Exam Prep Systems & Project Responsibility Chapter 9 - M Information Systems 5th Edition | Test Bank with Answer Key by Paige Baltzan by Paige Baltzan. DOCX document preview.
M: Information Systems, 5e (Baltzan)
Chapter 9 Systems Development and Project Management: Corporate Responsibility
1) A joint application development session is where employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system.
2) Business requirements are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful, so the analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire systems development effort.
3) Business requirements include the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system.
4) Conversion modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements.
5) Off-the-shelf application software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization's needs.
6) The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance.
7) The planning phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals.
8) Conversion occurs when a person or event is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes.
9) Brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted.
10) Requirements management is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project.
11) Projects are typically dynamic in nature, and change should be expected and anticipated for successful project completion.
12) A requirements definition document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company.
13) Sign-off is the users' actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements.
14) The analysis phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation.
15) The design phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation.
16) The testing phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system.
17) Software engineering is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools.
18) Software engineers use computer-aided software engineering (CASE) software tools to provide automated support for the development of the system.
19) Control objects for information and related technology (COBIT) is a set of best practices that helps an organization to maximize the benefits of an information system, while at the same time establishing appropriate controls to ensure minimum errors.
20) Object-oriented languages provide a programming method that provides for interactive modules to a website.
21) Scripting languages group data and corresponding processes into objects.
22) Fourth-generation languages (4GL) are programming languages that look similar to human languages. For example, a typical 4GL command might state, "FIND ALL RECORDS WHERE NAME IS "SMITH". "
23) The development phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase.
24) Bugs are defects in the code of an information system.
25) Test conditions detail the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step. In the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it.
26) Detailed user documentation is created that highlights how to use the system and how to troubleshoot issues or problems.
27) Training is also provided for the system users and can be online or in a classroom.
28) Online training runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace.
29) Workshop training is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor.
30) Help desk are a group of people who respond to user's questions.
31) Development testing assesses if the entire system meets the design requirements of the users.
32) Alpha testing occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free.
33) Development testing verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly.
34) Integration testing verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together.
35) User acceptance testing (UAT) determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements.
36) User acceptance testing tests individual units or pieces of code for a system.
37) Unit testing uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verify that the new system functions correctly.
38) Plunge implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system.
39) Pilot implementation is a small group of people who use the new system until it is verified that it works correctly, then the remaining users migrate.
40) Pilot implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly.
41) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues.
42) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure.
43) Internal reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization. Internal reports typically support day-to-day operations monitoring that supports managerial decision making.
44) Detailed internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data.
45) Exception reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal.
46) Summary internal reports highlight situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard.
47) Information system control reports ensure the reliability of information, consisting of policies and their physical implementation, access restrictions, or recordkeeping of actions and transactions.
48) Information systems audit reports assess a company's information system to determine necessary changes and to help ensure the information systems' availability, confidentiality, and integrity.
49) Post-implementation reports are formal reports or audits of a project after it is up-and-running.
50) Preventative maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure.
51) Preventing liabilities is a business-related consequence of failed software.
52) The implementation phase involves taking all of the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforming them into the actual system.
53) Process modeling involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment.
54) A data flow diagram (DFD) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system.
55) A data flow diagram involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment.
56) Process modeling illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system.
57) Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development.
58) Control objects for information and related technology (COBIT) are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development.
59) First generation machine language is difficult for people to understand.
60) Second generation assembly language is difficult for people to understand.
61) Examples of third generation high-level programming languages include C+ and Java.
62) Fourth generation programming languages look similar to human languages.
63) Fifth generation programming languages are used for artificial intelligence and neural networks.
64) The traditional waterfall methodology is a sequential, activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance.
65) Scrum is a sequential, activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance.
66) A prototype is a smaller-scale representation or working model of the users' requirements or a proposed design for an information system.
67) A methodology is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges.
68) Plunge implementation is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges.
69) The oldest and the best known methodology is the waterfall methodology, a sequence of phases in which the output of each phase becomes the input for the next.
70) The oldest and the best known methodology is the agile methodology, a sequence of phases in which the output of each phase becomes the input for the next.
71) Prototyping is a modern design approach by which the designers and system users use an iterative approach to building the system.
72) Discovery prototyping builds a small-scale representation or working model of the system to ensure that it meets the user and business requirements.
