Ch29 + Development, Growth, Aging, And | Complete Test Bank

Seeley's Anatomy and Physiology, 12e (VanPutte)

Chapter 29 Development, Growth, Aging, and Genetics

1) The period from conception until birth is the ________ period.

A) prenatal

B) germinal

C) embryonic

D) fetal

E) conceptual

2) The prenatal period during which the major organ systems form is the ________ period.

A) fetal

B) germinal

C) embryonic

D) neonatal

3) What event separates childhood from adolescence?

A) Onset of puberty

B) Infancy

C) Formation of germ layers

D) Beginning to walk

4) Germ layers form during the ________ period, while organ systems mature during the ________ period.

A) embryonic; fetal

B) prenatal; neonatal

C) germinal; embryonic

D) germinal; fetal

E) fetal; germinal

5) The clinical age of the unborn child is calculated from ________.

A) ovulation

B) conception

C) the last menstrual period (LMP)

D) fourteen days after the last menstrual period

E) fourteen days before the last menstrual period

6) Developmental events are calculated from

A) ovulation.

B) conception.

C) the last menstrual period.

D) fourteen days after the last menstrual period.

E) fourteen days before the last menstrual period.

7) Fusion of the male and female pronuclei

A) results in an oocyte forming.

B) restores the diploid number of chromosomes.

C) occurs before ovulation.

D) results in a haploid cell forming.

E) results in a total of 23 chromosomes.

8) Depolarization of the oocyte plasma membrane occurs when the first sperm attaches to the integrin α6β1. This is called the ________.

A) slow block to polyspermy

B) acrosomal reaction

C) fast block to polyspermy

D) fertilization

E) spermiogenesis

9) Fusion of the male and female pronuclei forms the ________.

A) blastocyst

B) morula

C) zygote

D) gastrula

E) trophoblast

10) If the zygote splits into two separate cells, ________.

A) identical twins result

B) fraternal twins result

C) dizygotic twinning occurs

D) both cells die

E) paternal twins result

11) If a woman ovulates two oocytes and both are fertilized,

A) identical twins result.

B) fraternal twins result.

C) conjoined twins result.

D) monozygotic twinning occurs.

E) paternal twins result.

12) An embryonic cell that has the potential to develop into a wide range of tissues is called a/an ________ cell.

A) differentiated

B) multipotent

C) pluripotent

D) omnipotent

E) totipotent

13) An embryonic cell that contains the potential to give rise to any tissue type is called a/an ________ cell.

A) differentiated

B) multipotent

C) pluripotent

D) omnipotent

E) totipotent

14) Once the embryonic mass has 12 or more cells, it is called a ________.

A) morula

B) gastrula

C) blastula

D) blastocyst

E) trophoblast

15) The single layer of cells that surrounds the blastocele is the ________.

A) morula

B) gastrula

C) blastocyst

D) trophoblast

E) inner cell mass

16) When the embryonic mass of cells develops an internal cavity, the mass of cells is called a/an ________.

A) zygote

B) morula

C) blastocyst

D) embryonic disc

E) trophoblast

17) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst

A) consists of yolk-filled storage cells.

B) contains cells that will form the embryo.

C) represents the future placenta.

D) will form the zona pellucida.

E) contains cells that are discarded.

18) The placenta and membranes surrounding the embryo develop from the ________.

A) morula

B) blastocyst

C) trophoblast

D) inner cell mass

E) blastocele

19) At the time of implantation, the human embryo is in a stage of development known as the ________.

A) fetus

B) zygote

C) morula

D) blastocyst

E) ovum

20) The placenta plays an important role in

A) implantation.

B) onset of lactation.

C) beginning of parturition.

D) provision of nutrients to the fetus.

E) insulating the fetus.

21) The time period between fertilization and implantation is approximately ________ days.

A) 5

B) 7

C) 10

D) 14

E) 21

22) Which of the following statements about the syncytiotrophoblast is false?

A) It forms the developing embryo.

B) It is composed of a nondividing, multinucleated cell.

C) It is nonantigenic, so that it triggers no immune response.

D) It invades the maternal tissues that compose the endometrium of the uterus.

E) It forms lacunae.

23) The cytotrophoblast

A) forms the chorionic villi.

B) replaces the syncytiotrophoblast.

C) remains throughout development.

D) forms branches that protrude into the amniotic cavity.

E) is not an embryonic part of the placenta.

24) The chorionic villi

A) form from branches of the syncytiotrophoblast cords.

B) increase surface area of the amniotic cavity.

C) contribute to the formation of the placenta.

D) are necessary for implantation to occur.

E) are not part of the placental formation.

