Ch11 Early Adulthood Test Questions Test Questions & Answers - Journey Across the Life Span 6e Complete Test Bank by Elaine U. Polan. DOCX document preview.

Ch11 Early Adulthood Test Questions Test Questions & Answers

Chapter 11. Early Adulthood – Test Questions

1. Early adulthood is a period of:

a.

Beginning decline

b.

Peak efficiency

c.

Increased illness

d.

Decreased cognitive ability

2. Forty-year-old Sarah complains that she is recently unable to see objects at close range. This condition is known as:

a.

Amblyopia

b.

Diplopia

c.

Presbyopia

d.

Strabismus

3. The most common type of hearing loss seen in the early adult years is:

a.

Low-frequency

b.

Mixed acoustic

c.

Close noises

d.

High-frequency

4. Which of the following is a cardiovascular change typical of early adulthood?

a.

Moderate increase in cardiac output

b.

Increased elasticity of the blood vessels

c.

Increased blood pressure

d.

Decreased muscle strength

5. John is diagnosed with skin cancer. The most common contributing factor is:

a.

Inadequate exposure to sunlight

b.

Decreased pigmentation in the skin

c.

Loss of collagen in skin cells

d.

Excessive exposure to ultraviolet light

6. Thirty-five-year-old Helen is 40 pounds overweight. Obesity is commonly associated with:

a.

Heart disease

b.

Osteoporosis

c.

Positive health outcomes

d.

Poor health promotion

7. During early adulthood, which of the following changes occurs in bone?

a.

Bone cell production ceases

b.

Bone continues to grow

c.

Bone cells get deposited at the site of injury

d.

Bone becomes large and overgrown

8. The muscles’ capacity for maximum work is best between which of the following ages?

a.

40 and 50

b.

30 and 40

c.

25 and 35

d.

35 and 40

9. As part of a pulmonary function test, the doctor measures vital capacity. Vital capacity refers to the lungs’ ability to:

a.

Retain air on expiration

b.

Hold an above normal capacity of air

c.

Move air in and out

d.

Hold maximum air capacity

10. The speed at which adults respond to a stimulus is called:

a.

Refraction time

b.

Reaction time

c.

Encoding

d.

Logging

11. In order for adults to reach their maximum capacity for sharing, they must have:

a.

Mastered sexuality

b.

Had an identity crisis

c.

Introspection

d.

Self-reliance

12. Sexism is defined by which of the following?

a.

Laws enacted to balance the interests of men and women

b.

Beliefs in the workplace that cause potential conflict between the sexes

c.

Attitudes that lead to discrimination against one sex

d.

Conflict with the line of authority

13. One of the characteristics of a mature friendship is:

a.

Admiration

b.

Opportunity

c.

Centrality

d.

Reciprocity

14. Intelligence tests measure:

a.

Unknown quantities

b.

Basic recall

c.

Unknown content

d.

Short-term memory

15. The most beneficial learning environment for the adult learner is one of:

a.

Open criticism

b.

Mistrust

c.

Minimal support

d.

Mutual respect

16. The motivating force for the adult learner is:

a.

Recognition

b.

Socialization

c.

Appropriateness

d.

Memory encoding

17. Which of the following has the highest risk of heart disease?

a.

A 36-year-old man with a cholesterol level of 210

b.

A 27-year-old patient whose dietary protein intake is 15% of the total intake

c.

A 40-year-old patient whose intake of fat is 50% of the daily intake

d.

A 20-year-old man on a vegetarian diet

18. Thirty-eight-year-old Sandra complains of insomnia. You would instruct her that in order to relieve the insomnia, it is best if she:

a.

Eats a high-fat meal 1/2 hour before sleep

b.

Exercises in the early afternoon

c.

Goes to bed only when she is tired

d.

Gets into bed and watches television

19. Resistance exercise is usually recommended in health promotion to provide:

a.

Increased muscle mass

b.

Increased cardiac output

c.

Decreased joint pain

d.

Increased muscle relaxation

20. Sally had her yearly Pap smear; the result is a class II. You would interpret this to mean that Sally:

a.

Has cancer of the uterus

b.

Has a normal smear

c.

Has atypical cells

d.

Has cancer of the ovary

21. Breast self-examination is best performed:

a.

Immediately after menstruation

b.

1 week after menstruation

c.

Immediately before menstruation

d.

1 week before menstruation

22. The most ideal form of birth control:

a.

Is expensive

b.

Is safe

c.

Suppresses uterine activity

d.

Increases gonadotropins

23. Women can expect a gradual decline in bone mass after age:

a.

20

b.

35

c.

18

d.

60

24. Which of the following is not a cause of increased muscle mass in men in the early adult period?

a.

Nutrition

b.

Exercise

c.

Testosterone

d.

Progesterone

25. The most common dental problem associated with the young adult is:

a.

Malaligned teeth

b.

Malocclusion

c.

Gingivitis

d.

Oral abscess

26. The leading cause of death from cancer in both men and women is:

a.

Lung cancer

b.