73) Iterative development consists of a series of tiny projects. It has become the foundation of multiple agile methodologies.
74) Waterfall development consists of a series of tiny projects. It has become the foundation of multiple agile methodologies.
75) An agile methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process using the bare minimum requirements.
76) Rapid application development (RAD) methodology (also called rapid prototyping) emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system, to accelerate the systems development process.
77) Extreme programming (XP) methodology, like other agile methods, breaks a project into four phases, and developers cannot continue to the next phase until the previous phase is complete.
78) The rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four gates
79) Gate one includes inception and this phase ensures that all stakeholders have a shared understanding of the proposed system and what it will do.
80) Gate two is elaboration and this phase expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it.
81) Gate three is construction and this phase includes building and developing the product.
82) Gate four is transition and the primary questions answered in this phase address ownership of the system and training of key personnel.
83) The scrum methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a series of sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal.
84) Service-oriented architecture (SOA) is a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services.
85) The waterfall approach is a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services.
86) SOA ensures that MIS systems can adapt quickly, easily, and economically to support rapidly changing business needs.
87) SOA promotes a scalable and flexible enterprise architecture that can implement new or reuse existing MIS components, creating connections among disparate applications and systems.
88) It is important to understand that SOA is not a concrete architecture; it is thought that leads to a concrete architecture. It might be described as a style, paradigm, concept, perspective, philosophy, or representation. That is, SOA is an approach, a way of thinking, a value system that leads to decisions that design a concrete architecture allowing enterprises to plug in new services or upgrade existing services in a granular approach.
89) An SOA service is simply a business task, such as checking a potential customer's credit rating when opening a new account.
90) A service is a business task.
91) Loose coupling is the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component.
92) Interoperability is the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers.
93) Interoperability is a business task.
94) A service is the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component.
95) Loose coupling is the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers.
96) A web service is an open-standards way of supporting interoperability. Web services are application programming interfaces (API) that can be accessed over a network, such as the Internet, and executed on a remote system hosting the requested services.
97) A web service is an open-standards way of supporting interoperability.
98) Extensible Markup Language (XML) is a markup language for documents, containing structured information.
99) Extensible Markup Language is an open-standards way of supporting interoperability.
100) A web service is a markup language for documents, containing structured information.
101) Project milestones are any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project.
102) Project deliverables represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed.
103) Discovery prototyping builds a small-scale representation or working model of the system to ensure it meets the user and business requirements.
104) Rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four "gates."
105) Scrum methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a series of "sprints," or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal.
106) A communication plan defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations.
107) The executive sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project.
108) Project constraints are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration.
109) Project assumptions are specific factors that can limit options including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies.
110) A project objective is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project.
111) The project management office (PMO) is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects.
112) Project assumptions represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed.
113) Project objectives are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success.
114) The project requirements document defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts.
115) Project scope statement links the project to the organization's overall business goals. It describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project.
116) The project managers are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.
117) Responsibility matrix defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role.
118) Status reports are periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance.
119) A kill switch is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before completion.
120) A Gantt chart is a graphical network model that depicts a project's tasks and the relationships between them.
121) A dependency is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks, or between a project task and a milestone.
122) A dependency is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before completion.
123) A kill switch is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks, or between a project task and a milestone.
124) Gantt charts define dependency between project tasks before those tasks are scheduled.
125) A critical path for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed.
126) A PERT chart is a simple bar chart that lists project tasks vertically against the project's time frame, listed horizontally.
127) In the past, outsourcing was often used tactically, as a quick-fix, short-term solution to a particular need or problem which did not form part of an overall business strategy.
128) Outsourcing is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the organization's information technology systems.
129) In-sourcing is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house.
130) Offshore outsourcing is using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems.
131) In-sourcing (in-house development) uses the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain its information technology systems. In-sourcing has been instrumental in creating a viable supply of IT professionals and in creating a better quality workforce combining both technical and business skills.
132) In-sourcing has been instrumental in creating a viable supply of IT professionals and in creating a better quality workforce combining both technical and business skills.
133) Outsourcing is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house.
134) Onshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another company within the same country for services.
135) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an outsourcing arrangement with a company in a nearby country. Often this country will share a border with the native country.
136) Offshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems. In offshore outsourcing the country is geographically far away.
137) Offshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another company within the same country for services.
138) Onshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an outsourcing arrangement with a company in a nearby country. Often this country will share a border with the native country.
139) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems. In offshore outsourcing the country is geographically far away.
140) Human resources is the most common outsourced function.
141) Trend analysis is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts.
142) Trend projection is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts.
143) The world's population will double in the next 20 years.
144) People in undeveloped countries are living longer.
145) The ambient digital experience is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another.
146) Biological 3D printing includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications.
147) The Information of Everything (IoE) is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes.
148) The Internet of Things (IoT) is a concept that emphases on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes.
149) Real time adaptive computing is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human body's autonomic nervous system.
150) Which phase does the firm analyzes its end-user business requirements and refines project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system?
A) analysis phase
B) design phase
C) development phase
D) testing phase
151) What are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful?
A) COBIT
B) conversion
C) business requirements
D) sign-off
152) What is the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system?
A) COBIT
B) conversion
C) business requirements
D) sign-off
153) What modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements?
A) software customization
B) conversion
C) business requirements
D) sign-off
154) Which software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization's needs?
A) SDLC
B) software customization
C) off-the-shelf application
D) application software
155) What is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance?
A) SDLC
B) software customization
C) off-the-shelf application
D) sign-off
156) Which phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals?
A) testing phase
B) analysis phase
C) maintenance phase
D) planning phase
157) What is a person or event that is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes?
A) change controller
B) change over
C) change management
D) change agent
158) What is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted?
A) brainstorming
B) change agent
C) test conditions
D) bugs
159) What is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project?
A) requirements documentation
B) requirements management
C) requirements definition document
D) all of these
160) Which document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company?
A) requirements documentation
B) requirements management
C) requirements definition document
D) all of these
161) What contains the users' actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements?
A) requirements documentation
B) requirements management
C) requirements definition document
D) sign-off
162) Which phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system?
A) testing phase
B) analysis phase
C) development phase
D) planning phase
163) What is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools?
A) software
B) software testing
C) software engineering
D) all of these
164) What do software engineers use as tools to provide automated support for the development of the system?
A) software
B) IEEE
C) COBIT
D) CASE
165) What is a set of best practices that helps an organization to maximize the benefits of an information system, while at the same time establishing appropriate controls to ensure minimum errors?
A) COBIT
B) CASE
C) IEEE
D) All of these
166) What is a programming method that provides for interactive modules to a website?
A) scripting language
B) object-oriented language
C) fourth-generation language
D) all of these
167) What language groups data and corresponding processes into objects?
A) scripting language
B) object-oriented language
C) fourth-generation language
D) all of these
168) What languages are programming languages that look similar to human languages?
A) scripting language
B) object-oriented language
C) fourth-generation language
D) all of these
169) Which phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase?
A) testing phase
B) analysis phase
C) development phase
D) planning phase
170) What are defects in the code of an information system?
A) testing
B) bugs
C) insects
D) all of these
171) What details the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step?
A) testing phase
B) testing documentation
C) test conditions
D) all of these
172) What is created that highlights how to use the system and how to troubleshoot issues or problems?
A) detailed user documentation
B) requirements definition document
C) scope document
D) all of these
173) What is also provided for the system users and can be online or in a classroom?
A) training
B) testing
C) implementation phase
D) testing phase
174) What runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace?
A) online training
B) workshop training
C) help desk
D) corrective maintenance
175) What is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor?
A) online training
B) workshop training
C) help desk
D) corrective maintenance
176) What is a group of people who respond to users' questions?
A) online training
B) workshop training
C) help desk
D) corrective maintenance
177) What assesses if the entire system meets the design requirements of the users?
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing
D) system testing
178) What occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free?
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing
D) system testing
179) What verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly?
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing
D) system testing
180) What verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together?
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing
D) system testing
181) What determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements?
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing
D) user acceptance testing
182) What tests individual units or pieces of code for a system?
A) unit testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing
D) user acceptance testing
183) Which implementation uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verify that the new system functions correctly?
A) parallel implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation
D) phased implementation
184) Which implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system?
A) parallel implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation
D) phased implementation
185) Which implementation is a small group of people who use the new system until it is verified that it works correctly, then the remaining users migrate?
A) parallel implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation
D) phased implementation
186) Which implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly?