25) Placenta previa occurs when

A) a normally placed placenta tears away from the uterine wall.

B) the placenta is formed too early.

C) implantation occurs close to the cervix.

D) implantation occurs in the fundus of the uterus.

26) Where does implantation normally occur?

A) In the fundus area of the uterus

B) In the isthmus area of the uterine tube

C) In the cervix area of the uterus

D) In the infundibulum area of the uterine tube

27) The embryonic disk is initially composed of ________.

A) ectoderm and hypoblast

B) epiblast and mesoderm

C) epiblast and hypoblast

D) hypoblast and yolk sac

E) epiblast and yolk sac

28) The embryonic membrane that completely encloses the embryo in a watery sac is the ________.

A) yolk sac

B) amnion

C) allantois

D) chorion

E) ectodermal sac

29) Gastrulation is the process of development that produces the ________.

A) placenta

B) embryonic disk

C) germ layers

D) rudimentary organs

30) Some epiblast cells migrate and emerge between the epiblast and endoderm as a new germ layer called the ________.

A) yolk sac

B) mesoglia

C) notochord

D) mesoderm

E) primitive streak

31) Through what structure do epiblast cells migrate to form the mesoderm?

A) Lacunae

B) Chorionic villi

C) Hypoblast

D) Primitive streak

E) Blastocele

32) Which of the following is derived from ectoderm?

A) Lens of the eye

B) Thymus gland

C) Tonsils

D) Urinary bladder

E) Dermis of skin

33) Which of the following is derived from endoderm?

A) Brain

B) Muscle

C) Epidermis of the skin

D) Mucosa of the digestive tract

E) Cardiovascular system

34) Which of the following is formed from mesoderm?

A) Autonomic neurons

B) Dermis of the skin

C) Adrenal medulla

D) Teeth

E) Tonsils

35) Damage to the mesoderm during embryological development would affect the formation of which of the following structures?

A) Thyroid

B) Brain

C) Heart

D) Teeth

E) Urinary bladder

36) Which of the following organ systems is derived from all three germ layers?

A) Nervous

B) Cardiovascular

C) Endocrine

D) Integumentary

E) Skeletal

37) Which germ layer is most muscle derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

38) Which germ layer is the thymus derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

39) Which germ layer is the epidermis derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

40) Which germ layer is covering of the exposed region of the tooth derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

41) Which germ layer is the system responsible for moving substances around the body derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

42) Which germ layer is the urinary bladder derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

43) Which germ layer is the central nervous system components derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

44) Which germ layer are the bones (except facial) derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

45) Which germ layer are the tonsils derived from?

A) Ectoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Endoderm

46) Arrange the following in the sequence in which they form in the embryo.

(1) Neural plate

(2) Neural tube

(3) Notochord

(4) Primitive streak

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 1, 3, 2, 4

C) 4, 3, 1, 2

D) 4, 1, 3, 2

E) 3, 4, 1, 2

47) The embryo is most sensitive to outside influences that can cause malformations during the

A) first two weeks after fertilization.

B) third to the ninth weeks of development.

C) ninth to the sixteenth weeks of development.

D) twelfth to the twentieth weeks of development.

E) twenty-first to twenty-sixth weeks of development.

48) Which of the following is NOT a possible route for neural crest cells?

A) Melanocytes

B) Autonomic ganglion neurons

C) Adrenal cortex

D) Sensory ganglia

E) Enteric nervous system neurons

49) Cells of the neuroectoderm become all of the following EXCEPT the ________.

A) brain

B) spinal cord

C) postganglionic autonomic neurons

D) posterior pituitary gland

50) Somites give rise to ________.

A) nerves

B) blood

C) glands

D) muscles

E) spinal cord

51) Segments of mesoderm that will form muscles are ________.

A) mesonephros

B) mandibular processes

C) neural tube

D) secondary palate

E) somites

52) The oropharyngeal and cloacal membranes, when opened, allow the ________ to open to the outside.

A) liver

B) skin

C) lungs

D) digestive tract

E) ears

53) Which of the following organs develops from evaginations along the early digestive tract?

A) Heart

B) Adrenal medulla

C) Lungs

D) Nasal cavity

E) Kidneys

54) The pleural and peritoneal cavities of the adult begin as part of the ________ cavity.

A) cloacal

B) somatomeric

C) coelomic

D) apical

E) ventral

55) The allantois enlarges to form the ________.

A) kidney

B) gonads

C) ureter

D) urinary bladder

E) urethra

56) Arm and legs buds appear at about 28 days from

A) the coelom.

B) apical ectodermal ridges.

C) somitomeres.

D) neural crest cells.

57) A cleft lip results when

A) the two halves of the secondary palate do not fuse.

