Ch28 Reproductive System Test Bank Docx - Seeley’s Anatomy and Physiology 12e Complete Test Bank by Cinnamon VanPutte. DOCX document preview.
Seeley's Anatomy and Physiology, 12e (VanPutte)
Chapter 28 Reproductive System
1) Which function of the reproductive system is solely a function of the female reproductive system?
A) Production of reproductive hormones
B) Fertilization
C) Production of gametes
D) Development and nourishment of a new individual
2) What are the female gametes?
A) Oocytes
B) Ovaries
C) Sperm cells
D) Uterus
3) The location of the testes and epididymides in the scrotum
A) allows more room for other organs in the abdominal cavity.
B) keeps these organs close to the penis.
C) provides a temperature that is suitable for normal sperm cell development.
D) keeps them isolated from the accessory glands of the system.
E) helps to protect them.
4) Contraction of the cremaster and dartos muscles
A) causes the epididymis to shrink.
B) increases during exercise.
C) pull the testes closer to the body.
D) is responsible for ejaculation.
E) causes the penis to become erect.
5) Which of the following structures is located within the perineum?
A) Dartos muscle
B) Seminal vesicles
C) Femoral triangle
D) Urogenital triangle
E) Navel
6) Sperm cells are produced in the ________.
A) rete testis
B) efferent ductules
C) seminiferous tubules
D) vas deferens
7) The thick white capsule that covers each testes is called the ________.
A) raphe
B) tunica adventitia
C) tunica albuginea
D) Leydig capsule
E) tunica alba
8) Which of the following hormones is produced by the testis?
A) Testosterone
B) Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)
C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
E) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
9) The interstitial cells or Leydig cells
A) produce sperm cells.
B) form the wall of the rete testis.
C) cover the testis with a white tunic.
D) secrete seminal fluid.
E) secrete testosterone.
10) The opening in the abdominal wall through which the testes descend is the ________.
A) spermatic cord
B) gubernaculum
C) inguinal canal
D) process vaginalis
E) perineal opening
11) Male infants can be born with an undescended testis. This means that the testis
A) lacks hormonal cells.
B) covers the top of the scrotum.
C) has lost its blood supply.
D) remains in the abdominopelvic cavity.
E) has not properly formed.
12) The sustentacular cells
A) mature to form sperm cells.
B) produce testosterone.
C) provide nourishment for development of sperm cells.
D) cover and protect most of the testes.
E) produce seminal fluid.
13) The blood-testis barrier
A) feeds sustentacular cells.
B) keeps blood from engorging the testis.
C) is formed by the primary spermatocytes.
D) isolates sperm cells from the immune system.
E) nourishes the developing spermatozoa.
14) Which of the following substances found in sustentacular cells may be the active hormones that promote sperm cell formation?
A) IgA and IgG
B) Sustentaculum and gubernaculum
C) Dihydrotestosterone and estrogen
D) Androgen-binding protein and testosterone
E) Estrogen and progesterone
15) Which of the following cell types is formed at the end of the first meiotic division?
A) Spermatid
B) Spermatogonia
C) Primary spermatocyte
D) Secondary spermatocyte
E) Sperm cell
16) Which of the following cell types is diploid?
A) Spermatid
B) Sperm cell
C) Primary spermatocyte
D) Secondary spermatocyte
17) Which process converts a spermatid to a mature sperm cell?
A) Spermatogenesis
B) Cryptorchidism
C) Gubernaculum
D) Spermiogenesis
18) Which structure contains enzymes needed by a sperm cell to penetrate an oocyte?
A) Acrosome
B) Gubernaculum
C) Sustentacular cells
D) Androgen-binding protein
19) Which of the following structures would be found in the spermatic cord?
A) Epididymis
B) Ductus deferens
C) Seminal vesicle
D) Ejaculatory duct
E) Interstitial cells
20) Which portion of the sperm cell is most involved with penetration of the oocyte?
A) Nucleus
B) Acrosome
C) Midpiece
D) Tail
E) Centriole
21) Sperm cells are produced in the ________ and complete maturation in the ________.
A) epididymis; testes
B) ductus deferens; epididymis
C) seminiferous tubules; prostate gland
D) seminiferous tubules; epididymis
E) seminiferous tubules; vas deferens
22) A primary spermatocyte is a diploid cell that gives rise to two secondary spermatocytes after the first meiotic division. The primary spermatocyte has ________ chromosomes.
