer benefits managements

b. value-added marketing

c. consumer relationship management

d. relationship marketing

2. All of the following are characteristics of intangibles EXCEPT ______.

a. low in search qualities

b. low in attribute qualities

c. high in experience qualities

d. high in credence qualities

3. Which of the following is most reflective of the service exchange between brands and customers?

a. touchpoints

b. moments

c. episodes

d. efforts

4. All of the following are TRUE about sources of friction EXCEPT ______.

a. friction is felt as pain

b. friction can harm the relationship between brand and buyer

c. friction occurs when a customer depreciates the value of the experience with the brand

d. friction cannot be eliminated

5. The people dimension in the marketing mix refers to ______.

a. employees and customers

b. service providers and marketers

c. boundary spanners and employees

d. customers and marketers

6. Which of the following can speed up service episodes by predicting what will be needed using recognized patterns?

a. service blueprinting

b. robotic process automation

c. machine learning

d. intelligent process automation

7. Which of the following does not illustrate the power of presence indicators to relay meaning?

a. a brand’s name

b. a brand’s values

c. a brand’s logo

d. a brand’s color choices

8. Knowledge friction can be experienced by ______.

a. customer care representatives

b. self-service customers

c. employees

d. third-party partners

9. Which of the following is not a method used to deliver a more personalized and enhanced service to customers?

a. artificial intelligence

b. data modelling

c. dynamic personalization

d. language processing

10. When marketers use presence to design servicescapes, it is referred to as ______.

a. design elements

b. evidence management

c. interior design

d. impression management

11. The backstage actions element of the service blueprint are performed by ______.

a. a frontstage employee and/or a technical support employee

b. a backstage employee

c. a frontstage employee

d. a backstage employee and/or a frontstage employee

12. Which of the following is not an element of the service design principles?

a. It is interdisciplinary.

b. It is a systematic approach.

c. It is a heuristic approach.

d. It is an iterative process.

13. Which of the following techniques can be useful for evaluating the value proposition for new service offerings?

a. episode economics

b. episode frequency

c. episode quality

d. episode experience map

14. A service episode blueprint encourages all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. creativity

b. preemptive problem solving

c. controlled implementation

d. selected service development

15. Service design was born from the culture of ______.

a. interaction

b. design

c. desirability

d. service

Chapter 11: Maintaining value through branding and brand management

1. Brand names and logos are trademarked assets used as ______ to relay meaning.

a. sensory cues

b. intangible cues

c. service cues

d. tangible cues

2. As part of the associative network memory, a set of nodes represent ______.

a. brand associations

b. stored information

c. brand assets

d. memory structure

3. A person’s ability to identify a brand is referred to as ______.

a. brand awareness

b. brand recognition

c. brand image

d. brand concept

4. Which of the following is not a component of customer equity?

a. brand equity

b. offer equity

c. attribute-based equity

d. relationship equity

5. The two primary variables of the Customer-Based Brand Equity Framework, image associations and brand awareness, result in ______.

a. brand assets

b. brand equity

c. brand value

d. brand knowledge

6. Which of the following could cause a major disruption in the distribution of market share by brand?

a. language processing assistants

b. voice-command-driven purchases

c. artificial intelligence assistants

d. voice technology

7. Which of the following is not one of the 3Cs in the comprehensive brand identity system?

a. consumer characteristics

b. company context

c. consumer confidence

d. competitive rivalry

8. Brands that contribute to an existential search for meaning as a sustainable legacy may earn ______.

a. heart share

b. legend share

c. mind share

d. value share

9. Which type of brand purpose seeks to provide a solution to a problem?

a. emotional brand purpose

b. societal brand purpose

c. aspirational brand purpose

d. functional brand purpose

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective purpose-led branding?

a. meaningful

b. unique

c. sustainable

d. coherent

11. All of the following are components of the brand identity planning model EXCEPT ______.

a. brand image

b. brand purpose

c. brand offers in the market

d. brand identity imprint

12. Brand as platform acknowledges the brand identity implications tied to ______.

a. brand ecosystems

b. brand identity

c. brand awareness

d. brand positioning

13. Which effective brand asset usage characteristic means the brand reinforces relevant brand purpose, principles, and messaging?

a. consistency

b. communication

c. clarity

d. coherent

14. All of the following are TRUE about the branded house strategy option EXCEPT that it ______.

a. is the most autonomous option

b. leverages an established master brand

c. requires a minimum investment in each new offering

d. enhances the clarity and synergy of a portfolio

15. An assembled collection of brands is referred to as a ______.

a. master brand

b. branded house strategy

c. house of brands

d. endorsed brand strategy

Chapter 12: Managing value: Analytics and marketing value management systems

1. Marketers are increasingly turning to marketing analytics and MVMS to ______.

a. measure management performance

b. inform market planning

c. determine how budgets can be reduced

d. anticipate consumer purchases

2. Which of the following stems from the impact of Industry 4.0 technologies on marketing functions and the need to manage it?

a. cost savings

b. efficiencies

c. new revenue sources

d. necessity

3. Key performance indicators including customer satisfaction, share of wallet, and margin inform decisions on ______.

a. price strategy

b. brand segmentation

c. retention

d. promotion strategy

4. The Value Management Strategy Map identifies all of the following value perspectives of marketing strategy EXCEPT ______.

a. marketing mix

b. tangible performance

c. financial performance

d. customer value proposition

5. Which of the following is not an intangible performance marketing measure or metric?

a. customer lifetime equity

b. customer loyalty

c. brand image

d. customer retention

6. Publishing performance data could serve to influence ______.

a. brand awareness

b. brand loyalty

c. brand reputation

d. brand image

7. Which one of the following financial metrics is not a lag indicator of marketing performance?

a. growth in revenues

b. growth in profitability

c. return on equity

d. return on marketing investment

8. Medium-term metrics are valuable for all of the following strategic marketing activities EXCEPT ______.

a. sustainability of a brand’s competitive advantage

b. brand-building

c. developing customer relationship strength

d. establishing a pipeline for new product launches

9. A fully developed MVMS is capable of all of the following EXCEPT ______.

a. transforming data to create new variables

b. calculating simple measures quickly, even with millions of data points

c. pulling data from a variety of sources

d. cleaning data to ensure quality and compatibility

10. The goal of an MVMS is to generate ______.

a. performance goals

b. marketing strategies

c. relevant marketing decisions

d. marketing intelligence

11. The last step of the 6D MVMS Process model is to ______.

a. design marketing strategies and activities based on findings

b. document by capturing relevant, reliable, and valid data

c. deploy the implementing marketing strategies

d. discover patterns and relationships in the data using data analysis

12. The impact of marketing analytics is experienced ______.

a. before the marketing activities are implemented

b. after marketing activities are assessed

c. after marketing activities are implemented

d. before marketing activities are assessed

13. Machine learning and natural language processing can perform all of the following functions EXCEPT ______.

a. predict consumer purchases

b. recognize fraudulent credit card activity

c. automate personalized targeting of digital ads

d. collect data about product usage

14. Which technology can improve how employees who rely on marketing metrics benefit from analytics?

a. internet of everything

b. augmented reality

c. semantic computing

d. sentiment and text analysis

15. Which of the following is not a reason behind ineffective MVMS?

a. a lack of unstandardized definitions of variables

b. failure to map the metrics to the information’s purpose

c. ill-defined data definitions

d. satisficing on system functionality to retrofit existing systems