B) the frontonasal and maxillary processes do not fuse.

C) the lateral edges of the nasal placodes do not fuse with the maxillary processes.

D) the maxillary processes do not fuse with the mandibular processes.

E) None of the choices are correct.

58) If the secondary palate does not fuse, the result is a ________.

A) cleft palate

B) cleft throat

C) facial cleft

D) cleft lip

E) cleft tongue

59) Which of the following structures is NOT involved in the formation of the face?

A) Apical ectodermal ridges

B) Frontonasal process

C) Maxillary processes

D) Mandibular processes

60) Which structure(s) form(s) the lower jaw?

A) Mesonephros

B) Mandibular processes

C) Neural tube

D) Secondary palate

E) Somites

61) Which structure(s) form(s) the roof of the mouth?

A) Mesonephros

B) Mandibular processes

C) Neural tube

D) Secondary palate

E) Somites

62) Organogenesis is generally completed by day ________ of development.

A) 20

B) 30

C) 45

D) 60

E) 75

63) Which of the following statements concerning development of the integumentary system is true?

A) The epidermis is derived from mesoderm.

B) The melanocytes are derived from ectoderm.

C) Nails, hair, and glands develop from the dermis.

D) Sensory receptors in the skin are derived from the epidermis.

E) Collagen fibers do not appear until after birth.

64) Which of the following statements concerning musculoskeletal system development is true?

A) Skeletal muscles develop from crest cells.

B) Myoblasts produce somites.

C) The vertebral column develops from somite-derived mesoderm.

D) Enlargement of muscles after birth is due to an increase in the number of muscle fibers.

E) Ossification ends before birth.

65) Failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the head results in ________.

A) anencephaly

B) ventricular enlargement

C) cleft palate

D) soft spots on the skull

E) hydrocephaly

66) The central cavity of the neural tube becomes the ________.

A) cerebrum

B) midbrain

C) cranial cavity

D) ventricles of the brain

E) epidural space

67) What is formed by closure of neural groove?

A) Mesonephros

B) Mandibular processes

C) Neural tube

D) Secondary palate

E) Somites

68) The eyes develop as evaginations from the ________.

A) myelencephalon

B) mesencephalon

C) neural crest cells

D) diencephalon

E) telencephalon

69) The olfactory bulbs and nerves develop as an evagination from the ________.

A) myelencephalon

B) mesencephalon

C) neural crest cells

D) diencephalon

E) telencephalon

70) Which of the following structures originates as an evagination from the floor of the pharynx, moves into the neck, and loses its connection with the pharynx?

A) Pancreas

B) Thyroid gland

C) Adrenal medulla

D) Adenohypophysis

E) Parathyroid glands

71) Which structure is formed by an evagination from the floor of the diencephalon?

A) Anterior pituitary

B) Posterior pituitary

C) Thyroid gland

D) Adrenal glands

E) Pancreas

72) Which gland is derived from both neural crest cells and mesoderm?

A) Anterior pituitary

B) Posterior pituitary

C) Thyroid gland

D) Adrenal glands

E) Pancreas

73) Which gland originates as two evaginations from the duodenum?

A) Anterior pituitary

B) Posterior pituitary

C) Thyroid gland

D) Adrenal glands

E) Pancreas

74) Which structure develops from an evagination of the ectoderm in the roof of the embryonic oral cavity?

A) Anterior pituitary

B) Posterior pituitary

C) Thyroid gland

D) Adrenal glands

E) Pancreas

75) The embryonic heart

A) develops from two endothelial tubes that fuse together.

B) consists of four chambers.

C) has two atria but only one ventricle.

D) doesn't beat until just prior to birth.

E) has no passages connecting right side to left side.

76) The opening that connects the right and left atria in the fetal heart is the ________.

A) interatrial septum

B) septum primum

C) septum secundum

D) foramen ovale

E) foramen rotundum

77) Which of the following statements concerning the embryonic cardiovascular system is true?

A) The heart develops from four endothelial tubes.

B) Blood vessels form from blood islands.

C) An opening in the interatrial septum is called the sinus venosus.

D) The bulbus cordis becomes the sinoatrial node (the adult pacemaker).

E) There is an opening in the interventricular septum.

78) The lungs develop from

A) somitomeres.

B) neural crest cells.

C) an evagination from the foregut.

D) an evagination from the floor of the diencephalon.

E) an invagination from the hindgut.

79) The adult kidney develops from the ________.

A) pronephros

B) metanephros

C) mesonephros

D) allantois

E) neonephros

80) The common junction of the digestive, urinary, and genital systems is the ________.

A) cloaca

B) coelom

C) allantois

D) hindgut

E) anus

81) Which of the following sequences is correct?

