Exam Prep Mader Lymphatic and Immune Systems Chapter 13

Inquiry Into Life, 16e, Mader

Chapter 13 Lymphatic and Immune Systems

1) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the lymphatic system?

A) The lymphatic system protects the body from disease.

B) The lymphatic system returns excess tissue fluid to the bloodstream.

C) The fluid inside lymphatic vessels is called lymph.

D) The lymphatic system absorbs fats at the villi and transports them to the bloodstream.

E) All of the answer choices correctly describe the lymphatic system.

2) The larger lymphatic vessels are most similar in structure to

A) arteries.

B) veins.

C) capillaries.

D) intestinal villi.

E) nephron.

3) Edema results from

A) accumulation of tissue fluid.

B) an abnormally high amount of plasma proteins.

C) the kidney excreting too little protein.

D) drinking too little water.

E) drinking more water than normal.

4) Which of the following would reduce the swelling associated with edema?

A) increased amounts of tissue fluid

B) tissue fluid accumulating in the tissues

C) increased blood pressure

D) increased capillary osmotic pressure

E) constricted veins during pregnancy

5) How is a lymph capillary like a blood capillary?

A) Both contain blood.

B) Both contain valves.

C) Both have thin walls.

D) Both are connected to the vena cava.

E) Both systems run parallel through all body tissues.

6) Lymph is

A) excreted by the kidneys.

B) returned to the circulatory system via arteries.

C) returned to the circulatory system via the subclavian veins.

D) absorbed by tissues.

E) excreted as sweat.

7) Lymph contains the same proteins as found in the blood.

8) The thoracic duct will drain the abdomen.

9) Elephantiasis is a tropical disease where small nematode larvae block the lymphatic ducts. As a result, the legs become large like those of an elephant and the scrotum and arms may also swell. This problem would be a severe form of

A) hemorrhoids.

B) phlebitis.

C) anemia.

D) angina.

E) edema.

10) Which of the following organs has a function independent of the others?

A) bone marrow

B) thymus

C) spleen

D) lymph nodes

E) kidneys

11) Earlier in the history of Western medicine, surgeons did not know the immune function of the thymus gland and it was sometimes removed in children. What symptoms would you predict these patients might display after having their thymus gland removed?

A) increased inflammatory and allergic responses to foreign material including viruses

B) reduced ability to recognize foreign material and distinguish it from body proteins

C) serious problems after receiving blood transfusions of any type of blood

D) complete rejection of all normal body tissues

E) failure to produce any white blood cells

12) Which lymphoid organ has stem cells that are capable of dividing and producing blood cells?

A) thymus

B) lymph nodes

C) spleen

D) bone marrow

13) A person without a spleen

A) cannot survive.

B) cannot synthesize red blood cells.

C) cannot synthesize white blood cells.

D) may need antibiotic therapy.

E) may need blood transfusions to prevent anemia.

14) Disease-causing agents like viruses or bacteria are considered a(n)

A) antibody.

B) vaccine.

C) thrombin.

D) allergen.

E) pathogen.

15) Which of the following lymphoid organs is largest during a person's childhood but shrinks in adulthood?

A) tonsils

B) lymph nodes

C) spleen

D) bone marrow

E) thymus

16) During surgery for breast cancer, surgeons will often remove lymph nodes in the armpit. What is the most likely reason for this?

A) If any cancer cells have entered the lymph, they will travel to the closest lymph nodes, which are in the armpit.

B) Lymph nodes in the armpit are responsible for breast cancer.

C) Lymph nodes that are close to the surgical incision would prevent healing following the surgery.

D) Lymph nodes in the armpit become useless because of the surgery and can be removed without problem.

E) Lymph nodes do not help a person and are better removed before they become infected.

17) An antihistamine counters the effects of histamine. Which of the following is an effect of histamine?

A) Increased blood flow brings more white blood cells to the site of injury or invasion.

B) Capillary dilation increases blood flow and causes surface redness.

C) Increased blood flow and permeability increase the fluids in the tissues, causing them to swell.

D) Increased blood flow brings more warmth to the area, causing a local "fever" that helps white blood cells and suppresses microbes.

E) All of the answer choices are effects of histamine.

18) Neutrophils change into macrophages that act as scavengers.

19) Innate immunity involves B and T cells.

