2e Exam Questions Docx Test Bank Brand Management 2e full - Complete Test Bank | Brand Management Meaningful Brands 2e by Michael Beverland. DOCX document preview.
Test banks – Brand management: Co-creating brand meaning
Chapter 1: Brands and branding
1. What is not a characteristic of a brand?
a. To identify origin
b. A strong jingle
c. To communicate meaning
d. To differentiate one firm from another
2. The historic term for branding, brandr referred to which of the following?
a. To mark animals or captured humans
b. To burn one’s mark into, or stigmatize something
c. An early logo driven strategy
d. To identify one tribe from another
3. Why might consumers tattoo themselves with a brand logo?
a. To signal something to others
b. Because they love the brand
c. To gain power from the brand for personal transformation
d. All of these
4. The first American Marketing Association definition of a brand contains references to ______.
a. customers
b. stakeholders
c. co-creation
d. competitors
5. David Aaker’s brand definition is limited because it fails to mention ______.
a. competitors
b. symbols
c. differentiation
d. users
6. What characterizes strong brands?
a. Identification and distinction
b. Differentiation and value
c. Experience and meaning
d. All of these
7. Brand meaning is created by ______.
a. marketers
b. users
c. society
d. all of these
8. Since the late 1990s, how have metaphors for brand management have changed?
a. Greater emphasis has been placed on controlling the brand by marketers.
b. Greater emphasis has been placed on the inability of managers to control the brand.
c. Greater attention has been placed on interacting with users to shape meaning.
d. None of these.
9. If your brand is made fun of in a television series, which author in Holt’s model is shaping the brand’s meaning?
a. Influencers
b. Marketers
c. Consumers
d. Popular culture
10. Sid Levy was influential on the development of brand management. His main contribution is ______.
a. identifying that brands should stand for functional benefits
b. identifying that brands should represent a personality
c. identifying that brands signify higher-order meaning
d. identifying that creative advertising was critical for brands
11. Which sectors influenced the development of brand management models?
a. Advertising agencies
b. Financial markets
c. Academic researchers
d. All of these
12. It is said brands are co-created. What is not an example of co-creation?
a. Working directly with users to shape brand meaning
b. Undertaking research to understand users’ lives
c. Assuming the user will accept the brand’s identity as you communicate it
d. Tracking how users converse about the brand in fan forums online
13. Your manager says that the main job of a brand is to minimize consumer confusion. Which theoretical influence on branding underpins their statement?
a. Psychology
b. Sociology
c. Economics
d. Law
14. The psychological influence on brand management places emphasis on ______.
a. how groups of consumers co-create brand meaning
b. why individual consumers buy certain brands
c. how brand communities are created
d. how social class influences brand choices
15. Consumer culture theory focuses on understanding, ______.
a. What makes a brand cool?
b. What cues encourage users to buy brands?
c. How consumers use brands to achieve their identity goals?
d. None of these.
Chapter 2: Brand users
1. In middle-upper income economies consumers primarily buy brands for ______.
a. their reputation
b. their functional benefits
c. their country of origin image
d. their potential to say something about who we are
2. Belk’s idea of the extended self suggests ______.
a. we buy brands to impress others
b. we buy brands because they provide functional benefits
c. we buy brands because of their creative advertising
d. we buy brands because they say something about who we are
3. A consultant suggests your brand should act like a rebel. What approach of branding does this refer to?
a. The experiential approach
b. The identity approach
c. The personality approach
d. The consumer approach
4. The key insight of the service dominant logic of marketing on branding is ______.
a. services firms should be branded
b. users buy brands for the services they offer
c. manufacturers should also sell services
d. none of these
5. What are examples of liquid consumption?
a. Platform brands such as Air BnB and Uber
b. Soft drinks
c. Brands that change their meaning a lot
d. Buying brands to signal our wealth
6. Solid consumption is reflected in ______.
a. an emphasis on accessing things when needed
b. a focus on experiences
c. the belief that owning things is important
d. changing practices depending on context
7. A liquid approach to luxury branding would ______.
a. result in greater emphasis on the brand logo
b. require ownership of the most exclusive objects
c. see Uber invest in an upmarket service
d. associate status with access to critical networks
8. The belief that the brand should be engineered into all aspects of the marketing mix derives from which approach to branding?
a. Relational
b. Economic
c. Communal
d. Experiential
9. Themed flagship stores that immerse you in the brand’s identity represent which branding approach?
a. Cultural
b. Economic
c. Experiential
d. Relational
10. If you are encouraged to understand the user and their world, which approach to branding is being used?
a. Relational
b. Personality
c. Cultural
d. Communal
11. A consultant focused on ensuring that all of your firm’s visual assets look the same is drawing on what branding approach?
a. Identity
b. Personality
c. Relational
d. Communal
12. Some brands encourage events to build connections between users. What type of brand approach is this?
a. Cultural
b. Relational
c. Communal
d. Personality
13. Gillette’s recent campaign focused on challenging toxic masculinity is an example of what type of brand approach?
a. Experiential
b. Cultural
c. Personality
d. Communal
14. A brand’s strength is a function of how much the user knows about it. Which approach to branding does this represent?
a. Consumer-based
b. Personality
c. Economic
d. Relational
15. Examples of strong and deep, emotionally invested brand-relationship metaphors are ______.
a. best customer and abused spouse
b. neighbour
c. secret admirer and childhood buddy
d. fling and marriage partner
16. Customers jobs to be done refers to ______.
a. only functional needs
b. only emotional needs
c. any need
d. none of these
17. To identify jobs to be done, brand managers should look for which of the following?
a. Poorly solved problems
b. Things customers try to avoid
c. User innovations
d. All of these
18. What type of value is not relevant for co-creation of brand meaning?
a. Linking value
b. Exchange value
c. Symbolic value
d. Value in use
19. When someone claims that consumers buy a Makita power drill for the hole it will create, what type of value is being referred to?
a. Exchange value
b. Symbolic value
c. Value in use
d. Linking value
20. The communal brand model is primarily based on what form of value?
a. Linking value
b. Exchange value
c. Use value
d. Symbolic value
21. Luxury brands primarily sell themselves on what type of value?
a. Exchange value
b. Use value
c. Symbolic value
d. Linking value
22. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Brands do not matter in B2B markets because buyers choose the cheapest option.
b. Branding in B2B is not relevant because B2B purchases are too complex when compared to B2C.
c. B2B buyers are solely motivated by rational concerns.
d. B2B buyers will buy brands because of the complexity of their needs.
23. Authenticity is believed to be essential to co-creation. Does this refer to ______.
a. that brand claims are true
b. the desire of millennials for simplicity
c. a sense that the brand feels true, to me
d. that only brands which have a social conscious will be successful
24. Examples of motivated reasoning include ______.
a. removing someone from your social media page who you do not agree with
b. claims by your critics that you are peddling fake news
c. dismissing evidence that does not confirm your view
d. all of these
25. An authenticating act involves which of the following?
a. Doing something that truly reflects who you are
b. Unquestionably following cultural traditions
c. Trying to fit in with others, regardless of whether you think they are right
d. None of these
26. An authoritative performance involves which of the following?
a. Buying brands to stand out among the crowd
b. Buying brands you do not like but that conform to society’s expectations
c. Being an expert
d. None of these
27. Someone tells you that you need to buy the brand Vans to be a true skateboarder. You don’t like the brand, but buy them anyway. Is this an example of?
a. An authoritative performance
b. Self-authentication
c. An authenticating act
d. Brand equity
28. Someone tells you that you need to buy the brand Vans to be a true skateboarder. You don’t like the brand, but buy them anyway. Is this an example of?
a. Authenticity as consistency
b. Authenticity as conformity
c. Authenticity as connection
d. All of these
29. In No Logo, Naomi Klein suggested brands were inauthentic because they did not live their principles. What type of authenticity is being referred to here?
a. Authenticity as conformity
b. Authenticity as connection
c. Authenticity as consistency
d. Self-authentication
30. Kat von D suffered a fan backlash when see suggested her new born child would not be vaccinated. What type of authenticity does this backlash concern?
a. Authenticity as connection
b. Authenticating act
c. Authenticity as consistency
d. Authenticity as conformity
31. The brand Shinola Detroit has been accused of not being made in Detroit. What type of authenticity does this refer to?