A) Mesonephros, pronephros, metanephros

B) Metanephros, pronephros, mesonephros

C) Pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros

D) Pronephros, metanephros, mesonephros

E) Mesonephros, metanephros, pronephros

82) The first functional kidney is the ________.

A) mesonephros

B) pronephros

C) allantois

D) bulbus cordis

E) urorectal septum

83) The gonads appear as the ________.

A) paramesonephrons

B) urogenital folds

C) labioscrotal swellings

D) gonadal ridges

E) gonadal grooves

84) Cryptorchidism

A) is the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac.

B) may be due to excessive amounts of testosterone in the fetus.

C) has no effect on fertility.

D) results in feminization of the male fetus.

E) is the lack of testes.

85) If neither testosterone nor mullerian-inhibiting hormone is secreted during embryonic development,

A) the paramesonephric duct system degenerates.

B) the mesonephric duct system is stimulated.

C) internally female reproductive structures form.

D) the individual appears as a male.

E) internally male reproductive structures form.

86) The male and female reproductive systems begin as an indifferent stage. If testosterone is present, which of the following occurs?

A) The paramesonephric duct forms the vagina.

B) The mesonephric ducts form the ductus deferens.

C) The mesonephric ducts atrophy.

D) The paramesonephric ducts enlarge to form the scrotum.

E) The paramesonephric duct atrophies.

87) In females, the genital tubercle becomes the ________.

A) uterus

B) ovary

C) clitoris

D) vagina

E) labia

88) In males, the urogenital folds close over the urogenital opening and urethral groove to form the ________.

A) scrotum

B) testes

C) vas deferens

D) penis

E) prostate gland

89) The testes leave the abdominal cavity and reach the scrotum by passing through the ________.

A) urogenital opening

B) inguinal canal

C) cloaca

D) urethra

E) Wolffian ducts

90) An embryo becomes a fetus about

A) 14 days after fertilization.

B) 30 days after fertilization.

C) 60 days after fertilization.

D) 3 months after fertilization.

E) 6 months after fertilization.

91) The major difference between an embryo and a fetus is that

A) a fetus can survive outside the mother's womb but an embryo cannot.

B) a fetus is smaller than an embryo.

C) organ systems are developing in an embryo while all organs are present in a fetus.

D) a fetus is a male child while an embryo is a female child.

E) None of the choices are correct.

92) Fine, soft hair that covers the fetus is called ________.

A) lanugo

B) fetal hair

C) colostrum

D) vernix caseosa

E) primary hair

93) The waxy coat of sloughed epithelial cells that covers the fetus is called ________.

A) lanugo

B) fetal hair

C) colostrum

D) vernix caseosa

E) primary hair

94) The type of fetal monitoring that uses sound waves to visualize the developing fetus is a/an ________.

A) fetoscopy

B) ultrasound

C) amniocentesis

D) chorionic villi sampling

E) auscultation

95) An infant born with a gestational age of 254 days would be considered ________.

A) premature

B) normal maturity

C) postmature

D) immature

E) None of the choices are correct.

96) One of the major problems a premature infant may develop is respiratory distress syndrome. This occurs because in a premature infant,

A) oxygen transport is impaired.

B) surfactant isn't produced.

C) the lungs are collapsed.

D) there aren't enough red blood cells to carry oxygen.

E) there is mixing of the arterial and venous blood.

97) The birth process is called ________.

A) micturition

B) gastrulation

C) organogenesis

D) parturition

E) expulsion

98) The stage of labor in which the fetus is expelled is the ________ stage.

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

E) fifth

99) Which of the following events near the end of pregnancy might indicate parturition is near?

A) The cervix gradually constricts.

B) The uterus begins regular contractions.

C) The amniotic sac becomes edematous.

D) The fetal heart rate increases to greater than 160 beats per minute.

E) The cervix shrinks.

100) Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) First stage of labor – Fetus exits vagina

B) Second stage of labor – ends with cervix dilation to maximum

C) Third stage of labor – placenta expelled from uterus

101) Before parturition,

A) the placenta secretes increased amounts of oxytocin.

B) the uterus stretches, causing the release of ACTH from the adenohypophysis.

C) there is an increase in the stimulatory effects of progesterone on the uterine muscle.

D) prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited.

E) fetal glucocorticoids decrease the production of progesterone by the placenta.

102) Onset of labor may result from

A) increased estrogen secretion by the placenta.

B) increased glucocorticoid secretion by the mother.

C) increased secretion of oxytocin by the fetus.

D) increased progesterone secretion by the placenta.

E) decreased prostaglandins.