A) 92
B) 46
C) 23
D) 13
E) no
23) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) Ductus deferens - vas deferens
B) Epididymis - site of sperm maturation
C) Spermatic cord - passes through inguinal canal
D) Stereocilia - forms sperm cell tails
E) Midpiece - mitochondria
24) Smooth muscle contractions help to propel sperm cells in the ________.
A) rete testis
B) ductus deferens
C) seminal receptacle
D) seminiferous tubule
E) ejaculatory duct
25) The duct from the seminal vesicle joins the ductus deferens to form the ________.
A) prostatic urethra
B) epididymis
C) sperm cord
D) ejaculatory duct
E) spongy urethra
26) Arrange the following structures in the order sperm cells would pass through as they move from the seminiferous tubules to the urethra.
(1) Ductus deferens (vas deferens)
(2) Efferent ductules
(3) Epididymis
(4) Ejaculatory duct
(5) Rete testis
A) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
D) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
E) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
27) The ductus deferens
A) stores sperm cells until ejaculation.
B) travels through the bladder.
C) ascends the abdominal cavity along the posterior side of the kidney.
D) passes through the inguinal canal and enters the pelvic cavity.
E) passes just beneath the skin to the penis.
28) The male urethra
A) has numerous mucous-secreting glands.
B) extends through the length of the penis.
C) is lined with ciliated cuboidal epithelium.
D) extends from the prostate gland to the ductus deferens.
E) is shorter than the female urethra.
29) In males, both urine and male reproductive fluids travel through the ________.
A) ureter
B) urethra
C) epididymis
D) spermatic cord
E) ductus deferens
30) The longest portion of the male urethra is the ________ urethra.
A) prostatic
B) membranous
C) spongy
D) ductile
E) glans penis
31) The penis consists of ________ columns of erectile tissue.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
E) six
32) Which of the following male reproductive structures is mismatched with its description?
A) Prepuce – skin that covers the glans penis
B) Corpora cavernosa – forms the foreskin
C) Glans penis – contains external urethral opening
D) Corpus spongiosum – expands to form the glans penis
E) Membranous urethra – between prostatic and spongy urethra
33) Circumcision is the surgical removal of the ________.
A) prepuce
B) crus penis
C) glans penis
D) corpora cavernosa
E) bulb of penis
34) Erection of the penis occurs when
A) the pubic bones move together.
B) the bulbourethral muscles contract.
C) lymphatic fluid accumulates in the glans penis.
D) penile erectile tissue becomes engorged with blood.
E) smooth muscle contraction occurs in ductus deferens.
35) The spongy urethra is surrounded by the ________.
A) corpus cavernosum
B) prostate gland
C) corpus spongiosum
D) bulbourethral glands
36) Which of the following statements regarding glands of the male reproductive system is false?
A) The seminal vesicles open into the membranous urethra.
B) The prostate gland surrounds the prostatic urethra and ejaculatory ducts.
C) The bulbourethral glands enter the spongy urethra at the base of the penis.
D) The prostate gland contains smooth muscle partitions covered with columnar epithelium.
E) The seminal vesicles are sac-shaped glands located next to the ampullae of the ductus deferentia.
37) The accessory glands located near the membranous urethra are the ________.
A) seminal vesicles
B) inguinal glands
C) bulbourethral glands
D) seminal receptacles
E) penal glands
38) Semen is
A) produced solely by the testis.
B) a vaginal secretion needed to activate sperm cells.
C) sperm cells plus the secretions of accessory glands.
D) responsible for engorgement of erectile tissue of the penis.
E) is composed only of sperm cells.
39) Most of the seminal fluid is produced
A) by the testes.
B) by the seminal vesicles.
C) by the prostate gland.
D) by the bulbourethral glands.
E) by the ejaculatory duct.
40) Discharge of semen into the prostatic urethra is called ________.
A) erection
B) emission
C) ejaculation
D) ovulation
E) ejection
41) The forceful expulsion of semen from the urethra caused by contraction of smooth muscle in the urethra and skeletal muscle surrounding the base of the penis is called ________.
A) ejaculation
B) neutralization
C) physiological contracture
D) emission
E) orgasm
42) Which of the following glands is correctly matched with its function?
A) Seminal vesicles – provide nutrients for sperm cells
B) Prostate – lubricates the penis during intercourse
C) Bulbourethral glands – produce a thin, sweet fluid
D) Testes – produce most of the semen
E) Prostate – contributes most of the fluid
43) Given the following glands, choose the arrangement that represents the order in which the glands release their secretions to form semen.
(1) Prostate gland
(2) Bulbourethral glands
(3) Seminal vesicles
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 1, 3
C) 3, 1, 2
D) 3, 2, 1
E) 2, 3, 2
44) Which of the following substances found in semen is mismatched with its function?
