Ch.29 Development, Pregnancy, and Heredity Test Bank 3e

Anatomy & Physiology, 3e (McKinley)

Chapter 29 Development, Pregnancy, and Heredity

1) The third through eighth weeks of development are known as the ________ period.

A) fetal

B) pre-embryonic

C) embryonic

D) cleavage

2) The maturation that occurs within the pre-embryonic and embryonic periods is known as ________.

3) The pre-embryonic period ends when

A) a morula is formed.

B) the zygote undergoes cleavage.

C) the blastocyst implants in the uterus.

D) the morula develops a trophoblast.

4) Fertilization typically occurs in the ________, and it restores the ________ number of chromosomes.

A) ampulla of the uterine tube; haploid

B) ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid

C) body of the uterus; polyploid

D) isthmus of the uterine tube; haploid

E) isthmus of the uterine tube; polyploid

5) Which type of gamete remains viable for a longer time after it enters the female reproductive tract?

A) Sperm

B) Egg

6) After ovulation, the oocyte

A) waits passively for a sperm to penetrate.

B) releases negative ions that create an electrical gradient that all sperm swim toward.

C) releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location.

D) propels itself toward seminal fluid by calcium-dependent kinesis.

7) Sperm undergo a process of conditioning known as ________ after they arrive in the female reproductive tract.

8) Capacitation lasts several ________ and involves removal of ________.

A) seconds; lipids from the surface of the egg

B) hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm

C) days; carbohydrates from the surface of the egg

D) weeks; glycolipids from the surface of the sperm

9) What is the correct order of structures through which the sperm penetrates during fertilization?

A) Corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida

B) Zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane

C) Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane

D) Zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata

10) Polyspermy results in the production of monozygotic twins.

11) Cleavage involves a series of ________ divisions and ________ in the overall size of the conceptus.

A) meiotic; an increase

B) meiotic; no change

C) meiotic; a decrease

D) mitotic; no change

E) mitotic; an increase

12) Cleavage occurs during

A) the fetal period.

B) the pre-embryonic period.

C) organogenesis.

D) the embryonic period.

E) fertilization.

13) During fertilization, the nuclei of the sperm and the ovum are referred to as ________, before they come together and fuse to form a single nucleus.

14) At the 16-cell stage, the conceptus is known as a(n)

A) trophoblast.

B) blastocyst.

C) embryoblast.

D) morula.

E) zygote.

15) The trophoblast is located at the

A) periphery of the blastocyst.

B) center of the blastocyst.

C) periphery of the morula.

D) center of the morula.

E) center of the embryoblast.

16) Cells within the embryoblast have the ability to differentiate into any type of cell within the body.

17) The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as

A) cleavage.

B) morulation.

C) implantation.

D) capacitation.

E) the acrosome reaction.

18) Implantation usually begins at about the end of the first ________ of development.

A) day

B) week

C) month

D) trimester

19) The outer layer of the trophoblast that burrows into the lining of the uterus is the

A) embryoblast.

B) syncytiotrophoblast.

C) cytotrophoblast.

D) morula.

E) zona pellucida.

20) The hormone that signals that fertilization and implantation have taken place is

A) pluripotent prolactin.

B) human chorionic gonadotropin.

C) gonadotropin releasing hormone.

D) progesterone.

E) pre-embryonic pellucida factor.

21) Presence of hCG in a woman's urine indicates that she is pregnant.

22) Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted from cells of the

A) morula.

B) embryoblast.

C) syncytiotrophoblast.

D) zygote.

23) Human chorionic gonadotropin stimulates the degeneration of the corpus luteum.

24) What thin membrane, continuous with the epiblast layer, secretes fluid to bathe the embryo?

A) Chorion

B) Amnion

C) Yolk sac

D) Corona radiata

25) Which structure develops directly into a bilaminar germinal disc?

A) Trophoblast

B) Embryoblast

C) Morula

D) Cytotrophoblast

26) Within the bilaminar germinal disc, the layer of columnar cells that is adjacent to the amniotic cavity is the ________ layer.

27) The hypoblast layer of the blastodisc is made of

A) columnar cells and forms during the morula stage.

B) columnar cells and forms during gastrulation.

C) cuboidal cells and forms during the fetal period.

D) cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period.

28) Approximately when in development does the bilaminar germinal disc begin to form?

A) Day 8

B) Day 32

C) Week 8

D) Week 24

29) The outermost extraembryonic membrane that eventually helps form the placenta is the

A) amnion.

B) chorion.

C) yolk sac.

D) hypoblast.

30) Which structure is an important site for early blood cell formation and is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to form?

A) Amnion

B) Yolk sac

C) Chorion

D) Zona pellucida

31) The maternal portion of the placenta arises from the

A) amnion.

