Employee Separation – Ch10 | Complete Test Bank – 10e - Human Resource Management 10e | Test Bank with Answer Key by Raymond Noe by Raymond A. Noe. DOCX document preview.

Employee Separation – Ch10 | Complete Test Bank – 10e

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Chapter 10

<Employee Separation and Retention>

 


True / False Questions
 

1.

Though voluntary turnover is good for the overall economy, it is often very costly for individual employers. 
 
True    False

 

2.

Wrongful discharge suits can be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person discharged is a member of a protected group. 
 
True    False

 

3.

Procedural justice is the concept of justice referring to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented. 
 
True    False

 

4.

Generally, the first stage in an alternative dispute resolution system is peer review. 
 
True    False

 

5.

Whereas employee wellness programs deal with employees who have developed problems at work because of health-related issues, employee assistance programs (EAPs) take a proactive and preemptive focus on trying to prevent health-related problems in the first place. 
 
True    False

 

6.

Outplacement counseling tries to help dismissed employees manage the transition from one job to another. 
 
True    False

 

7.

The theory of progression of withdrawal states that dissatisfied individuals spontaneously enact a set of behaviors all at once to avoid their work situation. 
 
True    False

 

8.

There is a general consensus among most theories of employee satisfaction that withdrawal behaviors are unrelated to one another. 
 
True    False

 

9.

Whistle-blowers avoid taking issues to external constituencies and try to resolve them internally. 
 
True    False

 

10.

When properly channeled by a secure and supportive leader, "voicing opportunities" for lower-level employees can prevent turnover among highly engaged employees. 
 
True    False

 

11.

If job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may opt for an internal transfer if the dissatisfaction is job-specific. 
 
True    False

 

12.

Organizational commitment is the degree to which employees identify themselves with their jobs. 
 
True    False

 

13.

The key driving force behind all the different forms of job withdrawal is job satisfaction. 
 
True    False

 

14.

A frame of reference is a standard point that serves as a comparison for other points and thus provides meaning. 
 
True    False

 

15.

An organization’s employees’ perception of and reaction to working conditions have implications for competitive advantage. 
 
True    False

 

16.

Negative affectivity is a dispositional dimension that reflects pervasive individual similarities in dissatisfaction with any and all aspects of life. 
 
True    False

 

17.

The evidence on the linkage between negative affectivity and job satisfaction suggests the importance of personnel selection as a way of raising overall levels of employee satisfaction. 
 
True    False

 

18.

Due to negative affectivity, if job satisfaction remains relatively stable across time and jobs, transient changes in job satisfaction will be difficult to sustain in the individuals. 
 
True    False

 

19.

With a few exceptions, there is a strong positive relationship between task complexity and job satisfaction. 
 
True    False

 

20.

One of the major interventions aimed at reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is job enrichment. 
 
True    False

 

21.

Providing increased opportunities for workers to have input into important organizational decisions that involve their work increases role conflict and ambiguity. 
 
True    False

 

22.

The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's job satisfaction are her subordinates and co-workers. 
 
True    False

 

23.

Group cohesiveness and support for individual members decrease through exposure and joint efforts found in team-building activities. 
 
True    False

 

24.

A systematic survey program allows a company to check for differences between units and hence benchmark "best practices" that might be generalized across units. 
 
True    False

 

25.

Exit interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering systematic concerns that are driving retention problems. 
 
True    False

 

 


Multiple Choice Questions
 

26.

Which of the following is true of voluntary turnover? 
 

A. 

It is initiated by the employee.

B. 

It involves employees an organization would like to discharge.

C. 

It could give rise to more legal consequences than involuntary turnover.

D. 

It usually is a result of a violation of a company rule or misconduct.

E. 

It is the last stage in progressive discipline.

 

27.

Which of the following is true of involuntary turnover? 
 

A. 

It is initiated by the employee.

B. 

It involves people an organization would like to retain.

C. 

It may involve legal aspects that can have repercussions for the organization.

D. 

It usually involves high performers.

E. 

It includes employees who quit a job at will to pursue a change in career.

 

28.

The employment-at-will doctrine 
 

A. 

has become more influential in recent years.

B. 

has more legal consequences in voluntary turnover than in involuntary turnover.

C. 

implies that a person may leave an organization at will despite an existing contract.

D. 

allows employers to discharge people at will without sufficient reasons for the discharge.

E. 

states that in the absence of a specific contract, either party could sever the employment.

 

29.

With respect to employee termination, a(n) _____ suit typically attempts to establish that the termination either violated an implied covenant or violated public policy. 
 