A) parallel implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation
D) phased implementation
187) What makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues?
A) corrective maintenance
B) preventative maintenance
C) pilot implementation
D) phased implementation
188) What makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure?
A) corrective maintenance
B) preventative maintenance
C) pilot implementation
D) phased implementation
189) Which reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization?
A) internal reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports
D) exception reports
190) Which internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data?
A) internal reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports
D) exception reports
191) Which internal reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal?
A) internal reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports
D) exception reports
192) Which reports provide an internal report that highlights situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard?
A) internal reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports
D) exception reports
193) Which of the following is a business-related consequence of successful software?
A) increased revenues
B) damage to brand reputation
C) increased liabilities
D) increased expenses
194) Which of the following is a business-related consequence of failing software?
A) decrease productivity
B) damage to brand reputation
C) increased liabilities
D) all of these
195) What is the systems development life cycle?
A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals
B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system
C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system
D) the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance
196) What is the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance?
A) systems development life cycle
B) project management
C) systems management
D) project development life cycle
197) Which of the following represents the phases in the SDLC?
A) plan, analysis, design, test, maintain, develop, implement
B) analysis, plan, design, test, develop, maintain, implement
C) plan, analysis, design, develop, test, implement, maintain
D) analysis, plan, develop, design, test, implement, maintain
198) What is the analysis phase in the SDLC?
A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals
B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system
C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system
D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system
199) Which phase of the SDLC gathers business requirements?
A) plan
B) analysis
C) test
D) design
200) What is a session where employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system?
A) joint application development
B) requirements management
C) process modeling
D) data flow diagram
201) What is a business requirement?
A) the nonspecific business requests the system must meet to be successful
B) the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful
C) the nonspecific methodology the system must meet to be successful
D) the specific methodology the system must meet to be successful
202) What is the design phase in the SDLC?
A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals
B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system
C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system
D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system
203) What is the implementation phase in the SDLC?
A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals
B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system
C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system
D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system
204) What is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges?
A) SDLC
B) methodology
C) waterfall
D) agile
205) What is a project manager?
A) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management, defines and develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget
B) describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project
C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project
D) involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment
206) What is the project scope?
A) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management, defines and develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget
B) describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project
C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project
D) involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment
207) What is a project plan?
A) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development
C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project
D) involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment
208) What is process modeling?
A) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development
C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project
D) involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment
209) What is a data flow diagram (DFD)?
A) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development
C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project
D) involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment
210) What are computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools?
A) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development
C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project
D) involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment
211) What involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment?
A) data flow diagram
B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools
C) systems development life cycle
D) process modeling
212) What illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system?
A) data flow diagram
B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools
C) systems development life cycle
D) process modeling
213) What are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development?
A) data flow diagram
B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools
C) systems development life cycle
D) process modeling
214) Which machine language is difficult for people to understand?
A) first generation machine language
B) fifth generation machine language
C) third generation machine language
D) fourth generation machine language
215) Which assembly language is difficult for people to understand?
A) fifth generation assembly language
B) second generation assembly language
C) third generation assembly language
D) fourth generation assembly language
216) Which high-level programming language uses c+ and java?
A) first generation machine language
B) second generation machine language
C) third generation machine language
D) fourth generation machine language
217) Which programming language looks similar to human languages?
A) first generation machine language
B) second generation machine language
C) third generation machine language
D) fourth generation machine language
218) Which programming language is for artificial intelligence and neural network?
A) fifth generation machine language
B) second generation machine language
C) third generation machine language
D) fourth generation machine language
219) Which of the following is an issue related to the waterfall methodology?
A) flaws in accurately defining and articulating the business problem
B) managing costs, resources, and time constraints
C) assumes users can specify all business requirements in advance
D) all of these
220) What consists of a series of tiny projects?
A) waterfall methodology
B) iterative development
C) agile methodology
D) all of these
221) Which methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirements?
A) RAD methodology
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology
D) extreme programming
222) Which of the following describes agile?
A) fast and efficient
B) small and nimble
C) lower cost
D) all of these
223) Which of the following is not a primary form of agile methodology?
A) RAD
B) SDLC
C) RUP
D) Scrum
224) What is an activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance?
A) RAD methodology
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology
D) extreme programming
225) What emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process?