20) What type of cells are usually activated in a lymph node or the spleen when they become bound to specific antigens?

A) phagocytes

B) neutrophils

C) mast cells

D) macrophages

E) B cells

21) In order to decrease the effects of inflammation, you would take what type of medication?

A) antihistamine

B) vaccine

C) interferon

D) immunoglobulin

E) thromboplastin activator

22) The complement system contains

A) different types of white blood cells.

B) certain plasma proteins.

C) only B and T cells.

D) is a combination of B cells, T cells, and macrophages.

E) only B cells that secrete antibodies.

23) Inflammation or the inflammatory response is a harmful process that should be avoided.

24) Complement is required for the formation of antigen-antibody complexes.

25) Which proteins form a membrane attack complex that produces holes in the surface of bacteria and some viruses?

A) interferon

B) cytokines

C) histamine

D) complement

E) thrombin

26) Which of the following is considered to be an adaptive defense mechanism against infection?

A) stomach acids

B) skin

C) mucus in respiratory tract

D) normal bacteria in intestine

E) antibodies in mother's milk

27) Which of the following is an example of adaptive immunity?

A) natural killer cells

B) complement

C) inflammation

D) histamine

E) plasma cells

28) Which of the following is specifically responsible for antibody-mediated immunity?

A) T cell

B) B cell

C) platelets

D) RBC

E) complement

29) When comparing T cells and B cells, which of the following pertains only to T cells?

A) lymphocyte

B) passes through the thymus

C) functions in immunity

D) specific immunity

E) originates in bone marrow

30) Which type of cell will produce antibodies that are released into the bloodstream?

A) B cell

B) T cell

C) plasma cell

D) memory cell

E) mast cell

31) Which of the following is true about the clonal selection theory?

A) An antigen selects certain B cells to produce a clone of plasma cells.

B) An antibody stimulates the multiplication of B cell antigens against it.

C) T cells select those B cells that should produce antibodies, regardless of antigens.

D) T cells suppress all the B cells except the ones that should multiply and divide.

E) One B cell will give rise to plasma cells that produce antibodies against several antigens.

32) Adaptive immunity depends upon the activity of what type of cells?

A) natural killer cells and B cells

B) natural killer cells and T cells

C) neutrophils and B cells

D) neutrophils and T cells

E) B cells and T cells

33) Which of the following statements accurately describe B cells? Check all that apply.

A) B cells require presentation of antigens by macrophages before they are able to recognize the antigen.

B) B cells develop and mature in the thymus.

C) B cells carry receptor molecules on their cell surfaces.

D) B cells, when stimulated and changed into plasma cells, produce antibodies.

E) B cells, when stimulated, divide into memory cells.

34) If we inject three different antigens into a human at the same time

A) one plasma cell will produce three different antibodies.

B) plasma cells will produce three times the amount of one antibody.

C) at least three different plasma cells will be involved in antibody production since each plasma cell only produces one specific antibody.

D) three different immunoglobulins will assist one plasma cell in responding to the antigen.

E) three complement plasma proteins will assist one plasma cell in responding to the antigen.

35) The clonal selection theory states that

A) all B cells are exact clones of one another.

B) all T cells are exact clones of one another.

C) when a B or T cell is activated by binding to/recognizing an antigen, then that cell will be cloned into cells that recognize the same antigen.

D) when a B or T cell is stimulated by encountering the correct antibody, it divides to form a clone of cells that will respond to the same antibody.

E) T cells are stimulated by B cells to divide and form plasma cells, which secrete antibodies.

36) A cell that produces a rapid antibody response against a foreign protein when it is encountered years after the first encounter is a(n)

A) memory B cell.

B) memory T cell.

C) cytotoxic T cell.

D) plasma cell.

E) antigen-presenting cell.

37) An antibody molecule

A) will either consist of a constant region or a variable region.

B) forms an X-shaped protein molecule.

C) contains an antigen-binding site on each arm.

D) contains four light chains and two heavy chains.

E) contains constant regions that bind to the antigen.

38) Most antibodies found in the blood belong to what class of immunoglobulins?

A) IgA

B) IgD

C) IgE

D) IgG

E) IgM

39) Which portion of the antibody binds to the antigen?

A) variable region

B) constant region

C) heavy chain

D) light chain

40) T cells

A) are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.