A. 

discrimination

B. 

forgery

C. 

encroachment

D. 

unethical practice

E. 

wrongful discharge

 

30.

Which of the following acts would be considered grounds for a wrongful discharge suit involving a violation of public policy? 
 

A. 

Allen is terminated because he does something illegal.

B. 

Rashad is terminated because he does something unethical.

C. 

Thuy is refused employment because she has a criminal record.

D. 

Rosa is terminated because she refuses to do something unsafe.

E. 

Leon is refused employment on account of lack of credentials.

 

31.

A wrongful discharge suit can be filed as a _____ when the person discharged is a member of a protected group. 
 

A. 

violation of an implied contract

B. 

covenant

C. 

violation of a public policy

D. 

civil rights infringement

E. 

violation of employment-at-will

 

32.

Julie's boss, Sanjay, believes that women are not capable of making top-level decisions. Julie's decisions are often sidelined by those of Sanjay’s. When Julie confronts Sanjay, he terminates her employment. Which of the following is the most appropriate suit that will help Julie? 
 

A. 

A retaliation lawsuit

B. 

A forgery lawsuit

C. 

A reverse discrimination suit

D. 

A public policy violation lawsuit

E. 

A civil infringement lawsuit

 

33.

Which of the following groups is most likely to file a suit based on reverse discrimination claims? 
 

A. 

Racial minorities

B. 

Homosexuals

C. 

Older workers

D. 

Women

E. 

Caucasians

 

34.

Javier, a Hispanic employee, is a constantly low performer. Mark, his boss, is frustrated and is unable to discharge him due to HR policies. As a consequence, Mark gives Javier low-level work assignments and subjects him to other forms of undesirable treatment. If Javier leaves the organization, these actions can expose Mark to a possible ____. 
 

A. 

retaliation lawsuit

B. 

forgery lawsuit

C. 

reverse discrimination suit

D. 

public policy violation lawsuit

E. 

civil infringement lawsuit

 

35.

Organizations that introduce _____ systems where low performers are systematically identified and, where necessary, eliminated from payrolls often experience quick improvement gains. 
 

A. 

forced distributions rating

B. 

voluntary distribution rating

C. 

self-rating

D. 

peer-rating

E. 

micromanagement

 

36.

_____ is the judgment that people make with respect to the results received relative to the results received by other people with whom they identify (referent others). 
 

A. 

Structural fairness

B. 

Outcome fairness

C. 

Procedural fairness

D. 

Process fairness

E. 

Task fairness

 

37.

A company decides to let go of some employees due to a financial crisis. Jane loses her job, while her colleagues with similar performance ratings and productivity retain their jobs. Jane's judgment of her loss when compared to her colleagues' is a perception of _____. 
 

A. 

structural unfairness

B. 

process unfairness

C. 

procedural unfairness

D. 

outcome unfairness

E. 

task unfairness

 

38.

_____ focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the outcomes received. 
 

A. 

Outcome justice

B. 

Interactional justice

C. 

Procedural justice

D. 

Result justice

E. 

Input justice

 

39.

_____ justice is the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented. 
 

A. 

Outcome

B. 

Interactional

C. 

Procedural

D. 

Result

E. 

Functional

 

40.

_____ deals with how a decision was made. 
 

A. 

Outcome justice

B. 

Interactional justice

C. 

Procedural justice

D. 

Result justice

E. 

Input justice

 

41.

Consistency, bias suppression, information accuracy, correctability, representativeness, and ethicality are the six determinants of _____. 
 

A. 

perceptual justice

B. 

interactional justice

C. 

procedural justice

D. 

outcome justice

E. 

income justice

 

42.

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is applied by a person who has no vested interest in the outcome? 
 

A. 

Bias suppression

B. 

Correctability

C. 

Representativeness

D. 

Ethicality

E. 

Consistency

 

43.

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that procedures are applied by someone who has no prior prejudices regarding the individual involved in the discussion? 
 

A. 

Representativeness

B. 

Correctability

C. 

Bias suppression

D. 

Accuracy

E. 

Consistency

 

44.

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure has built-in safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes or bad decisions? 
 

A. 

Bias suppression

B. 

Correctability

C. 

Representativeness

D. 

Ethicality

E. 

Consistency

 

45.

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is informed by the concerns of all groups or stakeholders (co-workers, customers, owners) affected by the decision? 
 

A. 

Bias suppression

B. 

Correctability

C. 

Representativeness

D. 

Ethicality

E. 