A) RAD methodology
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology
D) extreme programming
226) What breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete?
A) RAD methodology
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology
D) extreme programming
227) What is the success rate for a project using the waterfall methodology?
A) 1 in 10
B) 2 in 10
C) 4 in 10
D) 8 in 10
228) Which of the following is a fundamental of the RAD methodology?
A) Focus initially on creating a prototype that looks and acts like the desired system.
B) Actively involve system users in the analysis, design, and development phases.
C) Accelerate collecting the business requirements through an interactive and iterative construction approach.
D) All of these.
229) Which methodology provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four gates?
A) Scrum
B) XP
C) RAD
D) RUP
230) Which of the following is not one of the four gates in the RUP methodology?
A) inception
B) collaboration
C) construction
D) transition
231) Which gate in the RUP methodology expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it?
A) inception
B) elaboration
C) construction
D) transition
232) Which gate in the RUP methodology includes building and developing the project?
A) inception
B) elaboration
C) construction
D) transition
233) Which methodology is owned by IBM?
A) Scrum
B) XP
C) RAD
D) RUP
234) Which methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of deliverable software using sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal?
A) Scrum
B) XP
C) RUP
D) RAD
235) Which methodology ends each day or begins with a stand-up meeting to monitor and control the development effort?
A) Scrum
B) XP
C) RUP
D) RAD
236) How many days is a typical sprint in the Scrum methodology?
A) 2 days
B) 10 days
C) 30 days
D) 90 days
237) Which gate ensures that all stakeholders have a shared understanding of the proposed system and what it will do?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
238) Which gate expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
239) Which gate includes building and developing the product?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
240) Which gate provides answers to address ownership of the system and training of key personnel?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
241) Which gate is inception?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
242) Which gate is elaboration?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
243) Which gate is transition?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
244) Which gate is construction?
A) gate one
B) gate two
C) gate three
D) gate four
245) What is a service-oriented architecture?
A) a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services
B) a business task
C) the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component
D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers
246) What is a service?
A) a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services
B) a business task
C) the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component
D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers
247) What is loose coupling?
A) a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services
B) a business task
C) the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component
D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers
248) What is interoperability?
A) a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services
B) a business task
C) the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component
D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers
249) What is a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services?
A) service-oriented architecture
B) service
C) loose coupling
D) interoperability
250) What is a business task?
A) service-oriented architecture
B) service
C) loose coupling
D) interoperability
251) What is the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component?
A) service-oriented architecture
B) service
C) loose coupling
D) interoperability
252) What is the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers?
A) service-oriented architecture
B) service
C) loose coupling
D) interoperability
253) What is a markup language for documents containing structured information?
A) service-oriented architecture
B) service
C) Extensible Markup Language
D) interoperability
254) What are the three primary variables (or triple constraints) in any project?
A) time, cost, expense
B) time, expense, requirements
C) time, cost, scope
D) time, cost, quality
255) What is the number one reason that IT projects fall behind schedule or fail?
A) change in business goals during the project
B) lack of support from business management
C) poor planning or poor project management
D) change in technology during the project
256) Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful project?
A) delivered on time
B) delivered within budget
C) meets the business's requirements
D) all of these
257) What is a project?
A) a temporary activity undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project
C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
D) represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed
258) What are project deliverables?
A) a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project
C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
D) represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed
259) What is a project manager?
A) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project
B) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
C) represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed
D) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management
260) Which of the following does a project manager perform?
A) defines and develops the project plan
B) tracks the plan to ensure all key project milestones are completed on time
C) expert in project planning and management
D) all of these
261) What is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects?
A) project deliverables
B) project scope
C) project management office
D) project milestones
262) The PMI develops procedures and concepts necessary to support the profession of project management. Which of the following is not one of the three areas it focuses on?
A) the distinguishing characteristics of a practicing professional (ethics)
B) the content and structure of the profession's body of knowledge (standards)
C) change in business goals during project planning (management)
D) recognition of professional attainment (accreditation)
263) Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion?
A) project manager
B) project stakeholders
C) executive sponsor
D) all of these
264) Who is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project?
A) project manager
B) project stakeholders
C) executive sponsor
D) communication plan
265) What defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations?
A) communication plan
B) executive sponsor
C) project assumptions
D) project deliverable
266) What are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration?