B) are stimulated by B cells.

C) produce antibodies.

D) mature in the bone marrow.

E) do not form memory cells.

41) Which T cell boosts the immune response by activating other types of cells?

A) helper T cell

B) suppressor T cell

C) cytotoxic T cell

D) memory T cell

E) IgT cell

42) The primary target of the HIV virus is

A) helper T cells.

B) suppressor T cells.

C) cytotoxic T cells.

D) memory T cells.

E) B cells.

43) Which type of lymphocyte is sometimes called a "killer cell" because it brings about destruction of cells bearing a specific non-cell protein?

A) helper T cell

B) suppressor T cell

C) cytotoxic T cell

D) memory T cell

E) macrophage

44) An antibody will react against any virus or bacterial cell.

45) A vaccine contains

A) penicillin.

B) horse serum.

C) antigens that are no longer virulent.

D) antibodies made by plasma cells.

E) antibiotics against a particular bacterial strain.

46) Babies generally appear to be immune to diseases for approximately the first six months of life. What could be responsible for this immunity?

A) active immunity due to the mother

B) passive immunity from the mother

C) babies not being exposed to diseases until around six months

D) babies born with excellent active immunity that wanes the older the child gets

E) active immunity due to being exposed to numerous antigens during the birthing process

47) Cowpox is very similar to smallpox, which is more dangerous for humans. Edward Jenner promoted the use of cowpox as a vaccination to provide patients immunity from future smallpox epidemics. Patients given cowpox developed

A) passive immunity.

B) active immunity.

C) an inflammatory response that increased the IgG production.

D) high levels of complement.

E) high levels of interferon, although Jenner did not realize these diseases were viral.

48) When a person is bitten by a venomous snake, receiving blood plasma from another person who recently survived the same type of snake bite would provide passive immunity.

49) If you are bitten by a highly venomous snake, you would need to be given antivenom right away. Antivenom is made from injecting horses with small-to-larger dosages of snake venom, and then harvesting the antibodies from the horse plasma. Antivenom is an example of

A) passive immunity.

B) active immunity.

C) developing an inflammatory response to increase the IgG production.

D) high levels of complement.

E) high levels of interferon.

50) Which of the following is true regarding monoclonal antibodies?

A) The antibodies produced are all of the same type.

B) They are produced from plasma cells derived from the same B cells.

C) They can be formed in vitro by fusing spleen cells with malignant plasma cells.

D) They are used in the diagnosis of various diseases.

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

51) Cytokines may be used in the treatment of cancer and AIDS because they stimulate white blood cell formation and/or function.

52) In the later 1800s, the brilliant French chemist Louis Pasteur worked with chicken cholera, passing the disease agent from sick to healthy chickens. He suspended his research and went on vacation for several weeks. When he returned, the old cholera culture he gave to healthy chickens failed to kill them. He assumed his culture was bad and injected these same chickens with a fresh culture of chicken cholera. These chickens remained healthy while new chickens injected with the fresh culture of chicken cholera rapidly became sick and died. From our current knowledge of immunity, how would these observations be explained?

A) Pasteur had accidentally discovered a strain of chickens that had natural immunity.

B) His first disease culture had weakened over time and stimulated the development of active immunity.

C) His first disease culture had weakened over time and the chickens developed a form of passive immunity.

D) The chickens apparently had better B cells for development of more effective antibodies.

E) The first set of chickens served as a control group to the second set that showed the development of antibodies.

53) Which antibody class is most responsible for the allergic reaction?

A) IgA

B) IgD

C) IgE

D) IgG

E) IgM

54) Anaphylactic shock may occur due to

A) exposure to the HIV virus.

B) a bee sting.

C) organ donation.

D) use of interferon.

E) antihistamines.

55) In order to prevent an allergic reaction, injections of the allergen are sometimes given.

56) A response that does not occur immediately cannot be considered an allergic response, even if it appears like one.

57) A person who is blood type AB has

A) only antigen A on the surface of RBCs.

B) only antigen B on the surface of RBCs.

C) antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs.

D) antibodies A and B on the surface of RBCs.

E) only antibody A on the surface of RBCs.

58) A person who is B positive will have

A) A antigens, anti-B antibody, Rh antigen.

B) B antibodies, anti-A antibody, Rh antigen.