A) Fructose – nourishes sperm cells
B) Mucus – lubricates urethra
C) Fibrinogen – transient coagulation of semen
D) Prostaglandins – cause urethral contractions
E) Prostaglandins – cause uterine contractions
45) Which of the following substances are found in the secretions of the prostate gland?
A) Mucus and fibrinogen
B) Fructose and mucus
C) Fibrinolysin and clotting factors
D) Prostaglandins and sperm cells
E) Acid and mucus
46) The secretions produced by the prostate gland
A) are acidic.
B) contain fructose.
C) contain mucus.
D) constitute about 30% of the semen.
E) constitute about 90% of the semen.
47) A pituitary tumor interferes with FSH secretion. How would this affect a male?
A) He would develop a feminine body contour.
B) He would not produce sperm cells.
C) He would have an erection.
D) There would be no effect as FSH is found only in females.
E) He would produce too many sperm cells.
48) Luteinizing hormone (LH) binds to interstitial (Leydig) cells and
A) inhibits sustentacular cells.
B) promotes sperm cell production by the interstitial cells.
C) decreases testosterone production by the interstitial cells.
D) stimulates GnRH levels to increase in the testes.
E) increases testosterone production by the interstitial cells.
49) A lack of testosterone production before birth would
A) inhibit normal development of male reproductive structures.
B) inhibit anterior pituitary secretions.
C) inhibit hypothalamus development.
D) inhibit FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary.
E) have no effect.
50) Once GnRH is released from the hypothalamus and enters the hypothalamohypophysial portal system,
A) testosterone is released from the anterior pituitary.
B) the interstitial cells produce inhibin.
C) estrogen production increases.
D) FSH and LH secretion will occur.
E) it will inhibit FSH and LH secretion.
51) Which of the following hormones stimulates the synthesis of testosterone by the fetal testes?
A) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D) Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LH-RH)
E) Estrogen
52) What is the active hormone in target tissues of testosterone such as the penis?
A) Testosterone
B) FSH
C) ICSH
D) Dihydrotestosterone
53) The major factor controlling the onset of puberty in males is
A) a decrease in GnRH levels.
B) the production of testosterone by the testes.
C) the ability of the pituitary to secrete FSH and LH.
D) the hypothalamus becoming less sensitive to the inhibitory effects of androgens.
E) None of the choices are correct.
54) Which of the following statements concerning testosterone is true?
A) It prevents hair loss in pattern baldness.
B) It promotes atrophy of the larynx.
C) It can lead to an increase in muscle mass.
D) It causes the skin and hair to soften.
E) It decreases metabolic rate in males.
55) Which of the following effects on the body CANNOT be attributed to testosterone?
A) Enlargement of male genitalia
B) Growth of pubic, axillary, and facial hair
C) Hypertrophy of the larynx
D) Increased calcium excretion
E) Rapid bone growth
56) Which of the following hormones would decrease if an adult male were castrated (testes removed)?
A) GnRH
B) FSH
C) LH
D) Testosterone
E) ADH
57) Following ejaculation, a phase called resolution occurs. During resolution
A) a second ejaculation occurs.
B) a feeling of satisfaction occurs.
C) erection of the penis is maintained.
D) sperm cell production increases.
E) orgasm occurs.
58) Erection and ejaculation can be initiated by
A) manual stimulation of the penis.
B) contraction of smooth muscle.
C) impulses from the cerebellum.
D) increased blood levels of testosterone.
E) increased levels of LH and FSH.
59) Which of the following events occurs in an erection?
A) Vasoconstriction of arteries leading to erectile tissue of penis
B) Engorgement of erectile tissue of penis with blood
C) Dilation of venules leading from erectile tissue of penis
D) Relaxation of internal sphincter of urinary bladder
E) Decrease of blood flow to the penis
60) Impotence occurs when
A) the erectile tissues of the penis fill with blood.
B) semen accumulates in the urethra.
C) an erection cannot be achieved or maintained.
D) semen moves out of the urethra.
E) sperm cell production decreases.
61) Arrange the following events of the male sexual act in the correct sequence:
(1) Ejaculation
(2) Emission
(3) Erection
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 1, 2
C) 3, 2, 1
D) 1, 3, 2
E) 2, 3, 1
62) Arrange the following events in correct sequence.
(1) Inflation and rigidity of erectile tissue
(2) Arteries supplying blood to erectile tissue dilate
(3) Blood fills erectile tissue sinusoids and compresses veins
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 1
C) 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 1, 3
E) 1, 3, 2
63) Which of the following events in the male sex act occurs last and results in ejaculation?