A) project plan
B) project constraints
C) project assumptions
D) project deliverable
267) What are specific factors that can limit options including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies?
A) project objectives
B) project constraints
C) project assumptions
D) project deliverable
268) What is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project?
A) project milestones
B) project objectives
C) project assumptions
D) project deliverable
269) What represents key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed?
A) project milestones
B) project objectives
C) project assumptions
D) project deliverable
270) What are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success?
A) project milestones
B) project objectives
C) project assumptions
D) project deliverable
271) What defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts?
A) project milestones
B) project objectives
C) project requirements document
D) project deliverable
272) What statement links the project to the organization's overall business goals?
A) project milestones
B) project objectives
C) project scope statement
D) project deliverable
273) Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion?
A) project stakeholders
B) project managers
C) project planners
D) project testers
274) What defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role?
A) communication plan
B) responsibility matrix
C) project assumptions
D) project deliverable
275) What are intangible benefits?
A) difficult to quantify or measure
B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance
276) What are tangible benefits?
A) difficult to quantify or measure
B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance
277) What is feasibility?
A) difficult to quantify or measure
B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance
278) What is economic feasibility?
A) measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B) measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C) measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D) measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
279) What is operational feasibility?
A) measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B) measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C) measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D) measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
280) What is schedule feasibility?
A) measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B) measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C) measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D) measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
281) What is technical feasibility?
A) measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B) measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C) measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D) measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
282) What is political feasibility?
A) measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity
B) measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C) measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D) measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
283) What is legal feasibility?
A) measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity
B) measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations
C) measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D) measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
284) What measures the cost-effectiveness of a project?
A) economic feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility
D) technical feasibility
285) What measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities?
A) economic feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility
D) technical feasibility
286) What measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time?
A) economic feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility
D) technical feasibility
287) What measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise?
A) economic feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility
D) technical feasibility
288) What measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity?
A) political feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility
D) legal feasibility
289) What measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations?
A) political feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility
D) legal feasibility
290) What is a status report?
A) difficult to quantify or measure
B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance
291) Which of the following are tangible benefits?
A) improved decision making
B) improved community service
C) improved goodwill
D) increased quantity or sales
292) Which of the following are intangible benefits?
A) improved decision making
B) decreased expenses
C) decreased response time
D) increased quantity or sales
293) What are project constraints?
A) specific factors that can limit options
B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration
C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
D) a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
294) What are project assumptions?
A) specific factors that can limit options
B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration
C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
D) a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
295) What is a project charter?
A) specific factors that can limit options
B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration
C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
D) a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
296) An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the "what" part of this question focus on?
A) justification of the project
B) definition of the project
C) expected results of the project
D) all of these
297) An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the "how" part of this question focus on?
A) justification of the project
B) definition of the project
C) analysis of project risks
D) expected results of the project
298) Which of the following is not a technique for choosing strategic projects?
A) categorize projects
B) perform a financial analysis
C) focus on organizational goals
D) develop a project plan
299) What is project scope?
A) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
B) products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project
C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
D) defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
300) What are project objectives?
A) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
B) products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project
C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
D) defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
301) What do SMART criteria for successful objective creation include?
A) specific, metrics, agreed upon, real, time valued
B) specific, measurable, agreed upon, realistic, time framed
C) specific, measurable, accurate, real, time valued
D) specific, metrics, agreed upon, realistic, time framed
302) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well-defined project plan?
A) prepared by the project manager
B) easy to read
C) appropriate to the project's size
D) communicated to all key participants
303) What is the most important part of the project plan?
A) Gantt chart
B) specification
C) communication
D) none of these
304) What is a graphical network model that depicts a project's tasks and the relationships between those tasks?
A) Gantt chart
B) PERT chart
C) dependency
D) all of these
305) What is the logical relationship that exists between the project tasks, or between a project task and a milestone?
A) resource
B) task
C) dependency
D) activity
306) What is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks against a calendar?
A) Gantt chart
B) PERT chart
C) dependency
D) all of these
307) What type of chart typically displays the critical path?
A) Gantt chart
B) PERT chart
C) all of these
D) none of these
308) What is the critical path?