a. Authenticity as connection
b. Authenticity as conformity
c. Authenticity as consistency
d. All of these
32. Invisible brands refer to which of the following?
a. Brands we cannot see
b. Weak brands
c. Brands that have little web presence
d. Ordinary everyday brands we take for granted
Chapter 3: Brand equity
1. Brand equity refers to which of the following?
a. How much the brand is worth when we sell it
b. The value of the brand to the user
c. The value of the brand on the firm’s balance sheet
d. All of these
2. Brands are valuable to firms because ______.
a. they are intangible assets
b. they add to the firm’s prestige
c. they are part of any firm’s strategic tool kit
d. they make employees feel better
3. The financial value of a brand is determined by which of the following?
a. The amount of revenue that can be attributed to the brand
b. The strategic outlook for the brand
c. The strength of the consumer-brand relationship
d. All of these
4. Advertisers said they would never again advertise in UK paper News of the World, after a scandal. Is the equity of News of the World ______.
a. low
b. falling
c. high
d. negative
5. Brand equity implies which of the following?
a. That the brand has a strong logo
b. That the brand team invests in advertising
c. The brand makes a difference to key stakeholders
d. None of these
6. Customer-based brand equity refers to which of the following?
a. How many people buy the brand
b. How customers talk about the brand online
c. Whether the brand is relevant to millennials
d. The strength of the customer-brand relationship
7. Keller’s customer-based brand equity model identifies we should build brands by doing which of the following?
a. Raising brand awareness
b. Converting aided recognition into unaided recall
c. Building a strong relationship with a category of need
d. All of these
8. The customer-based brand equity model suggests brands are built in steps. Which step is the responsibility of the marketer?
a. Resonance
b. Feelings
c. Salience
d. Judgements
9. The customer-based brand equity model suggests that brand equity is a function of brand image. What does this refer to?
a. Brand associations
b. Recognition
c. Recall
d. Awareness
10. Brand knowledge is important to building brand equity. What are examples of strategies to build knowledge?
a. Advertising functional benefits
b. Campaigns that use liked-celebrities
c. Flagship stores that bring the brand to life
d. All of these
11. Which of the following is a benefit of high channel brand equity?
a. Improved consumer-brand image
b. The ability to charge higher prices
c. Better support from retailers
d. None of these
12. Customer-based brand equity leads to which of the following?
a. Higher price premiums
b. Higher share price
c. Stronger revenue streams
d. All of these
13. Which of the following reflect weak employee brand equity?
a. High turnover among talented staff
b. Lower salaries
c. Lower acquisition costs
d. Stronger representation on university campus job fairs.
14. Influencers prefer brands that do which of the following?
a. Reflect their image
b. Connect to their fans
c. Enhance their audience
d. All of these
15. Popular culture can enhance the equity of a brand through which of the following?
a. Make the brand more attractive to employees
b. Provide licensing fees to the brand
c. Provide free coverage
d. Enhance its cultural authenticity
16. Which of the following are benefits of branding to firms?
a. Improved return on investment
b. Improved sales leads
c. Improved likelihood of innovation success
d. All of these
17. Which of the following benefits of brands helps sales managers?
a. Emotional brand associations
b. Return on investment
c. Marketing pull
d. Lower employee acquisition costs
18. Which of the following benefits of brands helps human resources managers?
a. Emotional brand associations
b. Return on investment
c. Marketing pull
d. Lower employee acquisition costs
19. Which of the following benefits of brands helps operations managers?
a. Higher buyer power
b. Marketing pull
c. Lower employee acquisition costs
d. Higher prices
20. Which of the following benefits of brands helps finance managers?
a. Higher buyer power
b. Employee retention
c. Higher margins
d. Marketing pull
21. Kodak was one of the strongest consumer brands in the 20th century but subsequently has declined in equity due to a failure to move from analog to digital photography. Using Young & Rubicam’s brand asset valuator, define Kodak’s problem.
a. The brand is high on both stature and vitality.
b. The brand is high on stature and low on vitality.
c. The brand is low in stature and high on vitality.
d. The brand is low in both stature and vitality.
22. According to Young & Rubicam’s Brand Asset Valuator model, a brand that is low in stature is suffering deficits in which of the following?
a. Relevance
b. Differentiation
c. Esteem
d. Influencer support
23. According to Young & Rubicam’s Brand Asset Valuator model, brand that is low in vitality is suffering deficits in which of the following?
a. Relevance
b. Knowledge
c. Esteem
d. Influencer support
24. When a critic suggests a mobile phone brand rates poorly on battery life relative to its competitors, what brand equity lever are they referring to?
a. Points of difference
b. Awareness
c. Brand image
d. Points of parity
25. The Volvo brand is rated high, relative to its competitors, on safety and the environment. What brand equity levers do these refer to?
a. Awareness
b. Points of parity
c. Points of difference
d. Recall
26. A brand judged high in character and low in improvisation is classified as which of the following?
a. Poseur
b. Authentic
c. Aloof
d. Nascent
27. A brand judged low in character and low in improvisation is classified as which of the following?
a. Poseur
b. Authentic
c. Aloof
d. Nascent
28. A brand judged high in character and high in improvisation is classified as which of the following?
a. Poseur
b. Authentic
c. Aloof
d. Nascent
29. A brand judged low in character and high in improvisation is classified as which of the following?
a. Poseur
b. Authentic
c. Aloof
d. Nascent
30. A poseur brand suffers from what type of deficit?
a. Authenticity as consistency
b. Authenticity as connection
c. Authenticity as conformity
d. All of these
31. An aloof brand suffers from what type of deficit?
a. Authenticity as consistency
b. Authenticity as connection
c. Authenticity as conformity
d. None of these
32. An aloof brand can overcome its authenticity deficit through which of the following strategies?
a. Investing in brand storytelling
b. Investing in brand purpose
c. Investing in public relations
d. Reinforcing commitment to the past
33. A poseur brand can overcome its authenticity deficit through which of the following strategies?
a. Investing in brand storytelling
b. Investing in brand purpose
c. Investing in new categories
d. Connecting to the latest social media influencer
34. A nascent brand can overcome its authenticity deficit through which of the following strategies?
a. Consistency, connection and conformity
b. Connection, conformity and consistency
c. Conformity, connection and consistency
d. Conformity, consistency and connection
35. Based on the Kodak case in the text, how would you classify the brand?
a. Poseur
b. Authentic
c. Nascent
d. Aloof
Chapter 4: Data, insights and measurement
1. What are measures of brand equity?
a. Financial valuation measures such as Brandz
b. Measures of top of mind awareness, recall and recognition
c. Tracking of core associations
d. All of these
2. Keller’s brand scorecard measures the brand’s performance on the following questions?
a. Brand coolness
b. Brand relevance
c. Brand authenticity
d. Brand stature
3. Using Keller’s brand scorecard, how would you measure whether a brand excels at delivering customer benefits?
a. Whether the brand provides linking value
b. Whether the brand provides signalling value
c. Whether the brand provides use value
d. All of these
4. Using Keller’s brand scorecard, how would you assess if the brand was properly positioned?
a. Whether the brand promise is consistent
b. Whether the brand promise has a clear social purpose
c. Whether the brand promise is distinct, different and deliverable
d. None of these
5. Using the brand asset valuator, how would you classify the Kodak brand (covered in Chapter 3)?
a. New or unfocused
b. Niche
c. Leadership
d. Commoditization
6. When you ask consumers to list down all the brands they know within a category, what are you measuring?
a. Recognition
b. Top of mind awareness
c. Commoditization
d. Recall
7. When you show consumers a list of brands in a category and ask if they know any of them, what are you measuring?
a. Recognition
b. Top of mind awareness
c. Commoditization
d. Recall
8. The first brand a consumer lists when asked to write down all the brands they know within a category represents what?
a. Brand salience
b. Top of mind awareness
c. Recall
d. Aided recognition
9. Top of mind awareness is a measure of what?
a. Your preferred brand in the category
b. Your gut feeling of a brand’s relationship to the category
c. A brand you hold strong feelings about
d. All of these
10. Aided recall is a weak form of salience. Is it of no value?
a. No, it shows your marketing is working.
b. Yes, the consumer knows nothing about your brand.
c. No, the consumer is just faced with too much choice.
d. Yes, why waste any more time on this brand.
11. When a brand is said to be commoditized, what does this refer to?
a. The brand is sold everywhere.
b. The brand has reached the pinnacle of equity.
c. The user associates the brand with a narrow functional need.
d. All of these.