Consistency

 

46.

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is consistent with prevailing moral standards in terms of invasion of privacy or deception? 
 

A. 

Bias suppression

B. 

Correctability

C. 

Representativeness

D. 

Ethicality

E. 

Consistency

 

47.

Explanation, consideration, social sensitivity, and empathy are key determinants of _____. 
 

A. 

perceptual justice

B. 

interactional justice

C. 

procedural justice

D. 

outcome justice

E. 

task justice

 

48.

Which of the following determinants of interactional justice requires emphasis on the different aspects of procedural fairness that justify the decision? 
 

A. 

Social sensitivity

B. 

Explanation

C. 

Consideration

D. 

Empathy

E. 

Consistency

 

49.

Alternative dispute resolution is a method of resolving disputes that 
 

A. 

involves extensive legislation.

B. 

does not rely on the legal system.

C. 

excludes outside parties.

D. 

does not involve binding arbitration.

E. 

involves only the appealing party.

 

50.

Which of the following is true of alternative dispute resolution (ADR)? 
 

A. 

ADR relies on the legal system to resolve matters that cannot be handled internally.

B. 

Resolution through an ADR system is expensive, as it involves high costs in terms of legal fees.

C. 

ADR follows a distinct set of actions, but the goal is to resolve disputes in as few steps as possible.

D. 

ADR is more effective than employee assistance programs in dealing with issues related to drug or alcohol abuse.

E. 

ADR is designed to resolve issues internally and does not engage outsiders to enter the discussion.

 

51.

Which of the following should be the first step to take as a progressive discipline measure? 
 

A. 

Temporary suspension

B. 

Unofficial verbal warning

C. 

Last chance notification

D. 

Threat of suspension

E. 

Termination

 

52.

In a typical progressive discipline program, which of the following should be the step taken before terminating an employee? 
 

A. 

Unofficial verbal warning

B. 

Official written warning

C. 

Last chance notification

D. 

Threat of suspension

E. 

Right to go to arbitration

 

53.

Which of the following steps in progressive discipline involves the right to go to arbitration? 
 

A. 

Unofficial verbal warning

B. 

Official written warning

C. 

Temporary suspension

D. 

Threat of suspension

E. 

Termination

 

54.

Which of the following is the first stage in an alternative dispute resolution? 
 

A. 

Arbitration

B. 

Open-door policy

C. 

Peer review

D. 

Mediation

E. 

Legal support

 

55.

In an alternative dispute resolution method, the stage during which the two people involved in the conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement without any third parties involved is known as _____. 
 

A. 

peer review

B. 

arbitration

C. 

open-door policy

D. 

mediation

E. 

legal support

 

56.

During the _____ stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of representatives from the organization that are at the same level as those people in the dispute hears the case and attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement. 
 

A. 

peer review

B. 

arbitration

C. 

open-door policy

D. 

mediation

E. 

legal support

 

57.

Which of the following happens in the mediation stage of an alternative dispute resolution? 
 

A. 

The two people in conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement together.

B. 

A panel composed of representatives from the same level hears the case.

C. 

A neutral third party hears the case via a nonbinding process.

D. 

A professional arbitrator hears the case and resolves it unilaterally.

E. 

The judiciary system steps in to resolve the dispute based on the suit filed.

 

58.

Organizational programs that attempt to ameliorate problems encountered by workers who are drug dependent, alcoholic, or psychologically troubled are referred to as _____ programs. 
 

A. 

employee assistance

B. 

alternative dispute resolution

C. 

health benefits

D. 

health insurance

E. 

aided workers'

 

59.

What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition from one job to another? 
 

A. 

Outplacement

B. 

Transition

C. 

Relocation

D. 

Displacement

E. 

Transfer

 

60.

Which of the following statements is accurate about voluntary turnover? 
 

A. 

It is initiated by the employer.

B. 

It involves employees an organization would like to discharge.

C. 

It typically involves legal aspects that have repercussions for the organization.

D. 

It gives the employee no choice in deciding his or her stay in the organization.

E. 

It can lead to the loss of highly valued employees to competitors.

 

61.

Which of the following explains the high rate of voluntary turnover among the millennial generation of employees? 
 

A. 

They put a premium on earning high salaries.

B. 

They are overburdened by new technology.

C. 

They need connection to the company mission.

D. 

They dislike working in team environments.

E. 

They resist pressure to enhance their skills.

 

62.

Which of the following best describes job withdrawal? 
 

A. 

It refers to employers discharging employees from jobs that are to be outsourced.

B. 