103) Which of the following conditions might result in stress on a fetus that has nearly completed 9 months of fetal development?

A) Placental growth greater than fetal growth

B) Cramped quarters in the uterus

C) Increased O2 supply to the fetus

D) Excessive weight gain by the mother

E) Hormone fluctuations

104) Which of the following will cause contractions of uterine smooth muscle?

A) Increasing levels of progesterone

B) Decreasing levels of estrogen

C) Decreasing levels of oxytocin

D) Decreasing uterine stretch

E) Increasing levels of oxytocin

105) When stretch receptors in the cervix are stimulated by the continually increasing pressure of the fetus, afferent neurons send impulses to the maternal hypothalamus resulting in

A) increased estrogen production.

B) increased oxytocin production.

C) increased fetal CRH production.

D) increased growth in the size of the placenta.

E) decreased oxytocin production.

106) Which of the following fetal shunts connects the umbilical vein with the inferior vena cava?

A) Ductus arteriosus

B) Umbilical vein

C) Umbilical artery

D) Ductus venosus

E) Foramen ovale

107) In fetal circulation, the blood containing the highest amount of oxygen is found in the ________.

A) aorta

B) umbilical vein

C) ductus arteriosus

D) umbilical arteries

E) heart

108) Which of the following fetal shunts bypasses the fetal lungs?

A) Ductus arteriosus

B) Ductus venosus

C) Umbilical arteries

D) Umbilical vein

E) Ductus byosus

109) The closed foramen ovale becomes the ________ after birth.

A) fossa ovalis

B) ligamentum ovale

C) ligamentum venosum

D) ligamentum arteriosum

E) valves

110) Which of the following pairs of terms and description is mismatched?

A) Foramen ovale - ligamentum ovale

B) Ductus arteriosus - ligamentum arteriosus

C) Ductus venosus - ligamentum venosus

D) Umbilical vein - ligamentum teres of the liver

E) Umbilical arteries - cords of umbilical arteries

111) A patent ductus arteriosus means that the ________ did not close.

A) intraatrial septum

B) intraventricular septum

C) connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta

D) connection between the inferior vena cava and the abdominal aorta

E) umbilical arteries and veins

112) Which of the following statements concerning the digestive system of a newborn is true?

A) The infant may lose 15% to 20% of his body weight in the first week.

B) The pH of the stomach is nearly neutral, but increases in acidity after birth.

C) The liver of the newborn is functionally mature.

D) The ability to digest lactose does not occur until 48 hours after birth.

E) All foods can be digested at birth.

113) The greenish discharge from the lower digestive tract shortly after birth is called ________.

A) colostrum

B) jaundice

C) bile

D) meconium

E) prolactin

114) An APGAR score of ________ is considered normal at 1 to 5 minutes after birth.

A) 2

B) 5

C) 9

D) 12

E) 25

115) APGAR scores are used to

A) evaluate a newborn's weight.

B) assess a newborn's physiological condition.

C) measure a newborn's genetic state.

D) determine the developmental age of the infant.

E) measure the infant.

116) Most congenital birth defects are caused by

A) inherited traits.

B) lack of oxygen to the fetus.

C) viral infections during pregnancy.

D) unknown causes.

E) None of the choices are correct.

117) Alcohol ingestion by a pregnant woman can cause birth defects in her baby; in this respect, alcohol is a/an ________.

A) carcinogen

B) mutagen

C) teratogen

D) oncogene

E) haptogen

118) The hormone(s) responsible for preparing the breasts for lactation during pregnancy is/are ________.

A) estrogen

B) progesterone

C) oxytocin

D) prolactin

E) Both "estrogen" and "progesterone" are correct.

119) The hormone responsible for milk production is ________.

A) estrogen

B) progesterone

C) oxytocin

D) prolactin

E) FSH

120) Which of the following is involved in stimulating milk letdown?

A) Increased estrogen levels

B) Increased progesterone levels

C) Mechanical stimulation of the breasts that cause release of oxytocin

D) Secretion of a small amount of milk

E) None of the choices are correct.

121) Colostrum differs from milk in that it contains ________.

A) little fat

B) no antibodies

C) more protein

D) more lactose

E) more fat

122) An infant who has just started cooing and gurgling in response to smiles and attention from its parents is about ________ months old.

A) two

B) four

C) six

D) eight

E) ten

123) Which of the following characterizes the developmental age of an eight-month-old infant?

A) Sits without support

B) Rolls from its back to its side

C) Smiles in response to people's faces

D) Pulls itself up to a standing position

E) None of the choices are correct.

124) Neonate is the term used to refer to a baby

A) in the 24-48 hours preceding birth.