Leukemia

c.

AIDS

d.

Rectal cancer

27. The health care worker is discussing physical changes that occur in early adulthood with a group of patients. She is correct if she states the (select all that apply):

a. Brain size increases

b. Vital capacity increases

c. Bone mass peaks

d. Basal metabolic rate increases

e. Visual acuity declines

28. The nurse discussing diet and nutrition in the workplace with a group of women in their early adult years cautions them to decrease their intake of foods that contain cholesterol because this can lead to (select all that apply):

a. Deposits along the walls of the blood vessels

b. Blockage of blood flow to the heart

c. A heart attack

d. Lower blood sugar level

e. Reduced elasticity in the lungs

29. To prevent loss of bone mass, women are advised to get adequate amounts of which of the following vitamins in their diet?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

30. After a colonoscopy, a patient asks what she can do to lower her risk of colon cancer. You tell her research indicates she should eat more monounsaturated fats. Which of the following should she include in her diet?

a. Whole milk

b. Butter and cheese

c. Avocados

d. Red meat

Chapter 11. Early Adulthood – Test Questions With Answers and Rationales

1. Early adulthood is a period of:

a.

Beginning decline

b.

Peak efficiency

c.

Increased illness

d.

Decreased cognitive ability

Rationale: Body performance is at its optimal level of functioning during early adulthood.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

2. Forty-year-old Sarah complains that she is recently unable to see objects at close range. This condition is known as:

a.

Amblyopia

b.

Diplopia

c.

Presbyopia

d.

Strabismus

Rationale: Presbyopia is defined as the inability to see objects at close range.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

3. The most common type of hearing loss seen in the early adult years is:

a.

Low-frequency

b.

Mixed acoustic

c.

Close noises

d.

High-frequency

Rationale: High-frequency tones are lost first in the adult years.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

4. Which of the following is a cardiovascular change typical of early adulthood?

a.

Moderate increase in cardiac output

b.

Increased elasticity of the blood vessels

c.

Increased blood pressure

d.

Decreased muscle strength

Rationale: Maximum cardiac output is reached during ages 20 through 30.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

5. John is diagnosed with skin cancer. The most common contributing factor is:

a.

Inadequate exposure to sunlight

b.

Decreased pigmentation in the skin

c.

Loss of collagen in skin cells

d.

Excessive exposure to ultraviolet light

Rationale: Studies have shown that excessive, unprotected exposure to the sun and its ultraviolet rays is a major cause of skin cancer.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

6. Thirty-five-year-old Helen is 40 pounds overweight. Obesity is commonly associated with:

a.

Heart disease

b.

Osteoporosis

c.

Positive health outcomes

d.

Poor health promotion

Rationale: Obesity can place added demands and stress on the cardiovascular system, leading to heart disease.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

7. During early adulthood, which of the following changes occurs in bone?

a.

Bone cell production ceases

b.

Bone continues to grow

c.

Bone cells get deposited at the site of injury

d.

Bone becomes large and overgrown

Rationale: The typical response of bones to injury is to send bone cells to the injured site to start the healing process.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

8. The muscles’ capacity for maximum work is best between which of the following ages?

a.

40 and 50

b.

30 and 40

c.

25 and 35

d.

35 and 40

Rationale: Muscle performance is at its peak during the early adult period.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

9. As part of a pulmonary function test, the doctor measures vital capacity. Vital capacity refers to the lungs’ ability to:

a.

Retain air on expiration

b.

Hold an above normal capacity of air

c.

Move air in and out

d.

Hold maximum air capacity

Rationale: Vital capacity is defined as the ability of the lungs to move air in and out.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

10. The speed at which adults respond to a stimulus is called:

a.

Refraction time

b.

Reaction time

c.

Encoding

d.

Logging

Rationale: Reaction time is the amount of time it takes for a response to a stimulus.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

11. In order for adults to reach their maximum capacity for sharing, they must have:

a.

Mastered sexuality

b.

Had an identity crisis

c.

Introspection

d.

Self-reliance

Rationale: Introspection is a developed ability that permits insight and a sharing of thoughts.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

12. Sexism is defined by which of the following?

a.

Laws enacted to balance the interests of men and women

b.

Beliefs in the workplace that cause potential conflict between the sexes

c.

Attitudes that lead to discrimination against one sex

d.

Conflict with the line of authority

Rationale: Sexism is defined as the discrimination against another based on sexual identity.

Nursing Process: Evaluation

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

13. One of the characteristics of a mature friendship is:

a.

Admiration

b.

Opportunity

c.

Centrality

d.

Reciprocity

Rationale: Reciprocity is the ability to give and take in a relationship.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

14. Intelligence tests measure:

a.

Unknown quantities

b.

Basic recall

c.

Unknown content

d.

Short-term memory

Rationale: Most intelligence tests simply measure recall.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

15. The most beneficial learning environment for the adult learner is one of:

a.

Open criticism

b.

Mistrust

c.

Minimal support

d.