It is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation.

C. 

It refers to retracting a job offer after initial confirmation.

D. 

It refers to voluntary turnover initiated by employees an organization would like to retain.

E. 

It involves a set of actions showcased by the company to discourage its employees from working.

 

63.

Which of the following suggests that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of behaviors in succession to avoid their work situation? 
 

A. 

Efficiency wage theory

B. 

Equity theory

C. 

Progression of withdrawal theory

D. 

Two-factor theory

E. 

Motivation theory

 

64.

Which of the following is true of whistle-blowers? 
 

A. 

They are satisfied employees.

B. 

They are capable of bringing about internal change.

C. 

They avoid taking their issue to external constituencies.

D. 

They avoid making the grievance public.

E. 

They resort to the government to address the grievance.

 

65.

An employee who engages in absenteeism is displaying job dissatisfaction through _____. 
 

A. 

behavioral change

B. 

psychological withdrawal

C. 

physical withdrawal

D. 

whistle-blowing

E. 

arbitration

 

66.

Lately, Laura has been performing low in her job. Although she is physically present at her workplace, her mind is constantly engaged with thoughts of a better job. Which of the following behaviors does Laura express? 
 

A. 

Physical withdrawal

B. 

Psychological withdrawal

C. 

Internal change

D. 

Whistle-blowing

E. 

Behavioral change

 

67.

_____ is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs. 
 

A. 

Job enlargement

B. 

Job enrichment

C. 

Job involvement

D. 

Job recognition

E. 

Job satisfaction

 

68.

The degree to which an employee identifies with an organization and is willing to put forth effort on its behalf is called _____. 
 

A. 

job satisfaction

B. 

organizational enlargement

C. 

organizational commitment

D. 

job engagement

E. 

job involvement

 

69.

Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are 
 

A. 

what drive employees who create organizational changes.

B. 

forms of psychological disengagement.

C. 

examples of physical job withdrawal.

D. 

examples of physiological job withdrawal.

E. 

forms of behavioral changes aimed at changing policies.

 

70.

_____ can be identified as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that one's job fulfills or allows the fulfillment of one's important job values. 
 

A. 

Job enrichment

B. 

Job enlargement

C. 

Job commitment

D. 

Job involvement

E. 

Job satisfaction

 

71.

Job satisfaction is a function of _____, which can be defined as what a person consciously or unconsciously desires to obtain. 
 

A. 

perception

B. 

appreciation

C. 

contentment

D. 

appraisal

E. 

values

 

72.

Negative affectivity is primarily influenced by 
 

A. 

availability of social support.

B. 

disposition of individuals.

C. 

organizational roles.

D. 

work environment.

E. 

pay and benefits.

 

73.

Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is _____. 
 

A. 

job transfer

B. 

job rotation

C. 

job evaluation

D. 

job enlargement

E. 

job enrichment

 

74.

Mathew, a production manager, conducts an employee satisfaction survey. The survey reveals high levels of dissatisfaction among the employees in the packing unit who complain about repetitive tasks. In response to this, he adopts an intervention that explicitly focuses on reducing job dissatisfaction due to impoverished or boring tasks. This intervention is an example of _____. 
 

A. 

job enrichment

B. 

team building

C. 

prosocial motivation

D. 

job rotation

E. 

work complication

 

75.

_____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to another over time. 
 

A. 

Job involvement

B. 

Job enrichment

C. 

Job engagement

D. 

Job enlargement

E. 

Job rotation

 

76.

The degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it helps other people is called _____. 
 

A. 

job enrichment

B. 

team building

C. 

prosocial motivation

D. 

job rotation

E. 

work involvement

 

77.

Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to reduce dissatisfaction through _____. 
 

A. 

behavior modification

B. 

a supportive environment

C. 

progressive discipline measures

D. 

third-party negotiations

E. 

alternative dispute resolution

 

78.

Which of the following is the most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction? 
 

A. 

An employee's salary and the benefits that come along with the work he or she does

B. 

The degree to which work is meaningfully related to core values of the worker

C. 

The extrinsic rewards associated with the work and the organization

D. 

A positive work environment and social support

E. 

The non-monetary benefits received by the employee in terms of self-esteem and goal satisfaction

 

79.

Which of the following people would be most likely to work longer due to prosocial motivation? 
 

A. 

Viola, a reporter

B. 

Devon, an accountant

C. 

Connie, a salesperson

D. 

Hector, a nurse

E. 

Roy, a miner

 

80.

The two primary sets of people in an organization who affect an individual's job satisfaction are 
 

A. 

subordinates and supervisors.