12. How can a brand avoid becoming commoditized?
a. Educate consumers to ask for the brand name of the product
b. Sue competitors for copying their brand
c. Innovate to broaden the brand’s meaning
d. All of these
13. Assessments of how cool you brand is represent which of the following?
a. An important measure of equity
b. How your target market views your brand
c. A judgement of brand authenticity
d. None of these
14. Measuring brand associations involves which of the following?
a. Only quantitative research
b. Only qualitative research
c. Qualitative followed by quantitative research
d. Quantitative followed by qualitative research
15. The Zaltman metaphor elicitation technique (ZMET) is which of the following?
a. Survey
b. Ethnography
c. Conjoint analysis
d. Projective technique
16. The Zaltman metaphor elicitation technique (ZMET) proposes which of the following?
a. That consumers think in images not words
b. That asking consumers what they think of brand will not elicit deep knowledge structures?
c. Photos enable the user to communicate subconsciously held information about their brand-relationship
d. All of these
17. Qualitative research is useful because it does what?
a. Identifies how many users like your brand
b. Generates user-driven insights about the brand
c. Enables you to measure differences between brands
d. Enables you to track the brand’s performance
18. Quantitative research is useful because it does what?
a. Enables you to measure differences between brands
b. Generates interesting stories about the brand
c. Helps consumers access subconsciously held information
d. None of these
19. Which qualitative tool is both effective and efficient for brand managers in identifying associations?
a. Ethnography
b. Focus groups
c. Netnography
d. Projective techniques
20. Quantitative measures of brand associations must do which of the following?
a. Measure how users view the brand across a large sample
b. Compare your brand against its competitors
c. Collect demographic information on users
d. All of these
21. Ethnography is useful for brand managers because ______.
a. it generates quick insights
b. it enables you to test brand ideas
c. it is naturalistic and less subject to researcher bias
d. none of these
22. Ethnography is less valuable for brand managers because ______.
a. it is naturalistic and less subject to researcher bias
b. it is cheap and easy
c. it generates quick results
d. it is unpredictable and time-consuming
23. Social influence bias effects focus groups. What does this refer to?
a. Few people want to talk up in public
b. The moderator can lead attendees towards a certain answer
c. People turn up solely for a fee and say anything
d. Attendees may simply go along with the views of one or two members in order to avoid conflict
24. Netnography is valuable because ______.
a. so much data can be accessed at once
b. it is easier than ethnography
c. it is more modern than ethnography and will impress managers
d. it enables one to look back, identifying key episodes, thereby making it more efficient than ethnography
25. Conjoint analysis is useful for what type of decisions?
a. Identifying how popular your brand is
b. Trade-offs between user benefits
c. Measuring brand associations
d. None of these
26. What does brand tracking provide brand managers with?
a. A signal of expertise
b. Comparative performance on key brand associations
c. A health check of the brand
d. All of these
27. Encouraging users to ‘like’ a brand post on social media is an example of what type of engagement?
a. Behavioural
b. Cognitive
c. Emotional
d. All of these
28. Helping users get more out of their brand through education sessions or videos encourages what type of engagement?
a. Behavioural
b. Cognitive
c. Emotional
d. All of these
29. Humorous advertising is an attempt to trigger what type of engagement?
a. Behavioural
b. Cognitive
c. Emotional
d. All of these
30. Sentiment analysis is a tool to understand what about the brand?
a. How users talk about the brand
b. How non-users represent the brand and its users
c. The strength of feeling towards the brand
d. All of these
31. Measuring brand authenticity involves scales that assess the brand on which of the following?
a. Heritage
b. Popularity
c. Integrity
d. None of these
32. Which of the following are big data tools?
a. Behavioural analytics
b. Data mining
c. Real time analytics
d. All of these
33. Why are brand managers encouraged to monitor fringe ideas r conversations?
a. To identify any doppelganger threats
b. To identify sources for cultural brand innovation
c. To identify un-predicted brand-related conversations
d. All of these
Chapter 5: Creating new brands
1. Building internal support for the brand involves three steps. What are they?
a. Tracking, understanding brand logic, internal launch
b. External launch, brand research, positioning
c. Positioning, build a brand team, internal by-in
d. Understanding brand logic, gaining internal buy-in, building a brand team
2. Understanding a brand logic involves what form of analysis?
a. Reviewing definitions of branding
b. Analysing costs vs benefits
c. SWOT analysis
d. Exploring whether a differential effect is possible
3. Gaining internal buy-in is critical to building a brand. How should one do this?
a. Conduct research that identifies consumers want a brand
b. Identify how competitors all have brands
c. Identify a range of non-marketing related benefits of branding
d. None of these
4. When building a brand team, is it important to ______.
a. put together a team who have influence and power
b. put yourself in charge of the brand program
c. put together a team consisting solely of marketing staff
d. all of these
5. Who should be in a brand team?
a. People with influence in the boardroom
b. People who can influence others within the firm
c. Local champions
d. All of these
6. The first step of building brand foundations involves brand research. What do you conduct research on?
a. Loyalist users
b. Target users
c. Brand and founder backstory
d. All of these
7. What research is necessary for building a strong position?
a. User jobs to be done
b. Competitors
c. Firm capabilities
d. All of these
8. What does positioning involve?
a. Defining the brand according to user needs
b. Developing a strong logo
c. Developing an identity for the brand that will endure
d. Developing a creative social media campaign
9. After developing a position, you should launch the brand by ______.
a. developing a marketing campaign and communicating with target users
b. conducting a series of press releases about your brand benefits
c. launching internally to train staff on what the brand means
d. launching carefully in a small test market
10. Positioning involves answering which of the following big questions?
a. Who are you?
b. What do you do?
c. Why does it matter?
d. All of these
11. A brand position must meet four tests. What are they?
a. Relevance, consistency, awareness and improvisation
b. Character, deliverability, authenticity and awareness
c. Relevance, differentiation, deliverability and authenticity
d. None of these
12. Positioning research involves two key things – what are they?
a. User needs and brand heritage
b. User and ideological frames of reference
c. Unique selling points
d. Gaps in the market
13. The user frame of reference is useful for making which key decisions?
a. Identifying the user need
b. Identifying competitors serving that need
c. Identifying relevant capabilities
d. All of these
14. How is the ideological frame of reference generated?
a. Employing an agency to identify what is important to younger consumers
b. An external analysis to identify important trends
c. Research that delves into the firm’s backstory and its image with key stakeholders
d. All of these
15. To launch a brand one needs to communicate with users. Which strategy should you adopt?
a. Define a very narrow target and aim to make them fanatically loyal
b. Market to as many users as possible
c. Define the brand’s position with broad appeal
d. Initially target one group and then aim to build the brand’s appeal to all users within the category
16. What type of segmentation should one use for branding?
a. Demographics
b. Behavioural
c. Psychographics
d. Gut feel
17. What considerations go into choosing a segment?
a. Potential profitability
b. Under-served markets
c. Ability to win
d. All of these
18. What is a benefit of a user persona?
a. Designers like them
b. They represent a real person
c. They help bring the user to life and can guide decision making
d. They are a fashionable new technique
19. User personas contain a number of things. Which of the following are not included?
a. Quotes from users
b. A description of their day-to-day life
c. Only positive characteristics
d. A few salient features that define them
20. To avoid marketing myopia we should define our competitors in which of the following ways?
a. Those firms currently in our category
b. A historical analysis of our main competitors
c. According to the user frame of reference
d. According to key functional criteria
21. Some ideas are common to many brand positions. Which of the following is a strong idea?
a. Relevance
b. Innovation
c. Trust
d. None of these
22. What is a simple test for determining a good idea for a brand position?
a. That it feels good to the team
b. That it has a workable opposite
c. It upsets no one
d. None of these
23. Once defined, what role does the brand position play?
a. It is placed in a prominent place for everyone to view
b. It is communicated directly to users as written
c. It influences everything the brand does
d. It is put in a marketing plan as a formality
24. Firms must build brand assets to communicate to users. What are these assets?
a. Logos and slogans
b. Characters and design language
c. Packaging and labelling
d. All of these
25. How does one measure brand assets?
a. By whether consumers recognize them?
b. By their fame and uniqueness
c. By the awards and praise they receive
d. None of these
26. If a brand asset is high on fame and low on uniqueness, what options do you have?
a. Focus on sole use to build up awareness
b. Avoid solo use
c. Lose it altogether
d. Ignore it
27. If a brand asset is low on fame and high on uniqueness, what options do you have?
a. Remove it
b. Test it further
c. Invest it in
d. None of these
28. Should brand managers emphasize fame or uniqueness when dealing with individual brand assets?
a. Uniqueness
b. Fame
c. Aim for balance
d. Maximise both
29. What are some key considerations in choosing a brand name?
a. That it reflects the brand position
b. That is can be protected
c. That it is memorable
d. All of these
30. What type of brand name is Nike?
a. Fabricated
b. Metaphorical
c. Antonym
d. Descriptive
31. What type of brand name is Apple?
a. Fabricated
b. Metaphorical
c. Antonym
d. Descriptive
32. How does a brand manager externally communicate the brand’s position?
a. Through a personality or archetype
b. Through a tagline
c. Through a logo
d. All of these
33. What is the main strength of Apple’s ‘Think Different’ slogan?
a. It is unique.
b. It is different.
c. It is short.
d. It is protected.