B) in the 24-48 hours after birth.

C) during the first month after birth.

D) during the six months after birth.

E) during the first year after birth.

125) The earliest period of prenatal development is the ________ period.

A) embryonic

B) neonatal

C) germinal

D) infant

E) fetal

126) The onset of puberty is signaled by

A) a growth spurt.

B) emotional upheaval.

C) attainment of full adult stature.

D) the ability to obtain a drivers license.

E) a halt to growth.

127) Muscle strength peaks in a/an ________.

A) child

B) adolescent

C) young adult

D) middle aged adult

E) elderly adult

128) Which of the following is NOT a change associated with aging?

A) Loss of neurons

B) Loss of skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue

C) Decreased cross-linking of collagen

D) Decreased ability of the lens in the eye to accommodate

E) Arteriosclerosis

129) A clot or plaque which forms on the inside of blood vessel walls is called a/an ________.

A) sclerosis

B) arteriosus

C) thrombus

D) embolus

E) plaque

130) Increased lipid deposits in the tunica intima of large arteries is called ________.

A) atherosclerosis

B) arteriosclerosis

C) a thrombus

D) an embolus

E) hardening of the arteries

131) Decreased renal filtration that occurs with aging can be the result of

A) increased respiratory effort.

B) decreased cardiac output.

C) increased fluid volume.

D) decreased ADH secretion.

E) decreased peripheral resistance.

132) Premature aging is called ________.

A) progeria

B) lactation

C) parturition

D) Alzheimer disease

E) dementia

133) Which of the following vitamins are thought to play a role in decreasing the physiological changes in aging?

A) Vitamins A and B12

B) Vitamins A and B6

C) Vitamins E and C

D) Vitamins A and D

E) Vitamins A and K

134) Many gerontologists refer to walking as one of the most important anti-aging activities to prolong life. This is because a daily 30-minute walk

A) increases blood pressure.

B) improves circulation.

C) promotes anaerobic metabolism.

D) increases urine output.

E) increases peripheral resistance.

135) Autoimmune diseases such as arthritis become more common as people get older. "Autoimmune" means that the immune system

A) no longer produces antibodies.

B) destroys the body's own tissues.

C) is incapable of initiating phagocytosis.

D) produces T cells but no B cells.

E) protects itself.

136) One reason for the increased incidence of cancer with aging is a decrease in ________.

A) urine output

B) cardiac output

C) red blood cells

D) functioning of T lymphocytes

E) functioning neutrophils

137) One component of brain death is defined as ________.

A) loss of reflexes.

B) lack of spontaneous movement.

C) a flat electroencephalogram (EEG).

138) The genotype WW is best described as ________.

A) homozygous recessive

B) homozygous dominant

C) heterozygous dominant

D) heterozygous recessive

E) homorecessive

139) An organism's genetic makeup is its ________, while its physical appearance is its ________.

A) chromotype; phenotype

B) genotype; phenotype

C) phenotype; genotype

D) genotype; chromotype

E) aminotype; prototype

140) In humans, somatic cells have ________ chromosomes, while reproductive cells (gametes) have ________.

A) 23; 46

B) 92; 46

C) 46; 23

D) 46; 69

E) 92; 23

141) Which of the following genotypes will result in a male?

A) XO

B) XY

C) XX

D) XXX

E) YY

142) A display of the chromosomes of a somatic cell during metaphase of mitosis is the ________.

A) karyotype

B) autosome

C) homolog

D) locus

E) genome

143) The specific location of a gene on a chromosome is its ________.

A) homolog

B) genotype

C) phenotype

D) allele

E) locus

144) Chromosome pairs are called ________.

A) karyotypes

B) genomes

C) homologous pairs

D) loci

E) haploid

145) A different form of an allele at a particular locus that can have no effect to major effects on the phenotype is a/an ________.

A) allelic variant

B) mutated allele

C) polymorphism

D) All of the choices are correct.

146) When the dominant allele does not completely mask the effects of the recessive allele in the heterozygote, it is called ________.

A) dominance

B) polygenic dominance

C) codominance

D) incomplete dominance

E) corecessive

147) Type AB of the ABO blood group is an example of ________.

A) complete dominance

B) codominance

C) incomplete dominance

D) recessiveness

E) polymorphism

148) Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?

A) Minor thalassemia

B) Major thalassemia

C) Beta thalassemia

D) Polymorphism

E) Type AB blood type

149) A person's height, intelligence, eye color, and skin color are examples of ________.

A) incomplete dominance

B) complete dominance

C) complete recessiveness

D) codominance

E) polygenic traits

150) Genes on the X chromosomes are ________.