A) Peristaltic contractions of the ductus deferens
B) Contractions of skeletal muscle at the base of the penis
C) Constriction of the internal sphincter of the urinary bladder
D) Release of secretions from the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland
E) Semen accumulates in the prostatic urethra
64) What is the role of NO (nitric oxide) in the male sexual act?
A) Dilation of blood vessels in the penis
B) Activation of a G protein
C) Secretion of mucus
D) Contraction of somatic muscles of the urogenital diaphragm
65) The ovaries and uterus are held in position within the pelvis by bands of tissue called ________.
A) follicles
B) muscles
C) endometrium
D) ligaments
E) tendons
66) The ovary is attached to the superior margin of the uterus by the ________.
A) mesovarium
B) broad ligament
C) ovarian ligament
D) suspensory ligament
E) round ligament
67) The ovary is surrounded by a capsule of fibrous connective tissue called the ________.
A) mesovarium
B) tunica albuginea
C) peritoneum
D) medulla
E) tunica alba
68) Of the two million primary oocytes in the ovaries at birth, only about ________ are ovulated.
A) 40
B) 400
C) 2,000
D) 4,000
E) 400,000
69) A primary oocyte with a single layer of granulosa cells is most appropriately called a ________.
A) primordial follicle
B) secondary follicle
C) mature follicle
D) corpus luteum
E) Graafian follicle
70) A primary follicle contains
A) vesicles.
B) an antrum.
C) several layers of granulosa cells.
D) a mature ovum.
E) the theca.
71) As a secondary follicle enlarges,
A) the granulosa cells are replaced with fluid.
B) the secondary oocyte divides by mitosis.
C) a theca or capsule is formed around it.
D) the zona pellucida becomes thinner.
E) the fluid within it is reduced.
72) In a mature follicle, the oocyte lies in a mass of follicular cells called the ________.
A) theca interna
B) zona pellucida
C) granulosa
D) cumulus mass
E) theca externa
73) A follicle containing a secondary oocyte and a single fluid-filled antrum is called a ________ follicle.
A) primary
B) Graafian or mature
C) secondary
D) primordial
E) tertiary
74) The release of the secondary oocyte from the ovary is called ________.
A) ovulation
B) fertilization
C) sporulation
D) implantation
E) oocyte release
75) Which of the following is produced in the ovary and then leaves the ovary?
A) Testosterone
B) Corpus luteum
C) Secondary oocyte
D) FSH
E) Menstrual blood
76) The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division when
A) the mature follicle ruptures.
B) it is penetrated by a sperm cell.
C) it is implanted in the uterus.
D) it receives both estrogen and progesterone.
E) ovulation occurs.
77) Fertilization occurs when the
A) oocyte ruptures from the ovary.
B) oocyte is implanted in the uterus.
C) sperm cell head enters the zygote.
D) nuclei of the secondary oocyte and the sperm cell unite.
E) sperm cells enter the vagina.
78) "Zygote" is the term used to describe the
A) Graafian oocyte.
B) primary oocyte.
C) secondary oocyte.
D) fertilized oocyte.
E) sperm cell just before fertilization.
79) Follicles in the ovary that are never ovulated
A) undergo atresia.
B) become the corpus albicans.
C) form secondary follicles.
D) undergo and complete meiosis in the ovary.
E) proliferate.
80) The corpus luteum is a gland that
A) forms from a mature follicle after ovulation.
B) secretes progesterone.
C) degenerates into a zygote if pregnancy does not occur.
D) releases the secondary oocyte.
E) Both "forms from a mature follicle after ovulation" and "secretes mainly progesterone" are correct.
81) Which of the following follicular stages is the last to appear?
A) Corpus albicans
B) Corpus luteum
C) Primary follicle
D) Mature follicle
E) Graafian follicle
82) Which of the following statements concerning the uterus is true?
A) The inferior portion is the cervix.
B) The isthmus separates the body and the fundus.
C) The fundus forms the major portion of this organ.
D) The uterine wall is composed of four layers.
E) The cervical canal is in the superior portion of the uterus.
83) Trace the pathway of an egg as it passes through the uterine tube.
(1) Ampulla
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Isthmus
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 3, 4, 1, 2
D) 2, 3, 1, 4
E) 3, 1, 2, 4
84) A Pap test is used to detect ________.
A) pregnancy
B) the time of ovulation
C) cervical cancer
D) a prolapsed uterus
E) ovarian cancer
85) The cervix is a portion of the ________.