34. What is the main strength of IBM’s ‘Imagination at work’ slogan?
a. It is unique.
b. It is different.
c. It is short.
d. It is free from negative connotations.
35. Logos are an essential brand asset. What things define a good logo?
a. It never changes over time
b. It’s colour
c. Uncluttered
Created by a famous designer
Chapter 6: Brand consistency
1. A realized brand strategy is a combination of what?
a. What you planned all along
b. Planned and emergent strategy
c. Planned, emergent and unrealized strategy
d. None of these
2. Why do brand managers argue that brands are built from the inside out?
a. Because it gives them more power
b. Without internal consistency it is difficult to deliver on brand promises
c. Because brands are designed and controlled by marketers
d. All of these
3. Consistency involves alignment between customers/stakeholders, employees and the organization. How does one align employees and the organization?
a. Internal marketing
b. Interactive marketing
c. External marketing
d. All of these
4. Consistency involves alignment between customers/stakeholders, employees and the organization. How does one align employees and customers/stakeholders?
a. Internal marketing
b. Interactive marketing
c. External marketing
d. All of these
5. Consistency involves alignment between customers/stakeholders, employees and the organization. How does one align customer/stakeholders and the organization?
a. Internal marketing
b. Interactive marketing
c. External marketing
d. All of these
6. Consistency involves closing three gaps. When external stakeholders see the brand differently to how the firm defines it, what gap is this?
a. Culture-identity
b. Culture-image
c. Identity-image
d. None of these
7. Consistency involves closing three gaps. When employees see the brand differently to how the firm defines it, what gap is this?
a. Culture-identity
b. Culture-image
c. Identity-image
d. None of these
8. Consistency involves closing three gaps. When employees see the brand differently to external stakeholders, what gap is this?
a. Culture-identity
b. Culture-image
c. Identity-image
d. None of these
9. Why do gaps between the brand’s image and its identity emerge?
a. Firms fail to deliver on promises to customers
b. The brand’s marketing is inconsistent with the brand’s identity
c. The brand’s users do not fit the identity
d. All of these
10. Why do gaps between the brand’s image and the firm’s culture emerge?
a. The firm’s marketing is not working correctly
b. Staff have little connection with users
c. The brand’s users do not fit the identity
d. All of these
11. Why do gaps between the brand’s identity and firm culture emerge?
a. The brand’s marketing is not working correctly
b. The brand’s users do not fit the identity
c. Employees are not rewarded for on-brand behaviour
d. Firms fail to deliver on promises to customers
12. What is involved in a brand audit?
a. Market research on customers
b. An assessment of all firm activities and practices
c. Internal events to sell the brand to employees
d. None of these
13. A customer journey analysis involves examining which of the following?
a. How customers are recruited
b. How customer problems are dealt with
c. Touchpoints where the customer engages with the firm
d. All of these
14. Stakeholders are important for ensuring consistency. Who would fit into a normative stakeholder group?
a. Customers
b. Suppliers
c. Media
d. Regulatory agencies
15. Stakeholders are important for ensuring consistency. Who would fit into a functional stakeholder group?
a. Customers
b. Suppliers
c. Media
d. Regulatory agencies
16. What tools can help align stakeholder image with the brand’s identity?
a. Internal dialogue between managers of different functions
b. Engaging with external critics
c. Dialogue between managers and stakeholders
d. All of these
17. Southwest Airlines founder Herb Kelleher stated that if you look after employees, everything else will follow. In relation to brand consistency, what does Kelleher’s statement refer to?
a. Brand purpose
b. Internal branding
c. Brand positioning
d. Brand storytelling
18. What activities of the firm should be considered when developing an internal branding strategy?
a. The brand’s advertising
b. The brand’s outreach activities
c. Logo design
d. Brand tracking
19. Brand storytelling is believed to be useful in co-creating meaning. Do you agree?
a. No, facts are more important than stories.
b. No, stories get in the way of core messages.
c. Yes, stories make facts more powerful.
d. None of these.
20. A signature story involves which of the following?
a. Images of a brand founder signing an advertisement
b. Claims of functional product benefits
c. A narrative that helps clarify the brand’s long-term vision
d. A humorous social media campaign
21. Authenticity is said to occur when the customer can place themselves in the brand’s story. What aspect of storytelling enables this?
a. Humour
b. Clear functional benefits
c. Narrative transportation
d. None of these
22. What makes for a good brand story?
a. A celebrity spokesperson
b. Modern music
c. A strong social stance
d. A sense of intrigue
23. What is the main purpose of brand drive marketing communications?
a. To drive immediate sales
b. To strengthen brand assets
c. To make the brand seem cool
d. None of these
24. You watch an advertisement that makes you feel good but has no clear hard sell message. What is this an example of?
a. Advertising creatives trying to win awards
b. An organization needing to spend unused marketing budget
c. Low attention emotional processing
d. Brand purpose
25. Brand communication campaigns should do which of the following?
a. Trigger short-term sales
b. Build the brand over the long term
c. Build short-term sales and build the brand
d. Trigger social media likes
26. What does integrated marketing communications refer to?
a. That marketing communications tools should work together
b. That marketing communication tools should all say the same thing
c. That one should use less marketing communication tools to be efficient
d. None of these
27. What stage of the customer journey should advertising be used?
a. Consideration
b. Buy
c. Bonding
d. Advocate
28. What stage of the customer journey should sales promotion be used?
a. Consideration
b. Buy
c. Bonding
d. Advocate
29. What stage of the customer journey should direct marketing be used?
a. Consideration
b. Buy
c. Experience
d. Advocate
30. What stage of the customer journey should sponsorship be used?
a. Advocate
b. Buy
c. Bonding
d. None of these
31. The cultural meaning transfer model seeks to what for brands?
a. Make the brand cool
b. Add new associations to the brand
c. Reach new users
d. All of these
32. A website for your favourite brand provides workshops on how to use the brand more effectively. What type of experiential strategy is this?
a. Educational
b. Aesthetic
c. Escapist
d. Entertainment
33. Yamaha’s Innovation Road that provides insights into the brand’s history and its collection of products (which you cannot touch) represents what type experience?