C) B antigens, anti-A antibody, no Rh antigen.

D) B antigens, anti-A antibody, Rh antigen.

E) B antigens, anti-B antibody, Rh antigen.

59) What blood type is considered the universal donor?

A) O

B) A

C) B

D) AB

E) All blood types are considered universal donors.

60) Which of the following statements is true about hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when the father is Rh- and the mother is Rh+.

B) Hemolytic disease of the newborn would be a problem any time the mother is Rh-, regardless of the father's blood type.

C) Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when a Rh- mother and a Rh+ father produce an Rh+ child.

D) If a mother has a higher threshold for rejecting foreign tissues there is a higher chance of the baby having hemolytic newborn disease.

E) The problem is complicated because the disease is dependent on both Rh factor and ABO blood groups.

61) Which of the following may reduce tissue rejection following organ transplantation? Check all that apply.

A) MHC incompatibility between donor and recipient

B) using tissues from the patient's own body

C) using tissues from a donor

D) weakening the patient's immune response to foreign material

E) administering immunosuppressive drugs

62) Xenotransplantation is the use of animal organs instead of human organs in transplant patients. Scientists are considering using dogs as organ donors because they have long been domesticated by humans.

63) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

A) multiple sclerosis

B) systemic lupus

C) rheumatoid arthritis

D) type I diabetes

E) All of the answer choices are examples of autoimmune diseases.

64) An autoimmune disease means that the body attacks itself because it does not recognize itself.

65) Would untreated SCID be considered a lethal disease?

A) Yes

B) No

66) Which of the following may result in a severe immune reaction, but would not cause an immunodeficiency?

A) inherited lack of B cells

B) blood transfusion

C) surgical removal of the thymus

D) SCID

E) AIDS

67) In the movie Bubble Boy, Jimmy lives inside a plastic bubble where he is protected from all outside agents. Which type of disease would require a child to live inside a plastic bubble?

A) an autoimmune disease

B) systemic lupus erythematosus

C) multiple sclerosis

D) AIDS

E) SCID

68) Which of the following is an example of a mechanical barrier to infection?

A) mucous membrane

B) oil gland secretions

C) pH of the stomach

D) bacteria that live in the intestine

E) inflammatory response

69) Describe the three major functions of the lymphatic system.

70) Which type of T cell has a TCR that can recognize an antigen fragment presented by antigen-presenting cells with MHC class II proteins?

A) helper T cells

B) cytotoxic T cells

C) major histocompatibility complex

D) B cells

E) monocytes

71) Which blood cells are usually the first to arrive at the site of an infection?

A) neutrophils

B) natural killer cells

C) red blood cells

D) interferons

E) monocytes

72) What are the two most common applications of cytokine therapies?

A) stimulation of blood cells and treatment of cancer

B) stimulation of blood cells and treatment of HIV

C) treatment of cancer and HIV

D) production of antibodies

E) providing immunization against various diseases

73) What is the major drawback to cytokine therapies?

A) Side effects can be life-threatening.

B) The therapies are still untested.

C) The treatments are very expensive.

D) The therapies only work for women.

E) The therapies only work for men.

74) During organ transplant, which feature is the most important to recognize?

A) the difference between the MHC proteins of the donor and the recipient

B) the difference between the blood types of the donor and the recipient

C) the similarities between the blood types of the donor and the recipient

D) the type of organ being transplanted

E) the age of the recipient of the transplanted organ

75) What is the originator cell for monoclonal antibodies?

A) B cells

B) T cells

C) red blood cells

D) white blood cells

E) macrophages

76) Which of the following is an example of an acquired immunodeficiency?

A) AIDS

B) SCID

C) flu

D) None of the answer choices is an example of an acquired immunodeficiency.

E) All of the answer choices are examples of an acquired immunodeficiency.

77) List the function of the following antibodies: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE.

78) Which of the following health problems are likely to occur if a person is unable to form the IgE antibodies?

A) The person would have problems defending themselves against parasitic worm infections as well as lacking an immediate allergic response.

B) The person would be unable to activate the complement.

C) Pathogens would be able to attach to their epithelial cells much easier.

D) They would be unable to have their cells clump.

E) Their B cells would be unable to respond to antigens.

79) List the steps involved with the production of monoclonal antibodies.