A) vagina
B) external genitalia
C) oviduct
D) uterine tube
E) uterus
86) Which of the following statements concerning the uterine tube is true?
A) The outer layer of the tube is formed by the ampulla.
B) The oocyte is moved along the tube by peristaltic contractions of the muscular layer.
C) The opening of the uterine tube is the mesosalpinx.
D) The portion of the uterine tube closest to the uterus is the infundibulum.
E) Fimbria are associated with the lining of the tube.
87) The layer of the uterine wall that is shed during menstruation is the ________.
A) perimetrium
B) myometrium
C) hymen
D) endometrium
E) vasometrium
88) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A) Broad ligaments – help support the uterus
B) Cervix – lined with rugae
C) Basal layer – layer of endometrium closest to uterine cavity
D) Perimetrium – muscular coat of uterus
E) Endometrium – connective tissue layer
89) Which of the following is a function of the vagina?
A) Oocyte production
B) Reception of penis during intercourse
C) Site of fertilization
D) Production of estrogen
E) Female hormone secretion
90) Which of the following portions of the vulva is most superior?
A) Clitoris
B) Mons pubis
C) Vestibule
D) Labia majora
E) Labia minora
91) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Clitoris – erectile tissue
B) Labia minora – unite anteriorly to form the prepuce
C) Vestibular glands – maintain moistness of vestibule
D) Mons pubis – vaginal orifice
E) Pudendal cleft – space between labia majora
92) Both the vagina and the urethra open into a space called the ________.
A) urogenital sinus
B) pudendal cleft
C) vestibule
D) prepuce
E) mons pubis
93) The secretory sacs of the mammary glands are known as the ________.
A) follicles
B) alveoli
C) lactiferous ducts
D) areolar glands
E) vesicles
94) Frequently during childbirth, an episiotomy is performed. In this procedure the ________ is cut.
A) vagina
B) perineum
C) labia majora
D) labia minora
E) mons pubis
95) Which of the following statements concerning the female mammary glands is true?
A) They are modified sweat glands.
B) They are the organs of milk production.
C) They may contain large amounts of adipose tissue.
D) They are attached to the pectoralis major muscle by Cooper ligaments.
E) All of the choices are correct.
96) Puberty in a female is characterized by
A) adipose tissue deposition in the breasts and around the hips.
B) increased muscle mass, especially in the hips.
C) growth of facial hair.
D) closure of the uterine tubes.
E) growth of chest hair.
97) Menarche refers to
A) monthly ovulation.
B) enlargement of the breasts.
C) an increase in the sexual drive.
D) the first episode of menstrual bleeding.
E) the end of the menstrual cycle.
98) The average menstrual cycle is about ________ days long; ovulation occurs on about day ________.
A) 30; 24
B) 28; 14
C) 24; 14
D) 20; 10
E) 32; 16
99) The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle is characterized by
A) ovulation.
B) rapid development of ovarian follicles.
C) formation of the corpus luteum.
D) high progesterone levels.
E) maturation of and secretion by uterine glands.
100) The uterine cycle can be divided into three continuous phases. Starting from the first day of the cycle, their consecutive order is
A) menses, proliferative, secretory.
B) menses, secretory, proliferative.
C) secretory, menses, proliferative.
D) proliferative, menses, secretory.
E) secretory, proliferative, menses.
101) One hormone responsible for initiating the development of follicles is ________.
A) HCG
B) progesterone
C) FSH
D) estrogen
E) LH
102) The LH surge initiates ________.
A) menses
B) ovulation
C) fertilization
D) the second trimester of pregnancy
E) follicle development
103) Which of the following events in the menstrual cycle occur at the same time?
A) Maximal LH secretion and menstruation (menstrual flow)
B) Early follicular development in the ovaries and maximum thickening of the uterus
C) Ovulation and menstruation (menstrual flow)
D) Uterine wall begins to thicken and increased estrogen production by the follicles
E) Proliferation and secretion
104) Shortly after ovulation,
A) the granulosa cells become corpus luteum cells.
B) estrogen increases but progesterone decreases.
C) the level of LH rises even more than before ovulation.
D) GnRH receptors upregulate.
E) corpus luteum degenerates.
105) The hypothalamic hormone that regulates both male and female reproductive cycles is ________.
A) FSH
B) ICSH
C) GnRH
D) LH
E) oxytocin
106) Which of the following events is caused by LH?