B. 

supervisors and customers.

C. 

co-workers and subordinates.

D. 

supervisors and co-workers.

E. 

subordinates and customers.

 

81.

With regard to supervision, employee satisfaction is likely to be highest when 
 

A. 

managers and employees have different values and personalities.

B. 

employees are micromanaged.

C. 

managers focus more on supervising than their own work.

D. 

employees take up supervision as an informal responsibility.

E. 

employees get the support needed to achieve their goal.

 

82.

_____ is the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people who are sympathetic and caring. 
 

A. 

Organization culture

B. 

Homogeneous environment

C. 

Organizational support

D. 

Social support

E. 

Organizational network

 

83.

Which of the following statements offers the strongest predictor of employee turnover? 
 

A. 

“The company’s sales goals for next year seem totally out of reach.”

B. 

“Most of my best friends are co-workers from the office.”

C. 

“This company should offer more skills development opportunities.”

D. 

“The department head is good at her job but not very personable.”

E. 

“I think some of my team members just skate by on my efforts.”

 

84.

Most attempts to measure job satisfaction rely on _____. 
 

A. 

observations of employees

B. 

reports by co-workers

C. 

workers' self-reports

D. 

behavioral measures

E. 

workers' performance reports

 

85.

The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on _____. 
 

A. 

the work itself

B. 

co-workers

C. 

promotions

D. 

supervision

E. 

benefits

 

86.

Which of the following facets is measured by both the Job Descriptive Index (JDI) and the Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ)? 
 

A. 

Job satisfaction

B. 

Supervision

C. 

Tasks involved in a job

D. 

Job description

E. 

Pay

 

87.

Why did some low-paying companies raise hourly wages in the mid-2010s?  
 

A. 

To address the problem of growing income inequality in the country

B. 

To avoid having to hire new employees in a tight labor market

C. 

To compensate for decreased health care benefit packages

D. 

To circumvent legislative efforts to increase the minimum wage

E. 

To draw educated candidates with potential to become managers

 

88.

Why would a company offer generous tuition reimbursement benefits to its employees? 
 

A. 

Because it wants to avoid offering in-house training programs

B. 

Because educated employees predict higher long-term growth

C. 

Because it wants to encourage prosocial behavior

D. 

Because it values intelligent, knowledgeable employees

E. 

Because good benefits produce lower turnover than do high salaries

 

89.

Employee survey research allows a company to monitor trends over time and thus prevent problems, before they happen, in the area of _____. 
 

A. 

dissatisfaction among low performers

B. 

voluntary turnover

C. 

involuntary turnover

D. 

low productivity

E. 

low quality

 

90.

_____ interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering systematic concerns that are driving retention problems. 
 

A. 

Technical

B. 

Retaining

C. 

Exit

D. 

Mock

E. 

Screening

 

91.

Which of the following is true of employees terminating employment based on voluntary turnover? 
 

A. 

They include those who work too many hours as well as those who do not get enough work hours.

B. 

They include only those working on an hourly-wage basis and not the salaried ones.

C. 

Those who work on an hourly basis usually tend to leave due to working too many hours.

D. 

Those employees who are salaried usually tend to leave due to lack of enough work hours.

E. 

They exclude those who do not get enough work.

 

 


Essay Questions
 

92.

Define the employment-at-will doctrine and a wrongful discharge suit. 
 


 


 


 

 

93.

Discuss the three major principles of justice. 
 


 


 


 

 

94.

What are the four stages through which an alternative dispute resolution proceeds? 
 


 


 


 

 

95.

Explain job withdrawal and its three levels of progression. 
 


 


 


 

 

96.

Identify the differences and similarities between job involvement and organizational commitment. 
 


 


 


 

 

97.

Define job satisfaction and describe the three aspects of job satisfaction. 
 


 


 


 

 

98.

Discuss the concept of negative affectivity and its relation to job satisfaction. 
 


 


 


 

 

99.

Briefly describe the differences and similarities between job enrichment and job rotation. 
 


 


 


 

 

100.

Discuss job satisfaction with regard to supervisors and co-workers. Explain the relationship between social support and job satisfaction. 
 


 


 


 

 

101.

An ongoing program of employee survey research should be a prominent part of any human resource strategy. Discuss. 
 


 


 


 

 


Document Information

Document Type:
DOCX
Chapter Number:
10
Created Date:
Aug 21, 2025
Chapter Name:
Chapter 10 Employee Separation and Retention
Author:
Raymond A. Noe

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