Mutual respect

Rationale: Adult learners need to be respected and valued to flourish and succeed.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

16. The motivating force for the adult learner is:

a.

Recognition

b.

Socialization

c.

Appropriateness

d.

Memory encoding

Rationale: Adults benefit from being recognized and valued. This serves to motivate their learning.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

17. Which of the following has the highest risk of heart disease?

a.

A 36-year-old man with a cholesterol level of 210

b.

A 27-year-old patient whose dietary protein intake is 15% of the total intake

c.

A 40-year-old patient whose intake of fat is 50% of the daily intake

d.

A 20-year-old man on a vegetarian diet

Rationale: High fat intake places a person at high risk of heart disease.

Nursing Process: Evaluation

Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

18. Thirty-eight-year-old Sandra complains of insomnia. You would instruct her that in order to relieve the insomnia, it is best if she:

a.

Eats a high-fat meal 1/2 hour before sleep

b.

Exercises in the early afternoon

c.

Goes to bed only when she is tired

d.

Gets into bed and watches television

Rationale: To promote good sleeping habits, it is suggested that adults use the bedroom for sleeping rather than watching television or reading.

Nursing Process: Implementation

Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

19. Resistance exercise is usually recommended in health promotion to provide:

a.

Increased muscle mass

b.

Increased cardiac output

c.

Decreased joint pain

d.

Increased muscle relaxation

Rationale: Exercise that uses resistance helps build muscle mass.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

20. Sally had her yearly Pap smear; the result is a class II. You would interpret this to mean that Sally:

a.

Has cancer of the uterus

b.

Has a normal smear

c.

Has atypical cells

d.

Has cancer of the ovary

Rationale: Class II Pap results indicate the presence of abnormal cells, which need further investigation.

Nursing Process: Evaluation

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

21. Breast self-examination is best performed:

a.

Immediately after menstruation

b.

1 week after menstruation

c.

Immediately before menstruation

d.

1 week before menstruation

Rationale: The best time to perform breast self-examination is about 1 week after menses, when hormonal stimulation has subsided.

Nursing Process: Implementation

Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

22. The most ideal form of birth control:

a.

Is expensive

b.

Is safe

c.

Suppresses uterine activity

d.

Increases gonadotropins

Rationale: Many methods of birth control are available. One must choose the method that is safest and promotes a healthy lifestyle.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

23. Women can expect a gradual decline in bone mass after age:

a.

20

b.

35

c.

18

d.

60

Rationale: Peak bone mass is attained by age 35.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

24. Which of the following is not a cause of increased muscle mass in men in the early adult period?

a.

Nutrition

b.

Exercise

c.

Testosterone

d.

Progesterone

Rationale: Muscle mass increases in men with increased testosterone, exercise, and enhanced diet.

Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

25. The most common dental problem associated with the young adult is:

a.

Malaligned teeth

b.

Malocclusion

c.

Gingivitis

d.

Oral abscess

Rationale: Gingivitis is caused by poor dental hygiene occurring over a period of time.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

26. The leading cause of death from cancer in both men and women is:

a.

Lung cancer

b.

Leukemia

c.

AIDS

d.

Rectal cancer

Rationale: Lung cancer related to smoking is the leading cause of death in both men and women.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

27. The health care worker is discussing physical changes that occur in early adulthood with a group of patients. She is correct if she states the (select all that apply):

  1. Brain size increases
  2. Vital capacity increases
  3. Bone mass peaks
  4. Basal metabolic rate increases
  5. Visual acuity declines

Rationale: During early adulthood, most body functions begin to decline, though bone mass is at its peak.

Nursing Process: Evaluation

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

28. The nurse discussing diet and nutrition in the workplace with a group of women in their early adult years cautions them to decrease their intake of foods that contain cholesterol because this can lead to (select all that apply):

  1. Deposits along the walls of the blood vessels
  2. Blockage of blood flow to the heart
  3. A heart attack
  4. Lower blood sugar level
  5. Reduced elasticity in the lungs

Rationale: Cholesterol intake leaves deposits on the walls of the blood vessels, causing narrowing and blockage of the flow of blood to the heart, which may cause a heart attack.

Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Health Promotion

29. To prevent loss of bone mass, women are advised to get adequate amounts of which of the following vitamins in their diet?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Rationale: Diets containing an adequate amount of vitamin D help maintain bone mass.

Nursing Process: Implementation

Client Needs: Health Promotion

30. After a colonoscopy, a patient asks what she can do to lower her risk of colon cancer. You tell her research indicates she should eat more monounsaturated fats. Which of the following should she include in her diet?

  1. Whole milk
  2. Butter and cheese
  3. Avocados
  4. Red meat

Rationale: Monounsaturated fats are found in canola, peanut, and olive oils; almonds; cashews; hazelnuts; and avocados.

Nursing Process: Implementation

Client Needs: Health Promotion

Document Information

Document Type:
DOCX
Chapter Number:
11
Created Date:
Aug 21, 2025
Chapter Name:
Chapter 11 Early Adulthood – Test Questions
Author:
Elaine U. Polan

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