A) Stimulation of theca interna cells to produce androgens
B) Stimulation of granulosa cells to convert androgens to estradiol
C) Increase LH receptors in granulosa cells
D) Menses
E) Oxytocin is released
107) FSH
A) stimulates theca interna cells to produce androgens.
B) primarily effects granulosa cells.
C) increases progesterone production.
D) inhibits LH.
E) stimulates the uterus.
108) FSH can make the follicle cells more sensitive to LH by increasing ________.
A) GnRH production
B) GnRH receptors
C) LH receptors
D) theca cells
E) estrogen receptors
109) The androgens produced by the theca interna cells are converted to estrogen by ________.
A) corpus luteal cells
B) FSH
C) granulosa cells
D) GnRH
E) primary oocyte
110) The gradual increase in estrogen secretion during the follicular phase is the result of
A) declining FSH levels.
B) granulosa cells converting androgens to estrogen.
C) positive feedback on the anterior pituitary.
D) an LH surge.
E) luteal development.
111) Which of the listed events occurs last?
A) GnRH secretion is stimulated.
B) FSH/LH positive-feedback loops produce a series of FSH/LH surges.
C) Ovulation occurs.
D) Estrogen produced by theca interna cells increases.
E) FSH and LH levels increase.
112) The hormone hCG is necessary to
A) form the corpus luteum.
B) cause the endometrium to proliferate.
C) stimulate primary oocytes to divide.
D) keep the corpus luteum from degenerating.
E) destroy the corpus luteum.
113) Which of the following events happens after ovulation?
A) Progesterone production by follicles declines.
B) A negative feedback effect on GnRH.
C) LH and FSH levels continue to increase.
D) GnRH receptors upregulate.
E) A positive feedback effect on GnRH.
114) Progesterone
A) increases uterine tube motility.
B) causes uterine muscle contractions.
C) causes ovulation.
D) causes cellular hypertrophy in the endometrium.
E) causes cellular degeneration in the endometrium.
115) During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle, you would normally expect
A) that the endometrium is just beginning development.
B) to find a follicle that is ready to ovulate.
C) the highest levels of progesterone that occur during the menstrual cycle.
D) the spiral glands to first appear.
E) the lowest levels of progesterone.
116) Normally, menstruation occurs when
A) blood levels of estrogen increase and progesterone levels decrease rapidly.
B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase rapidly.
C) blood levels of FSH decrease rapidly.
D) the corpus luteum secretes estrogen.
E) blood levels of both female hormones decrease rapidly.
117) Menstrual cramps are most commonly caused by
A) increased FSH levels.
B) increased estrogen secretion by the ovary.
C) increased prostaglandin secretions.
D) increased HCG hormone release.
E) a decreased inflammatory response in the endometrium.
118) Which of the following statements concerning the endometrium is false?
A) Estrogen causes endometrial cells to proliferate.
B) After ovulation, the endometrium becomes thicker.
C) Rising progesterone levels cause the myometrium to contract.
D) The uterine cycle makes the endometrium a hospitable environment for implantation.
E) The endometrium receives the trophoblast.
119) During the female sexual act,
A) the clitoris becomes engorged with blood.
B) vaginal mucoid secretions are reduced.
C) vaginal, uterine, and perineal muscles relax.
D) an orgasm always occurs to insure fertilization.
E) an orgasm always occurs.
120) Sexual drive in females
A) is dependent on hormones.
B) can be affected by psychological factors.
C) is influenced by androgens that affect the hypothalamus.
D) All of the choices are correct.
121) Assume a couple has just completed intercourse, and sperm cells have been deposited in the woman's reproductive tract. Trace the pathway of the sperm cells through the female reproductive tract to the point where fertilization will most likely occur.
(1) Cervix
(2) Uterine tube
(3) Cavity of uterus
(4) Vagina
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 4, 1, 3, 2
C) 4, 3, 1, 2
D) 4, 3, 2, 1
E) 1, 3, 2, 4
122) The oocyte is viable for ________ hours following ovulation.
A) 8
B) 12
C) 24
D) 36
E) 48
123) Sperm cells may remain viable in the female reproductive tract for as long as ________ hours.
A) 24
B) 48
C) 72
D) 96
E) 144
124) Fertilization can only occur
A) if orgasms occur in both the male and female.
B) when a sperm cell penetrates a secondary oocyte.
C) when there is no menstrual flow.
D) after oxytocin is released from the hypothalamus.
E) on day 14 of the cycle.
125) Fertilization usually occurs in the ________, while fetal development occurs in the ________.
A) uterus; vagina
B) uterine tube; uterus
C) uterine tube; fimbriae
D) vagina; uterus
E) ovary; uterus
126) The corpus luteum
A) degenerates into the corpus albicans if pregnancy does not occur.