B) ectoderm.

C) functional layer of the uterus.

D) germinal disc.

E) myometrium.

32) Describe the main functions of the placenta.

33) The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as

A) amniotic villi.

B) chorionic villi.

C) amniotic stalks.

D) chorionic stalks.

34) Blood cells and antibodies pass freely across the placenta.

35) Which pathogen (within the mother) is most likely to be transmitted across the placenta?

A) A multicellular parasite that is present during the first week of pregnancy

B) A multicellular parasite that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

C) A blood-borne virus that is present during the first week of pregnancy

D) A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

36) The process by which the three primary germ layers are formed during the third week of development is known as ________.

37) Gastrulation results in the formation of a(n)

A) morula.

B) embryo.

C) blastocyst.

D) trophoblast.

E) umbilical cord.

38) At the start of gastrulation, a long, thin depression known as the primitive ________ forms on the surface of the epiblast.

A) furrow

B) node

C) streak

D) groove

E) yolk

39) The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the ________.

40) When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer, that movement is described as

A) capacitation.

B) invagination.

C) chemotaxation.

D) cleavage.

41) The primary germ layer that takes the place of the hypoblast is the

A) mesoderm.

B) endoderm.

C) centroderm.

D) chorion.

E) trophoblast.

42) Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the

A) amnion and embryonic disc.

B) yolk sac.

43) The process that involves the fusion of the two sides of the embryonic disc at a newly formed midline, thereby creating a cylindrical embryo is ________ folding.

A) invagination

B) cephalocaudal

C) transverse

D) amphiamniotic

E) coronal

44) The future head and buttocks regions of the embryo are facilitated by the process of ________ folding.

A) cleavage

B) cephalocaudal

C) transverse

D) amitotic

E) chorionic

45) Neurulation is the development of the nervous system from the

A) endoderm.

B) mesoderm.

C) ectoderm.

D) hypoderm.

46) The structure of the mesoderm that induces formation of the neural tube is the

A) head mesenchyme.

B) amnion.

C) notochord.

D) paraxial mesoderm.

47) Which part of the embryo develops into the kidneys?

A) Endoderm

B) Paraxial mesoderm

C) Notochord

D) Intermediate mesoderm

48) Blocklike masses that form from paraxial mesoderm and develop into muscle, axial skeleton, cartilage, and dermis are known as ________.

49) Lateral plate mesoderm gives rise to most of the components of the cardiovascular system.

50) Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks

A) 1–2 of development, before the placenta is fully formed.

B) 4–8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development.

C) 12–16 of development, when limbs have formed but are not fully mature.

D) 24–28 of development, when plasticity of surrounding tissues has been lost.

51) Substances that can cause birth defects or the death of the embryo are referred to as ________.

52) Teratogens are most damaging to organ systems if exposure to them occurs

A) early in pre-embryonic development.

B) when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo.

C) in the fetal period, after systems have formed but have not completed maturation.

53) What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development?

A) 4 weeks

B) 12 weeks

C) 29 weeks

D) 39 weeks

54) Increases in weight of the conceptus are largest during the ________ two months of pregnancy.

A) first

B) middle

C) last

55) The process of organogenesis begins in the fetal period.

56) The trimester during which an embryo becomes a fetus is the ________ trimester.

A) first

B) second

C) third

57) The second trimester of a pregnancy includes months

A) 2–5

B) 4–6

C) 5–7

D) 5–9

58) During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta

A) stimulate FSH and LH secretion and thereby stimulate ovarian follicle development.

B) inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development.

C) stimulate GnRH secretion and thereby inhibit overgrowth of the uterus.

D) inhibit release of corticotropin-releasing hormone and thereby prevent excessive stress responses.

59) In pregnant women, the high levels of estrogen and progesterone secretion seem to lead to

A) stronger nails and fuller hair.

B) weaker nails and thinner hair.

60) To prepare for the strain of labor and delivery, female reproductive hormones cause ligaments of pelvic joints to tighten.

61) Growth of the functional layer and prevention of menstruation during pregnancy are brought about by secretion of

A) relaxin.

B) progesterone.

C) cortisol.

D) human chorionic thyrotropin.

E) human placental lactogen.

62) Blood vessel growth within the uterus is promoted by the hormone ________.

63) During pregnancy, the levels of CRH and aldosterone within a mother's blood decline.

64) One reason that pregnant women's metabolic rates change is that the placenta secretes

A) human chorionic gonadotropin, which stimulates metabolism of glucose and raises metabolic rate.

B) human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate.

C) human placental lactogen, which stimulates glycolysis and raises metabolic rate.

D) human chorionic somatomammotropin, which inhibits fatty acid metabolism and lowers metabolic rate.