a. Educational
b. Aesthetic
c. Escapist
d. Entertainment
34. What campaign strategy helps enhance your brand’s sincerity?
a. Downplaying, connecting and immersion
b. Connection, immersion and downplaying
c. Downplaying, connecting and alignment
d. Downplaying, connecting, alignment and immersion
35. What campaign strategy helps enhance your brand’s connections to culture?
a. Downplaying, connecting and immersion
b. Connection, immersion and downplaying
c. Downplaying, connecting and alignment
d. Downplaying, connecting, alignment and immersion
36. What campaign strategy helps enhance your brand’s realness?
a. Downplaying, connecting and immersion
b. Connection, immersion and downplaying
c. Downplaying, connecting and alignment
d. Downplaying, connecting, alignment and immersion
37. What campaign strategy helps enhance your brand’s timelessness?
a. Downplaying, connecting and immersion
b. Connection, immersion and downplaying
c. Downplaying, connecting and alignment
d. Downplaying, connecting, alignment and immersion
38. What campaign strategy helps enhance your brand’s coherence?
a. Downplaying, connecting and immersion
b. Connection, immersion and downplaying
c. Downplaying, connecting and alignment
d. Downplaying, connecting, alignment and immersion
39. What cues/codes help achieve connections to culture?
a. Empathy
b. Status
c. Culture, time and place
d. None of these
40. What cues/codes help achieve sincerity?
a. Empathy
b. Status
c. Membership
d. All of these
41. What cues/codes help achieve realness?
a. Empathy
b. Status
c. Culture, time and place
d. All of these
42. What cues/codes help achieve timelessness?
a. Crafting
b. Status
c. Culture, time and place
d. All of these
Chapter 7: Managing brand growth
1. Growing the brand by expanding its presence and reach reflects what type of logic?
a. Radical innovation
b. Exploitation
c. Exploration
d. Design thinking
2. What type of logic is a line extension?
a. Exploitation
b. Exploration
c. Disruptive innovation
d. None of these
3. Adding a high-priced version of your existing product line is what type of extension?
a. Co-branding
b. Category extension
c. Line extension
d. None of these
4. A supermarket wants to offer banking services. What type of extension is this?
a. Co-branding
b. Category extension
c. Line extension
d. None of these
5. Why do organizations extend their brands?
a. To growth sales
b. To keep the brand relevant
c. To recoup investment
d. All of these
6. What are the dangers of a line extension?
a. Could dilute parent brand equity
b. High risk of failure
c. Could narrow brand meaning
d. None of these
7. What are the dangers of category extension?
a. Could dilute parent brand equity
b. High risk of failure
c. Could narrow brand meaning
d. None of these
8. What are the benefits of category extension?
a. Leverage brand capabilities
b. Expand the brand’s meaning
c. Gain greater efficiencies in resource use
d. All of these
9. What are the benefits of line extension?
a. Increase sales
b. Lower risk of failure
c. Could expand brand meaning
d. All of these
10. Brand extensions are dangerous because they can dilute parent brand equity. Is this true or false?
a. True
b. False
c. True, but only for failed category extensions
d. True, but only for failed line extensions
11. Brand extensions are dangerous because they can cannibalise sales. Is this true or false?
a. True
b. False
c. True, but only for category extensions
d. True, but only for line extensions
12. What does cognitive fit refer to?
a. Whether the extension is authentic
b. Whether the extension makes me think
c. Whether the extension makes sense in relation to parent brand image
d. None of these
13. What does brand extension authenticity refer to?
a. Whether the extension is sincerely motivated?
b. Whether the extension makes sense in relation to the parent brand?
c. Whether the extension makes me think
d. None of these
14. What drives brand extension authenticity?
a. The extension is cheaper than parent
b. The extension is more expensive than the parent
c. The extension grows sales
d. The extension sustains the brand’s essence
15. Fighter brands are used to achieve what goal?
a. To take the brand into luxury markets
b. To make the parent brand appear stronger
c. To protect the brand against low price competitors
d. None of these
16. What is an important objective for a line extension?
a. Growth in users
b. Enhanced brand equity
c. Increased usage situations
d. All of these
17. You work for a luxury fashion brand. You receive an email from another manager of a luxury fashion brand proposing a co-branded range. What do you do?
a. Agree to the co-branding opportunity
b. Turn the manager down because co-brands are risky
c. Turn the brand manager down because the cobrand is likely to offer nothing new to consumers
d. None of these
18. As a luxury fashion brand manager, you receive an email proposing a cobrand from your counterpart at Supreme, a cult shoe brand. What do you do?
a. Reject the offer as the cobrand would undermine your luxury status
b. Accept the offer as both brands will benefit from this association
c. Reject the offer as co-brands are risky
d. Turn the brand manager down as the cobrand offers nothing new to consumers
19. When co-brands work, they have which of the following outcomes?
a. They benefit one partner at the expense of the other
b. Both brands gain from the relationship as their image is enhanced
c. Increased market share
d. Increased prices
20. Stella McCartney partnered with H&M. McCartney is a luxury brand known for championing sustainability whereas H&M is known for low price, unsustainable fast fashion. What is likely to be the outcome for the co-branded range?
a. McCartney will be seen as younger and more fashionable while H&M will be seen as more sustainable
b. Consumers will reject the cobrand as it makes no sense
c. The H&M connection will dilute the luxury position of McCartney
d. The McCartney connection will dilute the value position of H&M
21. Prior to its name change, the Cass Business School identified as Cass Business School with City University of London placed under it in smaller type font. What type of architecture strategy is this?
a. Different identity
b. Shadow endorser
c. Linked name
d. Token endorsement
22. Beats by Dre is what type of architecture strategy?
a. Token endorsement
b. Shadow endorser
c. Strong endorsement
d. Co-driver
23. What are the benefits of a house of brands strategy?
a. Efficiency
b. Cross selling
c. Tap into loyal customers
d. Alternative positionings of different brands
24. What are the benefits of a branded house?
a. Alternative positionings of different brands?
b. Can appeal to lots of segments in the same category
c. Ability to cross sell
d. None of these
25. When a branded house acquires another brand, what should it do?
a. Use endorsement strategies to signal ownership change without upsetting loyal customers
b. Turn the acquired brand into the branded house immediately
c. Keep the brand separate forever
d. Develop a new brand identity for the house
26. The downsides of a branded house strategy are?
a. You cannot cross sell
b. Consumers want choice, not one brand
c. If the brand suffers a crisis, the whole group suffers
d. All of these
27. The downsides of a house of brands strategy are?
a. If the brand suffers a crisis, the whole group suffers
b. You cannot cross sell
c. Too many brands confuses consumers
d. None of these
28. What disadvantages does a house of brands strategy have against a branded house?
a. Too much choice confuses consumers
b. A lack of clear positioning
c. Being unable to concentrate marketing resources into one brand
d. All of these
29. What disadvantages does a branded house have against a house of brands?
a. Consumers like choice
b. Retailers prefer more brands to one
c. Different brands can reach different needs
d. None of these
30. Why are some house of brands reducing the size of their portfolio?
a. They want to become a branded house
b. The want to increase opportunities for cross selling
c. It frees up resources to invest in star brands and new categories
d. None of these
Chapter 8: Brand relevance
1. What does the traditional approach to balancing relevance and consistency advise?
a. Stay on brand at all times, change is dangerous
b. Keep your tactics consistent and your position relevant
c. Keep your position consistent and your tactics relevant
d. Change whenever you need to
2. To keep brands relevant, brand managers have to pay attention to three levels of change. The emergence of political populism is an example of what level?
a. Macro
b. Meso
c. Micro
d. None of these
3. To keep brands relevant, brand managers have to pay attention to three levels of change. Changes in the brand’s product line represent which level?
a. Macro
b. Meso
c. Micro
d. None of these
4. To keep brands relevant, brand managers have to pay attention to three levels of change. The emergence of new retail channels is an example of what level?
a. Macro
b. Meso
c. Micro
d. None of these
5. Failure to maintain brand relevance leads to brand authenticity decline. What is the likely outcome for the brand?
a. Nascent brand
b. Poseur brand
c. Authentic brand
d. Aloof brand
6. If a brand emphasizes relevance at the expense of consistency, what is the likely outcome for its authenticity?
a. Nascent brand
b. Poseur brand
c. Authentic brand
d. Aloof brand
7. Innovation should be brand driven. What types of brands emphasize radical innovation that drives markets?
a. Follower brands
b. Creative brands
c. Heritage brands
d. Share leaders
8. Innovation should be brand driven. What types of brands emphasize incremental innovation that drives markets?
a. Follower brands
b. Creative brands
c. Heritage brands
d. Share leaders
9. Innovation should be brand driven. What types of brands emphasize radical innovation that is market driven?
a. Follower brands
b. Creative brands
c. Heritage brands
d. Share leaders
10. Innovation should be brand driven. What types of brands emphasize incremental innovation that is market driven?
a. Follower brands
b. Creative brands
c. Heritage brands
d. Share leaders
11. Why do brand managers struggle with relevance?
a. The iron cage of brand bureaucracy
b. Their natural instinct is to emphasize consistency
c. Their interpretive frame ensures they only draw on information that keeps the brand consistent
d. All of these
12. The brand bureaucracy leads to what?
a. An organization focused on the brand
b. An emphasis on exploration and relevance
c. The reduction of branding to a few science-like principles
d. Lots of assistant brand managers
13. Brand ambidexterity is best described by which of the following?
a. Brand managers who are adept at using both hands
b. A flexible brand
c. A capability that focuses on consistency and relevance
d. A brand strategy that emphasizes multiple identities
14. Wicked problems have which of the following characteristics?
a. They are cool.
b. They have no obvious true or false answer.
c. They are easy to define.
d. They have obvious solutions.
15. How do designers differ to marketers in their approach to branding?
a. Designers focus on nice logos while marketers use research
b. Designers offer impractical solutions while marketers look for sales
c. Designers focus on styling while marketers focus on strategy
d. Designers focus on disrupting brand position while marketers focus on reinforcing it.
16. Design thinking is best described by which of the following?
a. Something that designers do
b. A method that focuses on collaboration and experimentation?
c. Being creative
d. None of these
17. Abduction asks what type of brand questions?
a. Why couldn’t the brand be both A and B?
b. What should the brand be, given its position?
c. What is the brand?
d. Who is the brand for?
18. How do designers approach users?
a. They conduct research on what their espoused needs are.
b. They ignore users and focus on their inner state.
c. They try to view things from the user’s point of view.
d. They do what suers tell them do.