B) is absolutely necessary during the first three months of pregnancy.
C) produces mostly progesterone, but also some estrogen.
D) All of the choices are correct.
127) The placenta produces both
A) estrogen and progesterone.
B) progesterone and prolactin.
C) prolactin and FSH.
D) androgens and estrogens.
E) oxytocin and prolactin.
128) Which of the following hormones is detected by over-the-counter pregnancy kits?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Prolactin
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin
E) Oxytocin
129) Implantation
A) occurs prior to fertilization.
B) normally occurs in the uterus.
C) assists sperm cell motility in the uterus.
D) occurs in the vagina.
E) occurs in the cervix.
130) In an ectopic pregnancy,
A) no fertilization occurs.
B) implantation does not occur in the uterus.
C) a fetus never develops.
D) no placenta forms.
E) implantation occurs in the uterus.
131) The perimenopause refers to the
A) cessation of menstruation.
B) time from the onset of irregular menstrual cycles to cessation of those cycles.
C) decrease in the sexual drive.
D) inability to have sexual intercourse.
E) PMS.
132) Hot flashes during perimenopause are thought to be the result of decreased ________ levels.
A) LH
B) FSH
C) estrogen and progesterone
D) progesterone
E) oxytocin
133) Which of the following is a contraceptive method that not only prevents fertilization but also provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases?
A) Condom
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Spermicidal agents
D) Diaphragm
134) Which of the following can cause infertility in females?
A) PMS
B) Heavy, prolonged menses
C) Blockage of the uterine tubes
D) An increased libido
E) Psychological factors
135) Which of the following is NOT an age-related change in the male reproductive system?
A) Increase in erectile dysfunction
B) Prostatic hypertrophy
C) Size and weight of testes decrease
D) Decline of sperm cell production until no more sperm cells are produced
136) Which of the following is NOT an age-related change of the female reproductive system?
A) Dryness of the vagina
B) Decreased estrogen and progesterone production
C) Cessation of the menses
D) Decreased incidence of breast cancer
137) Sex cells are called ________.
A) gametes
B) spermatocytes
C) oogonia
D) zygotes
E) chromosomes
138) Meiosis produces ________ in humans.
A) sperm cells and oocytes
B) somatic cells
C) somatic cells and sex cells
D) neurons
E) muscle cells
139) A typical ejaculation results in the discharge of 2 to 5 mL of the fluid called ________.
A) semen
B) sperm cells
C) seminal vesicle secretions
D) mucus
E) prostatic secretions
140) Which of the following is not a function of the reproductive system?
A) Development and nourishment of a new individual
B) Production of gametes
C) Creation of antibodies
D) Fertilization
E) Production of reproductive hormones
141) Centromeres divide in
A) mitosis and meiosis I.
B) mitosis and meiosis II.
C) meiosis II only.
D) meiosis I and meiosis II.
E) mitosis, meiosis I, and meiosis II.
142) The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids that may result in new gene combinations on the chromosomes is called ________.
A) crossing over
B) synapsis
C) duplication
D) reduction division
E) random assortment
143) The onset of puberty in females typically occurs between the ages of ________ and occurs ________ that in males.
A) 14 and 18; earlier than
B) 13 and 16; later than
C) 11 and 16; earlier than
D) 12 and 16; at the same time as
144) What is the cessation of menstruation referred to as?
A) Menarche
B) Menopause
C) Climacteric
D) Pubarche
145) At the end of meiosis I, there are ________, whereas at the end of meiosis II, there is/are ________.
A) two diploid cells; one diploid cell
B) two diploid cells; one haploid cell
C) two diploid cells; four haploid cells
D) two haploid cells; four haploid cells
E) two haploid cells; one diploid cell
146) Which of the following is the most important role of meiosis in sexual reproduction?
A) It reduces the size of the gametes.
B) It produces at least one gamete that is mobile.
C) It prevents the chromosome number from doubling in each generation.
D) It ensures that each daughter cell doubles the number of chromosomes.
E) It changes the genetic composition of each chromosome.
147) True or False? Meiosis I is a reduction division.
148) A reduction division is one in which
A) the chemical reactions of oxidation and reduction take place.
B) the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.
C) one daughter cell is substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell.
D) the size of chromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.
149) Sister chromatids are pulled apart in
A) prophase I.
B) anaphase I.
C) interphase.
D) prophase II.
E) anaphase II.
150) True or False? The final products of the two meiotic divisions are four haploid daughter cells from an original diploid cell.