E) prolactin, which lowers metabolic rate so that nutrients can be stored in milk.

65) Changes in the size of the uterus during pregnancy are due to

A) hypertrophy but not hyperplasia.

B) hyperplasia but not hypertrophy.

C) both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

66) The uterine enlargement that occurs during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy is mostly the result of

A) growth of the conceptus from a zygote to a fetus.

B) amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta.

67) By the 4th month of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is located inches below the ________ and by the ninth month it is located at the level of the ________.

A) urinary bladder; umbilicus

B) umbilicus; xiphoid process

C) diaphragm; laryngeal prominence

D) pubic symphysis; heart

68) During pregnancy, a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of

A) melanin from the pineal gland.

B) vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland.

C) melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.

D) estrogen and progesterone from the ovary.

69) Prolactin is secreted from the ________ gland, and its levels ________ during pregnancy. 

A) hypothalamus; double

B) mammary; double

C) corpus luteum; increase tenfold

D) anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

70) Human placental lactogen ________ the effects of insulin and causes a pregnant woman's tissues to metabolize ________ glucose.

A) facilitates; more

B) facilitates; less

C) inhibits; more

D) inhibits; less

71) Increased levels of estrogen, progesterone, and corticosteroids result in increased insulin resistance during pregnancy.

72) Which type of food do women suffering from morning sickness generally prefer?

A) Carbohydrate-rich foods

B) Protein-rich foods

73) Although pregnancies are highly variable, morning sickness is most commonly experienced in the ________ trimester.

A) first

B) second

C) third

74) Describe the causes and effects of gastrointestinal ailments during pregnancy.

75) Edema and varicose veins in the lower extremities sometimes develop in the third trimester of a pregnancy due to

A) decreased cardiac output.

B) elevated blood pressure.

C) compression of abdominal blood vessels.

D) elevated hematocrit.

76) During pregnancy, the mother's

A) cardiac output and hematocrit rise.

B) cardiac output and hematocrit fall.

C) cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls.

D) cardiac output falls and hematocrit rises.

77) When pregnant, a woman has an increased sensitivity to the hormone angiotensin.

78) Difficulty with breathing that may accompany physical exertions of a pregnant woman is called ________.

79) Hormonal and neural changes during pregnancy function to facilitate diffusion of gases across the placenta. One way this occurs is by ________ respiration rate, thereby ________ CO2 levels in the blood.

A) increasing; raising

B) increasing; lowering

C) decreasing; raising

D) decreasing; lowering

80) Although pregnancy sometimes results in frequent urination, the one trimester when this tends to be not as problematic is the

A) first.

B) second.

C) third.

81) As the fetus develops, the mother's glomerular filtration rate

A) increases by about 10%.

B) increases by about 40%.

C) decreases by about 10%.

D) decreases by about 40%.

82) Pregnancy increases a woman's risk of urinary tract infection.

83) An alternate term for labor is ________.

84) In the late stages of pregnancy, estrogen stimulates increased

A) release of hCG.

B) secretion of atrial natriuretic factor by the heart.

C) growth of the corpus luteum.

D) production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

85) Progesterone makes the uterine myometrium more irritable.

86) Late in pregnancy, levels of estrogen and oxytocin rise.

87) Braxton-Hicks contractions tend to be

A) regular and increasingly frequent as time passes.

B) increasingly intense as time passes.

C) irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes.

D) regular in timing but relatively weak.

88) Braxton-Hicks contractions are those that occur

A) during premature labor.

B) during false labor.

C) during true labor.

D) in smooth muscle near the uterus.

E) with the most painful intensity.

89) Pain from false labor contractions tends to be more localized to the ________ abdomen than that experienced from contractions of true labor.

A) upper

B) lower

90) The beginning of labor involves increased production of ________ from the fetal hypothalamus, resulting in secretion of ________ by the placenta.

A) GnRH; prolactin

B) prolactin; oxytocin

C) oxytocin; prostaglandins

D) prostaglandin; prolactin

E) prolactin; GnRH

91) Prostaglandins are ________ acids that ________ the cervix.

A) amino; constrict

B) amino; dilate

C) fatty; constrict

D) fatty; dilate

92) True labor contractions increase with frequency over time, and pain from such contractions does not change in response to movement.

93) Explain the feedback mechanism involved in true labor. Indicate the components of the feedback system (for example, identify the control center), their responses to stimuli, and the nature of the response (is it positive or negative feedback?).

94) Stretching of the cervix causes oxytocin secretion to

A) increase.

B) decrease.

95) Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions?

A) Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction.

B) Both oxytocin and prostaglandins inhibit uterine contraction.

C) Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, but prostaglandins inhibit them.

D) Prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions, but oxytocin inhibits them.