A) the path from resource to task that passes through all critical components of a project plan
B) the path between tasks to the projects finish that passes through all critical components of a project plan
C) the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed
D) the path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the longest amount of time
309) In a Gantt chart tasks are listed ________ and the project's time frame is listed ________.
A) vertically; horizontally
B) horizontally; vertically
C) vertically; vertically
D) horizontally; horizontally
310) Which of the following includes a common reason why change occurs?
A) a misunderstanding of the initial scope
B) shifts in planned technology that force unexpected and significant changes to the business
C) an omission in defining initial scope
D) all of these
311) Which of the following is not a guideline for effectively dealing with change management?
A) Institute change management policies.
B) Seek change.
C) Anticipate change.
D) Stop change.
312) What is the outsourcing option that includes the most remote location and indirect customer control?
A) onshore outsourcing
B) nearshore outsourcing
C) offshore outsourcing
D) none of these
313) What is the outsourcing option that includes the closest location and direct customer control?
A) onshore outsourcing
B) nearshore outsourcing
C) offshore outsourcing
D) none of these
314) All of the following are challenges of outsourcing, except
A) contract length.
B) competitive edge.
C) confidentiality.
D) reduced frustration and expense related to hiring and retaining employees in an exceptionally tight job market.
315) Which of the following is an outsourcing challenge caused by contract length?
A) difficulties in getting out of a contract
B) problems in foreseeing future issues
C) problems in reforming an internal IT department
D) all of these
316) What is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the organization's information technology systems?
A) in-sourcing
B) outsourcing
C) business process outsourcing
D) offshore outsourcing
317) What is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house?
A) in-sourcing
B) outsourcing
C) business process outsourcing
D) offshore outsourcing
318) What is it called when a company uses organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems?
A) in-sourcing
B) outsourcing
C) business process outsourcing
D) offshore outsourcing
319) Which of the following is a benefit an organization can receive from outsourcing?
A) financial savings
B) increase technical abilities
C) market agility
D) all of these
320) Which of the following is the primary reason why companies outsource?
A) Tap outside sources of expertise.
B) Concentrate resources on core business.
C) Reduce headcount and related expenses.
D) Better manage the costs of internal processes.
321) Which of the following is the least common reason why companies outsource?
A) Tap outside sources of expertise.
B) Concentrate resources on core business.
C) Reduce headcount and related expenses.
D) Better manage the costs of internal processes.
322) What is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements?
A) project management
B) project management software
C) scope
D) none of these
323) Organizations anticipate, forecast, and assess future events using a variety of rational, scientific methods including
A) trend analysis.
B) trend monitoring.
C) trend projection.
D) all of these.
324) What is trend analysis?
A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future.
B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts.
C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers.
D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine "what if" analysis.
325) What is trend monitoring?
A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future.
B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts.
C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers.
D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine "what if" analysis.
326) What is trend projection?
A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future.
B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts.
C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers.
D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine "what if" analysis.
327) What is historical analysis?
A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future.
B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts.
C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers.
D) Historical events are studied to anticipate the outcome of current developments.
328) All of the following are scientific methods organizations use to anticipate, forecast, and assess the future, except
A) computer simulation.
B) historical analysis.
C) trend analysis.
D) trend simulation.
329) Which of the following is not one of the top reasons organizations should study trends?
A) Generate current revenue.
B) Gain confidence.
C) Generate ideas.
D) Beat the competition.
330) All of the following are countries expected to have the largest increases in population between 2000 and 2050, except
A) Palestinian territory.
B) India.
C) Democratic Republic of the Congo.
D) Yemen.
331) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from the world's population doubling in the next 40 years?
A) Developed nations will begin to increase immigration limits.
B) Developed nations will find that retirees will have to remain on the job to remain competitive.
C) Global agriculture will be required to supply as much food as has been produced during all of human history.
D) The time to get products and services to market is being shortened by technology.
332) On average, how many years longer does each generation live than the previous in the United States?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
333) What are the life expectancies for men and women in many developed countries?
A) over 65 years for males and over 75 years for females
B) over 75 years for males and over 65 years for females
C) over 75 years for males and over 80 years for females
D) over 80 years for males and over 75 years for females
334) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from people in developed countries living longer?
A) Global demand for elderly products will grow.
B) Global demand for elderly services will grow.
C) The cost of health care will decrease.
D) Pharmaceutical companies will be pushed for advances in geriatric medicine.