A) polygenic

B) X-linked

C) simple

D) holandric

E) Y-linked

151) If an albino (aa) mates with a person homozygous for normal pigment (AA),

A) there is a 50% probability that the child will have normal pigmentation.

B) there is a 50% probability that the child will have albinism.

C) there is a 100% probability that the child will have normal pigmentation.

D) there is a 100% probability that the child will have albinism.

152) The process of meiosis will ________ as the gametes are produced.

A) reduce the chromosome number by 1/3

B) reduce the chromosome number by 1/2

C) double the chromosome number

D) not change the chromosome number

E) triple the chromosome number

153) Which of the following chromosome anomalies can be found in either sex?

A) Turner Syndrome (XO)

B) Klinefelter Syndrome (XXY)

C) Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)

D) Barker Syndrome

E) All of the choices are correct.

154) A mutation involving a single nucleotide is a ________ mutation.

A) deletion

B) duplication

C) nondisjunction

D) point

E) aneuploidy

155) A mistake during segregation of chromosomes is called ________.

A) deletion

B) duplication

C) nondisjunction

D) point mutation

E) aneuploidy

156) Down Syndrome is an example of an aneuploidy called ________.

A) monosomy 21

B) trisomy 21

C) monosomy 23

D) trisomy 17

E) disomy 21

157) ________ is an example of a recessive genetic disease that affects the formation of normal hemoglobin molecules.

A) Albinism

B) Sickle cell disease

C) Hemophilia

D) Down syndrome

E) Achondroplasia

158) Which genetic disorder is caused by having three chromosomes 21?

A) Albinism

B) Sickle cell disease

C) Hemophilia

D) Down syndrome

E) Achondroplasia

159) Which term means that both alleles are the same?

A) Locus

B) Diploid

C) Homozygous

D) Heterozygous

E) Karyotype

160) Which term means that a person posses two different alleles at a particular locus?

A) Homologous

B) Diploid

C) Homozygous

D) Heterozygous

E) Karyotype

161) Genes that are passed from male to male are called ________.

A) structural genes

B) autosomes

C) genotypes

D) polygenic

E) y-linked

162) The actual genetic constitution of an individual is the individual's ________.

A) structural gene

B) autosome

C) genotype

D) polygenic

E) y-linked

163) Chromosomes that are NOT associated with sex determination are known as ________.

A) structural genes

B) autosomes

C) genotypes

D) polygenic

E) y-linked

164) When more than one gene pair affects a particular trait expression, this is called ________.

A) diploidy

B) autosomal

C) genotypic

D) polygenic

E) y-linked

165) True or False? The major organ systems develop during the germinal prenatal period.

166) What is the acrosomal reaction?

A) The formation of the acrosome in the epididymis

B) The activation of enzymes for action on the surface of the oocyte

C) The release of ADP from the mitochondria on the midpiece

D) The release of prostatic fluid to produce the semen

167) The thickened area of the blastocyst from which the embryo develops is called the ________.

A) inner cell mass

B) trophoblast

C) blastocele

D) morula

E) zygote

168) The process of forming three germ layers from the embryonic disk is called ________.

A) gastrulation

B) differentiation

C) fertilization

D) meiosis

E) implantation

169) As parturition nears, the levels of progesterone ________ and the levels of estrogen ________.

A) decrease; increase

B) increase; decrease

C) decrease; decrease

D) increase; increase

170) In some neonates, the foramen ovale does not close to form the fossa ovalis. This would be called a/an ________.

A) mutation

B) congenital disorder

C) teratogen

D) genetic anomaly

171) Pulling to a standing position is a typical milestone for which age?

A) 6 weeks

B) 6 months

C) 12 weeks

D) 12 months

E) 18 weeks

172) What term describes the inheritance of a trait which in the heterozygote has an intermediate expression between either allele?

A) Incomplete penetrance

B) Incomplete dominance

C) Complete dominance

D) Codominance

173) A non-albino female who is a carrier for the albino allele (Aa), mates with an albino (aa) male. What is the probability that their child will be albino?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 75%

E) 100%

174) The inclusion of ________ in a woman's diet during the early stages of her pregnancy significantly reduces the risk for neural tube defects in her developing embryo.

A) Vitamin E

B) Vitamin D

C) Vitamin A

D) Folic acid

E) Calcium

175) A ________ is a display of the chromosomes of a somatic cell during metaphase of mitosis.

A) karyotype

B) genome

C) gamete

D) locus

176) Regarding fertilization, which of the following events happens first?

A) The fast block to polyspermy

B) The slow block to polyspermy

C) The cortical reaction

D) The acrosomal reaction

177) The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is ________.