96) Which stage would you expect to take the longest time?

A) Dilation stage of labor of a parous woman

B) Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

C) Expulsion stage of labor of a parous woman

D) Expulsion stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

97) During the dilation stage, the cervix expands and becomes thinner. This stage ends once the cervix has fully dilated and ________ (thinned).

98) What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor?

A) Colostrum

B) The fetus

C) The placenta and remaining fetal membranes

D) Only amniotic fluid

99) Neonates will take their first breath only after umbilical cord vessels have been clamped.

100) Typically, at the moment a full-term baby is born, the child's lungs are

A) fully inflated due to practice respiratory movements in the womb.

B) not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds.

C) not fully inflated, and will not inflate fully for ten days, when surfactant production begins.

101) Upon a newborn's first breath, pulmonary arterioles

A) constrict.

B) dilate.

102) Shortly after birth, the foramen ovale of the fetal heart ceases to function as an open pathway for blood.

103) Shortly after birth the pressure within the right side of the heart rises.

104) Postpartum, estrogen and progesterone levels

A) rise steeply.

B) rise gradually.

C) fall steeply.

D) fall gradually.

105) After delivering a child, the levels of CRH in the mother's blood

A) increase.

B) decrease.

C) remain the same.

106) Define postpartum depression and describe what hormonal situation might be related to this condition.

107) Endometrial tissue, blood, and mucus are released from the uterus after childbirth as ________.

108) After childbirth, lochia lasts for

A) 3-4 days.

B) 2-3 weeks.

C) 3-5 months.

109) After childbirth, a woman's aldosterone levels ________ which results in ________ urine volume.

A) increase; increased

B) increase; decreased

C) decrease; decreased

D) decrease; increased

110) In nonpregnant women, ________ inhibits secretion of substantial amounts of prolactin.

A) GnRH

B) dopamine

C) estrogen

D) progesterone

111) Compared to breast milk, colostrum contains

A) more fat and more immunoglobulins.

B) more fat but less immunoglobulins.

C) less fat but more immunoglobulins.

D) less fat and less immunoglobulins.

112) Breast milk contains large amounts of vitamin D.

113) The release of breast milk that occurs when a mother hears a crying child is called the milk ________ reflex.

114) Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone ________ stimulates ________ cells to contract.

A) prolactin; mechanoreceptor

B) oxytocin; myoepithelial

C) estrogen; areolar

D) prolactin; mammary acini

E) oxytocin; suspensory

115) In a mother who has recently delivered a child, afterpains occur when

A) dopamine triggers uterine contractions.

B) oxytocin triggers uterine contractions.

C) estrogen triggers prostaglandin release.

D) progesterone inhibits prostaglandin release.

116) Breastfeeding prolongs the duration of time it takes for the uterus to shrink to its pre-pregnancy size.

117) The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size and similar features is known as the

A) genotype.

B) Punnett square.

C) karyotype.

D) heredity gel.

118) The place on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is its

A) locus.

B) phenotype.

C) karyotype.

D) genotype.

E) linkage.

119) Individuals who are described as heterozygous have different

A) genotypes than the predominant genotype.

B) genes for one trait on several chromosomes.

C) alleles for a particular trait.

D) parents who displayed two different phenotypes.

120) Mendelian inheritance specifies that if two heterozygous individuals mate, the chances that a child would be homozygous for the recessive allele would be

A) 25%.

B) 50%.

C) 75%.

D) impossible to predict.

121) Sickle-cell disease exhibits strict dominant-recessive inheritance.

122) A trait is said to exhibit ________ dominance when the phenotype of a heterozygous individual is intermediate between the phenotypes of individuals who are homozygous dominant and individuals who are homozygous recessive.

123) Blood type is an example of a trait that demonstrates

A) strict Mendelian inheritance.

B) codominant inheritance.

C) incomplete dominance.

D) polygenic dominance.

E) sex-linked recessiveness.

124) Which is the larger of the sex chromosomes and is more commonly involved in sex-linked inheritance?

A) The X chromosome

B) The Y chromosome

125) Consider a mother with normal vision who has a son with red-green color blindness. The mother was a "carrier" of the affected gene, as she had a normal phenotype but

A) two recessive alleles.

B) two dominant alleles.

C) one dominant and one recessive allele.

D) a codominant set of alleles.

E) an incompletely penetrating genotype.

126) Someone with the genotype associated with hereditary pancreatitis might not show symptoms of the disorder because the disorder does not have a ________ level of 100%.

A) dominance

B) penetrance

C) polygenicity

D) homozygous

E) sex-linkage

127) Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the

A) sequence of base pairs in the genes of the fetus.

B) structural integrity of the chromosomes of the fetus.

C) expression of genes in the fetus.

D) gametes of the fetus.