335) What kind of society is being created by the growth in information industries?
A) knowledge-independent global society
B) knowledge-dependent global society
C) knowledge-independent local society
D) knowledge-dependent local society
336) Which of the following is not a potential business impact created by the growth in information industries?
A) Top managers must be computer-literate.
B) Knowledge workers are generally higher paid.
C) Entry-level positions will require less education.
D) Downsizing will continue.
337) Why is the global economy becoming more integrated?
A) relaxed borders in the European Union
B) the Internet
C) international outsourcing
D) all of these
338) Which of the following is one of the primary reasons for the increase in Internet use?
A) reorganization
B) connectivity technology
C) organizational restructuring
D) all of these
339) All of the following jobs will be increasingly performed by robots, except
A) mundane commercial and service jobs.
B) environmentally dangerous jobs.
C) the repair of inaccessible equipment such as space stations.
D) jobs performed by scientists, engineers, and technicians.
340) What does 50 percent of what a student learns about innovative technology in their freshman year of college become by their senior year?
A) obsolete
B) revised
C) taken for granted
D) all of these
341) What percentage will all of today's technical knowledge represent in 2050?
A) one
B) ten
C) twenty
D) fifty
342) How long does a product's entire life cycle last today?
A) 4 weeks
B) 40 weeks
C) 4 months
D) 4 years
343) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Companies must take an active role in helping their employees balance their time at work with their family lives and need for leisure.
A) The global economy is becoming more integrated.
B) Pace of technological innovation is increasing.
C) The economy and society are dominated by technology.
D) Time is becoming one of the world's most precious commodities.
344) Which trend has the following potential business impact? The time to get products and services to market is being shortened by technology.
A) The global economy is becoming more integrated.
B) Pace of technological innovation is increasing.
C) The economy and society are dominated by technology.
D) Time is becoming one of the world's most precious commodities.
345) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Demand for personnel in distant countries will increase the need for foreign language training, employee incentives suited to other cultures, and many other aspects of performing business globally.
A) The global economy is becoming more integrated.
B) Pace of technological innovation is increasing.
C) The growth in information industries is creating a knowledge-dependent global society.
D) The economy and society are dominated by technology.
346) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Top managers must be computer-literate to retain their jobs and achieve success.
A) The global economy is becoming more integrated.
B) Pace of technological innovation is increasing.
C) The growth in information industries is creating a knowledge-dependent global society.
D) The economy and society are dominated by technology.
347) What is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and also to learn?
A) autonomic computing
B) real-time adaptive security
C) autonomous agent
D) machine learning
348) What is software that carries out some set of operations on behalf of a user or another program with some degree of independence or autonomy and employs some knowledge or representation of the user's goals or desires?
A) autonomic computing
B) real-time adaptive security
C) autonomous agent
D) machine learning
349) What is the network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple perimeters and moving parts on the network, and increasingly advanced threats targeting enterprises?
A) autonomic computing
B) real-time adaptive security
C) autonomous agent
D) machine learning
350) What is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human body's autonomic nervous system?
A) autonomic computing
B) real-time adaptive security
C) autonomous agent
D) machine learning
351) What is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another?
A) ambient digital experience
B) biological 3D printing
C) Internet of Things (IoT)
D) Information of Everything (IoE)
352) What includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications?
A) ambient digital experience
B) biological 3D printing
C) Internet of Things (IoT)
D) Information of Everything (IoE)
353) What is a world where interconnected Internet-enabled devices or "things" have the ability to collect and share data without human intervention?
A) ambient digital experience
B) biological 3D printing
C) Internet of Things (IoT)
D) Information of Everything (IoE)
354) What is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes?
A) ambient digital experience
B) biological 3D printing
C) Internet of Things (IoT)
D) Information of Everything (IoE)
355) Explain the business benefits associated with successful software development.
356) Describe the seven phases of the systems development life cycle.
357) Summarize the different software development methodologies.
358) Explain project management and the role the triple constraints play when managing a project.
359) Describe the project stakeholder's and executive sponsor's roles in choosing strategic projects.
360) Describe the two primary diagrams most frequently used in project planning.
361) Identify the three primary areas a project manager must focus on managing to ensure success.
362) Explain the three different types of outsourcing along with their benefits and challenges.
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Connected Book
M Information Systems 5th Edition | Test Bank with Answer Key by Paige Baltzan
By Paige Baltzan