19. The destabilize stage of brand ambidexterity involves which practices?
a. Capabilities matching and problem scoping
b. Naïve questioning and problem interrogation
c. Mapping innovation to brand and stabilizing
d. None of these
20. The design and develop stage of brand ambidexterity involves which practices?
a. Capabilities matching and problem scoping
b. Naïve questioning and problem interrogation
c. Mapping innovation to brand and stabilizing
d. None of these
21. The transformation stage of brand ambidexterity involves which practices?
a. Capabilities matching and problem scoping
b. Naïve questioning and problem interrogation
c. Mapping innovation to brand and stabilizing
d. None of these
22. Brand transformation involves which of the following outcomes?
a. The brand becomes new
b. The brand pivots to a new identity
c. The brand is repositioned
d. The is simultaneously old and new
23. Define and develop involves what outcomes for the brand?
a. A new identity
b. A new set of advertising
c. Understanding the wider context in which the problem is based
d. None of these
24. Disruption involves what outcomes for the brand?
a. Removing the old position altogether
b. The team begins to understand that the brand could embrace change
c. The team adopts a radical new innovation
d. All of these
25. Cultural storytelling overcomes which authenticity deficit?
a. A lack of character
b. A lack of conformity
c. A lack of consistency
d. A lack of improvisation
26. Douglas Holt’s cultural branding model suggests new brand ideas should come from where?
a. Loyal customers
b. Populist worlds
c. Consultants
d. Tracking research
27. Douglas Holt’s cultural branding model places emphasis on which of the following?
a. Relevance
b. Consistency
c. Popularity
d. Equity
28. For a cultural brand strategy to work, the brand must do what?
a. Become and authentic insider within a subculture
b. Change everything they do
c. Emphasize corporate social responsibility
Seek to disrupt competitors
29. A progressive reposition involves the brand moving into what authenticity quadrant?
a. Aloof
b. Poseur
c. Authentic
d. Nascent
30. What strategy could help when engaging in a progressive reposition?
a. Brand purpose
b. Co-branding with a new brand
c. Using a young spokesperson
d. Developing a Tik-Tok strategy
31. Innovating via design disruption involves first moving the brand to which authenticity quadrant?
a. Aloof
b. Poseur
c. Authentic
d. Nascent
32. When innovating via design disruption how should you respond to a backlash from loyal users?
a. Say sorry and return to your previous strategy
b. Tell them that they are wrong and should use another brand
c. Continue to invest in a long-term campaign to make over the brand
d. None of these
33. Changing the brand’s position is called which of the following?
a. Refreshing
b. Re-launching
c. Revitalization
d. Repositioning
34. Bringing back a long dead brand is called which of the following?
a. Refreshing
b. Re-launching
c. Revitalization
d. Repositioning
35. Updating the brand’s marketing is called which of the following?
a. Refreshing
b. Re-launching
c. Revitalization
d. Repositioning
36. Changing a brand after a period of decline is called which of the following?
a. Refreshing
b. Re-launching
c. Revitaliation
d. Repositioning
Chapter 9: Communal branding
1. What is the main standard of authenticity when engaging in communal branding?
a. Consistency
b. Conformity
c. Connection
d. Empathy
2. Which of the following is the most brand centric form of communal branding?
a. Subcultures of consumption
b. Consumer tribes
c. Brand publics
d. Brand community
3. Which of the following is the least communal form of communal branding?
a. Brand publics
b. Consumer tribes
c. Subcultures of consumption
d. Brand community
4. Which of the following is the least brand centric form of communal branding?
a. Brand publics
b. Subcultures of consumption
c. Brand communities
d. Consumer tribes
5. Which of the following communal brand forms is the most fleeting in terms of consumer identity?
a. Brand publics
b. Brand communities
c. Consumer tribes
d. Subcultures of consumption
6. The key authenticity concern when engaging in a communal brand strategy is which of the following?
a. The brand will be seen as aloof
b. The brand will be seen as nascent
c. The brand will be seen as a poseur
d. The community will not like the brand
7. Consciousness of kind refers to which of the following?
a. Members take moral responsibility for the brand
b. Members engage in shared rituals
c. Members engage in shared traditions
d. Members share similar values
8. When an insider shows new members how to do things, they are engaging in what?
a. Conscious of kind
b. Moral responsibility
c. Shared rituals and traditions
d. None of these
9. When Apple fans make fun of Microsoft, they are engaging in what?
a. Moral responsibility
b. Shared rituals and traditions
c. Consciousness of kind
d. All of these
10. When a member of a brand community celebrates an important event in the life of the brand on their Instagram page, what are they engaging in?
a. Moral responsibility
b. Shared rituals and traditions
c. Consciousness of kind
d. All of these
11. Successful brand community strategies require which of the following approaches?
a. The marketing department communicates they are a member of the community
b. Firms should exploit community associations quickly so they can appear cool
c. Brand managers should relinquish some control of the brand to the community
d. Marketers should focus on ensuring members do not question the brand
12. How do subcultures of consumption differ from brand communities?
a. They feature many different groups
b. Collective identity is not defined by the brand
c. They are less interested in brands
d. Their members are less loyal to brands
13. How do consumer tribes differ from subcultures of consumption?
a. They are more fanatical consumers
b. They are more loyal to brands
c. Their association with the subculture is more symbolic
d. Their association with the subculture is less symbolic
14. What happens when brands try to exploit subcultures?
a. Insiders may challenge the brand’s myth
b. The subculture dies
c. The subculture benefits
d. The subculture ignores the brand
15. How do brands become subcultural insiders?
a. They conform to the rules of the subculture
b. They pass subcultural litmus tests
c. The make sacrifices and take risks
d. All of these
16. Why does making perceived sacrifices endear you to subcultures?
a. Giving up financial reward indicates sincerity
b. It shows brand managers are nice people
c. Risk taking is what leader brands do
d. None of these
17. What do members of consumer tribes use brands for?
a. Functional benefits
b. Symbolic fitting in
c. To stand out
d. To feel good about themselves
18. Why might members of subcultures reject tribes?
a. Tribal members are too young and inexperienced
b. They want to keep the subculture small and focused
c. Tribal members have invested little in their collective identity
d. None of these
19. What do members of a brand public use the brand for?
a. To connect to like-minded others
b. To show they are a cultural insider
c. To identify how cool they are
d. To draw attention to themselves
20. Which form of communal brand do marketers have the most control over?
a. Brand publics
b. Subcultures of consumption
c. Brand community
d. Consumer tribes
21. How does one align culturally with a community?
a. Run advertisements identifying your associations
b. Try to sell special products to the community
c. Sponsorship
d. Immersing staff in the community
22. What does a chief culture officer do?
a. Strengthen the organiation’s culture
b. Build an understanding of communities to help the brand
c. Manage the brand community
d. Manage different cultures across the globe
23. When an insider welcomes new members to the community, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
24. When an insider reminds newcomers of rules of behaviour, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
25. When members identify why the brand is superior, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
26. When members talk about the brand to outsiders, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
27. When a brand celebrates a sub-group within a community, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
28. When a brand provides a community member with sign of their first year of membership, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
29. When an insider shares a special access discount code with others, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
30. When community member share their creative mash ups of brand material, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Social networking
b. Impression management
c. Community engagement
d. Brand use
31. How can brand strengthen brand communities?
a. Add missing practices
b. Strengthen existing ones
c. Make practices work together more effectively
d. All of these
32. Where does communal branding apply?
a. Only business to consumer brands
b. Only brands with naturally high levels of involvement
c. Only business to business brands
d. Potentially all brands
33. How do communities manage diversity within their ranks?
a. Highlighting the strength of each group
b. Identifying each as a resource
c. Highlighting the strength of each group and identifying each as a resource
d. None of these
34. How do brand generate tensions with communities?
a. Brand extensions attract less loyal tribal members
b. The co-opt community assets without asking permission
c. The say one thing and do another
d. All of these
35. The communal branding model argues brand equity is a function of
a. Consumer-brand relationships
b. Consumer-consumer relationships
c. Strong awareness
d. Innovative products and services
Chapter 10: Globalisation and branding
1. McDonaldization refers to which of the following?
a. The spread of McDonalds around the world
b. The global brand McDonalds
c. The push for uniformity of brand messaging across the globe
d. The tendency for all fast food chains to copy McDonalds
2. Which of the following is a key trade-off in global branding?
a. Whether to standardize or localise brand messages
b. How many markets is too many?
c. Whether selling abroad will lead to a backlash at home
d. None of these
3. The unidirectional flow from the centre is appropriated and localised in the periphery defines which of the following?