A) a few days before ovulation to less than a day after

B) less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after

C) a few days before ovulation to a few days after

D) a few days before ovulation

E) a few days after ovulation

178) By the end of 8 weeks, the individual is considered a fetus because

A) all the primary germ layers are formed.

B) the amniotic cavity has formed.

C) all of the organ systems are present.

D) the neural tube and yolk sac have formed.

E) the mesoderm has formed.

179) Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first?

A) The eyes are fully open.

B) The body is covered with lanugo.

C) Bone calcification begins.

D) The central nervous system begins to form.

E) Meconium accumulates in the intestines.

180) During birth, an infant is normally stimulated to breathe by ________.

A) CO2 accumulating in the baby's blood

B) an increased O2 level in the baby's new environment

C) prostaglandins

D) surfactant

E) being spanked by the doctor

181) The most likely outcome of nondisjunction is the production of a gamete receiving ________.

A) no chromosomes

B) 46 chromosomes

C) 44 chromosomes

D) 23 chromosomes

E) 22 chromosomes

182) Only autosomal trisomies involving chromosomes 13, 18, and 21 are survivable. Why would this be?

A) These are relatively short chromosomes.

B) These are relatively long chromosomes.

C) These are relatively gene-poor chromosomes.

D) These are redundant chromosomes.

E) These chromosomes have no genes.

183) Urine retention is a greater problem for elderly men than for elderly women because men

A) can develop benign prostatic hyperplasia.

B) have larger bladders.

C) have weaker urinary sphincters.

D) have narrower ureters.

E) have fewer glomeruli.

184) Which of the following is not a reason muscular weakness tends to develop in old age?

A) Aged muscle has less glycogen, myoglobin, and creatine phosphate.

B) There are fewer motor neurons in the spinal cord.

C) Aged muscle fibers have fewer myofibrils.

D) There are fewer and smaller mitochondria in aged muscle.

E) The muscle fibers of aged muscle no longer synthesize myosin.

185) Older people may require lower drug doses than younger people because ________.

A) their organs are more sensitive to drugs

B) they have lower rates of renal clearance

C) they do not absorb as much drug from the small intestine

D) there is less tissue mass to treat

E) a lifetime of mutations results in unpredictable drug reactions

186) Which of the following systems shows the least overall decline due to aging?

A) Muscular system

B) Endocrine system

C) Integumentary system

D) Reproductive system

E) Urinary system

187) Aging of the immune system makes older people more susceptible to cancer and infectious disease because of a decline in ________.

A) alpha and beta globulins

B) red blood cells and platelets

C) complement proteins

D) prothrombin and fibrinogen

E) antigen-presenting cells and helper T cells

188) Which of the following is not a known cause of congenital anomalies?

A) Infectious disease in the mother during pregnancy

B) A genetic disorder

C) Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy

D) Smoking during lactation

E) Smoking during pregnancy

189) A patient was evaluated with the following results noted: lack of response to pain stimuli, inability to maintain breathing without medical intervention, isoelectric EEG. These results indicate ________.

A) brain death

B) minor damage to the cerebral cortex

C) respiratory distress syndrome

D) trisomy 18

190) Which of the following findings of Mendel's work are currently accepted as a valid explanation of genetic inheritance?

A) Genes exist in pairs in an individual.

B) Gene pairs separate during gamete formation.

C) Gene pair segregation is relatively random during gamete formation.

D) All of the choices are correct.

191) Mendel suggested that gene pairs segregate during gamete formation. This process occurs during ________ of meiosis.

A) anaphase I

B) anaphase II

C) metaphase I

D) metaphase II

192) True or False? A neonate who has a blue tint to her skin, has a pulse of less than 100 bpm, and has an irregular rate of breathing could score an APGAR score of 8.

193) Sally was a nice pink color when she was born. Her heart rate was high and her breathing was steady. However, she did not respond to plantar stimulation, though she did have some muscle movement. Her APGAR score would be ________.

A) 7

B) 6

C) 5

D) 4

194) A patient's karyotype indicates a chromosome number of 45. This result is best explained by

A) nondisjunction in either the sperm cell or oocyte.

B) nondisjunction in both the sperm cell and oocyte.

C) fertilization of a single oocyte by two sperm cells.

D) a point mutation that caused one or more chromosomes to fuse.

195) A female that is a carrier for X-linked color-blindness has a daughter with a male that is colorblind. What is the probability that the daughter is colorblind?

A) 100%

B) 50%

C) 25%

D) 0%

196) If a female who is a carrier for a genetic disorder has a child with a male who is also a carrier for the same disorder, the probability that their offspring will have the disorder is ________.

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 100%

197) True or False? An individual that is type AB is not likely to be the parent of an individual that is type O.