151) True or False? Only cells of the testes or ovaries undergo meiosis, which produces four haploid (n) cells with 23 chromosomes each.
152) Which of the following is the correct pathway of sperm cells from their formation to ejaculation?
A) Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, urethra, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens
B) Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, urethra
C) Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
D) Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
E) Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra, ductus deferens
153) Which of the following is true regarding the blood-testis barrier?
A) It prevents antibodies in the blood from getting to the reproductive cells.
B) It prevents heat loss from the testes.
C) It prevents blood from getting to the testes.
D) It maintains testis temperature at 35°C.
E) It maintains testis temperature at 37°C.
154) Men have only one ________.
A) bulbourethral gland
B) prostate
C) ejaculatory duct
D) seminal vesicle
E) corpus cavernosum
155) Why would an enlarged prostate interfere with urination?
A) It inhibits urine production.
B) It develops calcified deposits that block the urethra.
C) It produces thicker prostatic secretions that block the urethra.
D) It inhibits the micturition reflex.
E) It compresses the urethra.
156) ________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete ________.
A) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); LH
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); androgen-binding protein (ABP)
C) Luteinizing hormone (LH); androgen-binding protein (ABP)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone
E) Luteinizing hormone (LH); estrogen
157) ________ have 46 chromosomes, whereas ________ have 23.
A) Spermatids; sperm cells
B) Primary spermatocytes; spermatids
C) Secondary spermatocytes; primary spermatocytes
D) Spermatogonia; primary spermatocytes
158) Which of the following explains the neural mechanism of an erection?
A) It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.
B) It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.
C) It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.
D) It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.
E) It is an exclusively voluntary action mediated by the cerebral cortex.
159) Which stage of meiosis is an ovulated cell in?
A) Prophase I
B) Metaphase I
C) Telophase I
D) Telophase II
E) Metaphase II
160) In the adult ovary, more than 90% of the follicles are found as ________.
A) Primary follicles
B) Secondary follicles
C) Tertiary follicles
D) Graafian follicles
E) Primordial follicles
161) Which of these blood hormone levels reaches its maximum during the luteal phase?
A) GnRH
B) FSH
C) LH
D) Progesterone
E) Estradiol
162) Which of the following statements does not correctly contrast the female and male reproductive systems?
A) The male reproductive system produces and stores gametes, whereas the female reproductive system only stores gametes.
B) The female reproductive system produces secretions to nourish the neonate; the male reproductive system does not.
C) The male reproductive system produces gametes from puberty until death of the individual; the female reproductive system normally ceases gamete production during middle age.
D) All of the statements are correct.
163) Which of the following are functions that occur in both the male and female reproductive systems? (Check all that apply.)
A) Gamete production
B) Production of hormones
C) Nourish the developing gametes
D) Nourish and protect the developing embryo/fetus.
164) Which of the following events during cell division creates genetic variation amongst the gametes? (Check all that apply.)
A) Random assortment of chromosomes along the equatorial plane
B) Genetic exchange between chromatids of homologous chromosomes
C) Crossing over
D) Genetic exchange between chromatids of replicated chromosomes
165) When comparing oogenesis and spermatogenesis, which of the following is not true?
A) Both oogenesis and spermatogenesis produce four functional gametes.
B) Oogenesis and spermatogenesis produce haploid gametes.
C) The products of oogenesis and spermatogenesis have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D) Oogenesis and spermatogenesis begin in the gonads (ovaries and testes).
166) If 5 reproductive cells divide by meiosis, the total number of gametes produced in a male would be ________. The total number of gametes produced in a female would be ________.
A) 20; 5
B) 20; 10
C) 20; 20
D) 10; 5
167) Which of the following statements is true about gametogenesis in humans?
A) Gametogenesis produces haploid cells.
B) When considering one parent cell, spermatogenesis produces 4 functional gametes and oogenesis produces 2 functional gametes.
C) Gametogenesis is continuous throughout an individual's lifetime.
D) Gametogenesis ceases to occur around middle age in both males and females.
168) Damage to the ________ would greatly reduce the amount of nutrient molecules provided to sperm cells.
A) seminal vesicles
B) bulbourethral glands
C) prostate gland
D) membranous urethra
169) If the ________ were blocked due to scarring or surgical procedure, the fertilization of the ________ would be prevented.
A) uterine tube; secondary oocyte
B) uterine tube; ovum
C) uterus; primary oocyte
D) uterus; ovum
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Seeley’s Anatomy and Physiology 12e Complete Test Bank
By Cinnamon VanPutte