a. Globalization
b. Glocalization
c. Deterritorialization
d. All of these
4. Unidirectional flow of brands from more affluent centre to less affluent periphery defines which of the following?
a. Globalization
b. Glocalization
c. Deterritorialization
d. All of these
5. Multi-directional and interrelated flows of brands independent of centre-periphery defines which of the following?
a. Globalization
b. Glocalization
c. Deterritorialization
d. All of these
6. What is an example of glocalization?
a. Global cosmopolitan lifestyles
b. Standardized global brands
c. Multi-cultural marketplaces
d. Hybridization Hybridisation of global brands and marketing
7. What is an example of globalization?
a. Global cosmopolitan lifestyles
b. Standardized global brands
c. Multi-cultural marketplaces
d. Hybridization of global brands and marketing
8. What is an example of deterritorialization?
a. Global cosmopolitan lifestyles
b. Standardized global brands
c. Multi-cultural marketplaces
d. Hybridization of global brands and marketing
9. What is a key assumption of deterritorialization?
a. Centre-periphery trade
b. Periphery appropriates brands from the centre
c. All countries participate in global markets
d. None of these
10. What is a key assumption of glocalization?
a. Centre-periphery trade
b. Periphery appropriates brands from the centre
c. All countries participate in global markets
d. None of these
11. What is a key assumption of globalization?
a. Centre-periphery hierarchy
b. Periphery appropriates brands from the centre
c. All countries participate in global markets
d. None of these
12. Which of the following in an impact of globalization?
a. Local and global co-exist
b. Global lifestyles
c. Perpetuation of inequality
d. Fragmented consumer culture
13. Which of the following in an impact of glocalization?
a. Local and global co-exist
b. Global lifestyles
c. Perpetuation of inequality
d. Fragmented consumer culture
14. Which of the following in an impact of deterritorialization?
a. Local and global co-exist
b. Loss of local tradition
c. Perpetuation of inequality
d. Fragmented consumer culture
15. What do global brands mean in the glocalization framework?
a. Global brands are just part of a multi-cultural collage
b. Consumption of global brands represents an adaption to Western culture
c. Consumption of global brands represents an endorsement of Western culture
d. A sense of imagined community
16. What do global brands mean in the deterritorialization framework?
a. Global brands are the opposite of local culture
b. Consumption of global brands represents an adaption to Western culture
c. Consumption of global brands represents an endorsement of Western culture
d. A sense of imagined community
17. What do global brands mean in the globalization framework?
a. Global brands are just part of a multi-cultural collage
b. Consumption of global brands represents an adaption to Western culture
c. Consumption of global brands represents an endorsement of Western culture
d. A sense of imagined community
18. eBayization is consistent with which global branding approach?
a. Globalization
b. Glocalization
c. Deterritorialization
d. None of these
19. Which of the following are benefits of global brands?
a. Efficiency
b. Economies of scale in marketing communications
c. Increased equity
d. All of these
20. Which of the following is an example of brand morphing?
a. Keeping the brand the same for all markets
b. Changing brand position
c. Making the brand more liquid
d. None of these
21. Power distance concerns which of the following?
a. The tolerance of ambiguity
b. We taking precedence over I
c. Beliefs about equality
d. A preference for the short term
22. Country of origin effects refer to which of the following?
a. Patriotism
b. Associations between a category and a nation state
c. National culture
d. None of these
23. Reterritorialization may lead to benefits for which of the following?
a. Global brands
b. New brands
c. Nostalgic local brands
d. None of these
24. The creative class desire which of the following?
a. Good coffee shops
b. Access to art materials
c. Law and order
d. Tolerance
25. The long tail of markets offers opportunities for which type of brands?
a. Niche brands
b. Local brands
c. Global brands
d. All of these
26. How would design thinking approach the challenge of counterfeits?
a. Marketers would examine if counterfeiting could be beneficial for the brand?
b. Marketers would ignore counterfeits
c. Marketers would seek legal help to shut down counterfeiting
d. None of these
27. Is counterfeiting inauthentic?
a. Yes, the counterfeit is fake.
b. It’s complicated, users view authenticity in issues of degrees.
c. Yes, but consumers don’t care.
d. None of these.
28. Gray markets are best described by which of the following?
a. Markets where competitors ignore local brand licensing arrangements
b. Markets characterized by lots of rain
c. Markets where rules are unclear
d. None of these
29. The reaction of Amsterdam locals against mass tourism is best reflected in which model?
a. Globalization
b. Glocalization
c. Deterritorialization
d. Reterritorialization
30. Global or local brand seeking to reterritorialize are trying to create what?
a. Imagined community
b. National myths
c. Collective identity
d. All of these
31. Changing the language of a global advertisement is an example of which of the following?
a. Glocalization
b. Deterritorialization
c. Globalization
d. Re-territorialization
32. Promoting cities as hotspots for cosmopolitanism is an example of what?
a. Glocalization
b. Deterritorialization
c. Globalization
d. Deterritorialization
33. Working with counterfeiters to create a co-branded range is an example of which of the following?
a. Incremental brand innovation
b. Design disruptive innovation
c. Progressive innovation
d. Cultural innovation
34. Developing a range of local market adaptations is an example of which of the following?
a. Incremental brand innovation
b. Design disruptive innovation
c. Progressive innovation
d. Cultural innovation
35. Why might brands be able resist local adaptations?
a. The widespread awareness of brands via social media
b. Cultural differences may not be as pervasive as thought
c. The benefits may outweigh the costs
d. All of these
Chapter 11: Ethics and brand purpose
1. Brands should support local communities is reflective of what type of ethical framework?
a. Brand purpose
b. Contextual approach
c. Positive approach
d. Normative approach
2. A call for consumers to use their power to make better choices is reflective of which of the following?
a. Brand purpose
b. Normative response
c. Developmental approach
d. Critical approach
3. Calling for marketers to adopt an empathetic stance to consumers and stakeholders is reflective of which of the following?
a. Positive approach
b. Ethics of care
c. Critical approach
d. None of these
4. Brand purpose is a strategy that helps brands do what?
a. Overcome accusations of being a poseur
b. Feel good about themselves
c. Align with social causes
d. Stand out from the crowd
5. Brand purpose helps brands overcome a deficit of which types of authenticity?
a. Consistency and connection
b. Conformity and connection
c. Consistency and conformity
d. None of these
6. Naomi Klein’s No Logo critique on brands represents what type of approach to understanding ethical issues?
a. Critical approach
b. Positive approach
c. Development approach
d. Contextual approach
7. A call for government intervention to address ethical wicked problems is reflective of what type of approach?
a. Critical approach
b. Positive approach
c. Development approach
d. Contextual approach
8. The creation of the ‘green consumer’ reflects which type of ethical approach?
a. Critical approach
b. Positive approach
c. Development approach
d. Contextual approach
9. Positive approaches to ethics are useful because of which of the following?
a. They enable one to predict when things will go wrong
b. They have a strong normative framework
c. They help understand why things went wrong
d. None of these
10. Contextual approaches to ethics are useful because?
a. They are consistent with a framework of co-creation
b. They provide practical insights for brand managers
c. The take into account multiple contexts impacting on decision-makers
d. All of these
11. Nudging refers to which of the following?
a. Gently pushing a friend
b. Attempting to influence behaviour is an unusual or subtle way
c. Providing information to make better decisions
d. None of these
12. Bruce Philp responded to brand critics in what way?
a. That brands need to restricted by the government
b. It was in brand managers interests to be ethical as brand equity was symbolic
c. That brands were inauthentic and bound to be unethical
d. None of these
13. Corporate social responsibility programmes reflect what type of approach to ethical challenges?
a. Developmental
b. Teleological
c. Critical
d. None of these
14. Sustainability will be improved through the adoption of innovative technologies reflects which approach to ethical challenges?
a. Developmental
b. Teleological
c. Critical
d. Contextual
15. Environmental destruction is inherent in the competitive system reflects which approach to ethical challenges?
a. Developmental
b. Teleological
c. Critical
d. None of these
16. Under the contextual approach, why might decision-makers act unethically?
a. Because they are inherently unethical
b. Because the contexts they operate in may reward such behaviour
c. Because it is part of their brand position
d. None of these
17. An interpretive frame may lead to unethical behaviour because?
a. Brand managers choose information that supports their view
b. The frame decides which information is relevant or not
c. The frame leads managers to ignore critical information
d. All of these
18. Advertising cigarettes as an elegant and cool look was once accepted in some countries but is now no longer legal. What element of the contextual approach to ethics does this represent?
a. Culturally situated decision-makers
b. Stakeholder interpretation
c. Cultural meaning systems and the moral point of view
d. An ethics of care
19. The contextual approach to ethics implies that brands need to change when what changes?
a. Competitors do something differs
b. The acceptability of marketing actions in society
c. A new managers takes over the brand
d. Technological innovations emerge
20. When a set of marketing activities become morally illegitimate, what does this mean?
a. That one must do them in secret
b. That one should emphasize functional benefits
c. That one should emphasize consistency
d. That the brand is in danger of losing the right to operate
21. How does a contextual approach to ethics treat corporate social responsibility?
a. It should deeply embedded within the firm.
b. It should be part of a public relations program.
c. It only applies to the branding program.
d. It should be maintained as part of an outreach program.
22. What does a strategy of brand purpose involve?
a. Aligning the brand with a social cause
b. Taking popular stands
c. Embedding a higher-order motive in the brand’s identity
d. Repositioning the brand
23. Brand purpose helps overcome a deficit in what part of the brand?
a. Improvisation
b. Character
c. Newness
d. None of these
24. How do brand purpose and brand storytelling interact?
a. They do not interact; they are separate strategies.
b. Stories make the purpose exciting.
c. A brand purpose is reflected in a signature story for the brand.
d. All of these.
25. German camera manufacturer brand ran a social media campaign informing consumers not to watch the advertisement. The advertisement ran for 45 minutes and showed a skilled craftsperson making a camera. Is this an example of brand purpose?
a. No, brand purpose only involves social causes.
b. No, this is a clever story with a twist, nothing more.
c. Yes, the emphasis on skill and care is an example of purpose.
d. None of these.
26. What are some ethical challenges arising from co-creation?
a. Co-optation
b. Washing
c. Representation
d. All of these
27. A brand such as BP that talks about its commitment to the environment without actually changing its practices is engaging in which of the following?
a. Co-optation
b. Reframing
c. Washing
d. Unintended consequences
28. The call for greater ‘consumer responsibility’ is an example of what type of ethical challenge?
a. Co-optation
b. Reframing
c. Washing
d. Unintended consequences
29. The decision by Pepsi to benefit from aligning their brand with the black lives matter protest is an example of what type of ethical challenge?
a. Co-optation
b. Reframing
c. Washing
d. Unintended consequences
30. Running an advertisement featuring different actors from different races is an example of what type of approach to representation?
a. Cultural normalization
b. Cultural appropriation
c. United Nations
d. Effortful accommodation
31. A brand that attempts to represent minorities by giving them stereotypical roles is engaging in what type of approach to representation?
a. Cultural normalization
b. Cultural appropriation
c. United Nations
d. Effortful accommodation
32. Renault’s slice of life advertisement featuring the trials and tribulations of a lesbian couple is an example of what type of approach to representation?
a. Cultural normalization
b. Cultural appropriation
c. United Nations
d. Effortful accommodation
33. When organizations encourage to consumers to educate themselves on important ethical issues, what practice are they engaging in?
a. Co-optation
b. Brand purpose
c. Corporate social responsibility
d. Reframing
34. What approach to ethical challenges best captures Ecotricity’s outlook?
a. Critical
b. Contextual
c. Developmental
d. Normative
35. How should you launch a successful brand purpose strategy?
a. Target segments of ethical consumers
b. Work with advocacy groups
c. Tell employees about the purpose
Conduct a brand audit and ensure consistency just as you would with any brand position.
Chapter 12: Managing brand crisis
1. How can a crisis impact on authenticity?
a. Strong management of the crisis can reinforce the brand’s position
b. Failure to manage a crisis may indicate the brand is aloof
c. Failure to manage the crisis may lead to accusations of being a poseur
d. All of these
2. Can a brand crisis impact brand equity?
a. Yes, the brand’s short equity can fall.
b. Yes, the brand’s equity can become negative.
c. Yes, the brand long-term equity can potentially increase.
d. All of these.
3. Which of the following are aspects of a brand crisis?
a. The brand manager does not know what to do.
b. The crisis represents a turning point for the brand.
c. Crises are often created by groups with an agenda to push.
d. None of these.
4. Which of the following are aspects of a brand crisis?
a. The brand manager does not know what to do.
b. Crises are often created by groups with an agenda to push.
c. The crisis may impact on the brand’s authenticity.
d. None of these.
5. When Volkswagen was caught for lying about the emissions of its vehicles it primarily experienced what type of crisis?
a. Connection
b. Consistency
c. Conformity
d. All of these
6. When Tui Brewery made fun of LGBT rights in its poster campaign in New Zealand, what type of crisis did it experience?
a. Connection
b. Consistency
c. Conformity
d. All of these
7. When Shinola Detroit was criticized for not making its products in Detroit as it advertised, what type of crisis does this represent?
a. Connection
b. Consistency
c. Conformity
d. All of these
8. When should one manage serious brand crises?
a. When the initial fuss has died down
b. Quickly, so it does not get out of hand
c. When the mainstream media picks up on the crisis
d. Wait to see if the crisis will pass before doing anything
9. United Breaks Guitars involved what type of crisis?
a. Crisis of consistency
b. Crisis of connection
c. Crisis of conformity
d. Loss of legitimacy
10. Polysemy can trigger a crisis. Which of the following best describes polysemy?
a. Multiple ways of doing things
b. Multiple groups of people
c. Multiple ways of interpreting an event or advertisement
d. Multiple ways of managing problems
11. The crisis suffered by Marchesa due to the #metoo movement was what type of crisis?
a. Consistency
b. Connection
c. Conformity
d. None of these
12. When consumers compare what happened to what they believed should have happened, what process are they engaging in?
a. The love becomes hate effect
b. Motivated reasoning
c. Polysemy
d. Counter factual thinking
13. When consumers seek revenge on a brand they once loved, what does this represent?
a. Motivated reasoning
b. Counterfactual thinking
c. The love becomes hate effect
d. Grudge-holding
14. When a sincere brand does the wrong thing, what is the likely outcome?
a. The brand’s position will act as a buffer
b. The brand’s position will increase levels of disappointment
c. The brand’s position will have no impact
d. None of these
15. When an exciting brand does the wrong thing, what is the likely outcome?
a. The brand’s position will act as a buffer
b. The brand’s position will increase levels of disappointment
c. The brand’s position will have no impact
d. None of these
16. Are emotionally positioned brands more likely to suffer a backlash to a crisis than functionally positioned ones?
a. No, functionally positioned brands are more at risk.
b. There will be no difference in response.
c. Yes, emotionally positioned brands are more at risk.
d. It depends on what category the brands are in.
17. When Coke replaced its classical recipe with New Coke, they were primarily putting what type of authenticity at risk?
a. Consistency
b. Conformity
c. Connection
d. All of these
18. How should brand managers repair a crisis of consistency?
a. Invest in authenticity as connection
b. Engage with brand communities
c. Correct the failure
d. None of these
19. How should brand managers repair a crisis of conformity?
a. Invest in authenticity as connection
b. Engage with brand communities
c. Correct the failure
d. None of these
20. How should brand managers repair a crisis of connection?
a. Communicate empathetically
b. Engage with brand communities
c. Correct the failure
d. None of these
21. When Steve Jobs’ of Apple said the problem with the iPhone 4 was an industry problem, what crisis management tool was he using?
a. Tone of voice
b. Contingency planning
c. Brand purpose
d. Reframing
22. If a crisis has a low chance of occurring but a potentially high impact on the brand, how should you plan for it?
a. Constant monitoring
b. Ignore it
c. Scripted response
d. Emergency response protocols
23. If a crisis has a low chance of occurring but a potentially low impact on the brand, how should you plan for it?
a. Constant monitoring
b. Ignore it
c. Scripted response
d. Emergency response protocols
24. If a crisis has a high chance of occurring but a potentially high impact on the brand, how should you plan for it?
a. Constant monitoring
b. Ignore it
c. Scripted response
d. Emergency response protocols
25. If a crisis has a high chance of occurring but a potentially high impact on the brand, how should you plan for it?
a. Constant monitoring
b. Ignore it
c. Scripted response
d. Emergency response protocols
26. The RETHINK Shinola critique of the brand’s practices represents what type of crisis?
a. Connection
b. Conformity
c. Consistency
d. None of these
27. It has been said that brands manufacture crises to strengthen the brand. Is this wise?
a. No, the brand-relationship is always weaker after a crisis.
b. Yes, consumers like a joke.
c. No, all crises are bad.
d. Yes, if it reflects brand position and is planned.
28. What provides an important source of guidance when dealing with a brand crisis?
a. Your personal beliefs
b. Your brand position
c. Whether you will be rewarded for fixing the crisis
d. Whether the media has noticed the problem.
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Complete Test Bank | Brand Management Meaningful Brands 2e
By Michael Beverland
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