The Quantum Mechanical Atom Ch.7 Test Bank Jespersen

Chemistry: Molecular Nature of Matter, 8e (Jespersen)

Chapter 7 The Quantum Mechanical Atom

1) The frequency of an electromagnetic wave is

A) the number of complete oscillations or cycles over a distance of one meter.

B) the number of complete oscillations or cycles in a one second time interval.

C) the distance between successive maxima in the wave in one complete cycle.

D) the number of complete oscillations or cycles over a distance of one centimeter.

E) the distance between successive nodes in the wave.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.1

2) The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is

A) the number of complete oscillations or cycles over a distance of one meter.

B) the number of complete oscillations or cycles in a one second time interval.

C) the distance between successive maxima in the wave.

D) the number of complete oscillations or cycles over a distance of one centimeter.

E) the distance between a minimum and the nearest maximum in the oscillation.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.1

3) What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 5.732 × 1014 s-1?

A) 1.718 × 1023 m

B) 1.912 × 106 m

C) 5.234 × 10-7 m

D) 523.4 m

E) 5.819 × 10-15 nm

Diff: 1

Section: 7.1

4) What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 4.464 × 1014 s-1?

A) 1.338 ×1023 m

B) 1.489 × 10-6 m

C) 4.716 × 107 nm

D) 6.720 × 102 nm

E) 7.472 × 10-15 nm

Diff: 1

Section: 7.1

5) What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 3.818 × 1014 s-1?

A) 1145 nm

B) 1.274 × 10-1 nm

C) 1.274 × 10-7 m

D) 7.858 × 10-7 nm

E) 7.858 × 10-7 m

Diff: 1

Section: 7.1

6) What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 6.282 × 1014 s-1?

A) 1.883 × 1023 m

B) 2.095 × 106 m

C) 4.776 × 10-7 m

D) 4.776 × 10-7 nm

E) 530.9 nm

Diff: 1

Section: 7.1

7) Calculate the frequency of visible light having a wavelength of 464.1 nm.

A) 139.1 s-1

B) 1.548 × 10-6 s-1

C) 1.548 × 10-15 s-1

D) 6.464 × 1014 s-1

E) 6.464 × 105 s-1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

8) Calculate the frequency of visible light having a wavelength of 589.3 nm.

A) 176.7 s-1

B) 1.966 × 10-15 s-1

C) 1.391 × 10-11 s-1

D) 5.091 × 1014 s-1

E) 5.660 × 103 s-1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

9) A police radar unit is operating on a frequency of 9.527 gigahertz. What is the wavelength of the radiation being employed?

A) 314.9 nm

B) 314.9 m

C) 3.149 cm

D) 314.9 cm

E) 31.78 m

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

10) Calculate the frequency of visible light having a wavelength of 568.8 nm.

A) 170.5 s-1

B) 1.897 × 106 s-1

C) 1.897 × 1015 s-1

D) 5.274 × 10-9 s-1

E) 5.274 × 1014 s-1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

11) Calculate the frequency of visible light having a wavelength of 25.3 cm.

A) 8.44 × 10-8 s-1

B) 1.19 × 109 s-1

C) 1.19 × 107 s-1

D) 7.58 × 109 s-1

E) 7.58 × 107 s-1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

12) Which one of the following types of radiation has the lowest frequency?

A) radio waves

B) infrared radiation

C) microwave radiation

D) X-rays

E) ultraviolet rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

13) Which radiation has the lowest frequency?

A) gamma rays

B) infrared radiation

C) microwave radiation

D) visible light rays

E) ultraviolet rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

14) Which radiation has the highest frequency?

A) blue visible light

B) radio waves

C) infrared radiation

D) microwave radiation

E) red visible light

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

15) Which radiation has the highest frequency?

A) X-rays

B) ultraviolet rays

C) radio waves

D) microwave radiation

E) infrared radiation

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

16) Which radiation has the shortest wavelength?

A) radio waves

B) infrared radiation

C) microwave radiation

D) ultraviolet rays

E) X-rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

17) Which radiation has the shortest wavelength?

A) gamma rays

B) infrared radiation

C) microwave radiation

D) ultraviolet rays

E) visible light rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

18) Which radiation has the shortest wavelength?

A) FM radio waves

B) infrared radiation

C) microwave radiation

D) ultraviolet rays

E) visible light rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

19) Which radiation has the longest wavelength?

A) gamma rays

B) green visible light rays

C) red visible light rays

D) ultraviolet rays

E) X-rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

20) Which radiation has the longest wavelength?

A) gamma rays

B) infrared radiation

C) microwave radiation

D) ultraviolet rays

E) red visible light rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

21) Which radiation has the longest wavelength?

A) infrared radiation

B) radio waves

C) microwave radiation

D) ultraviolet rays

E) X-rays

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

22) What is the energy of one photon of microwave radiation with a wavelength of 0.158 m?

A) 1.26 × 10-24 J

B) 3.14 × 10-26 J

C) 3.19 × 1025 J

D) 3.49 × 10-43 J

E) 7.15 × 1040 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

23) What is the energy of one photon of visible radiation with a wavelength of 464.1 nm?

A) 1.03 × 10-48 J

B) 2.10 × 1035 J

C) 2.34 × 1011 J

D) 4.28 × 10-19 J

E) 4.28 × 10-12 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

24) What is the energy of one mole of photons of visible light having a wavelength of 486.1 nm?

A) 12.4 kJ

B) 2.46 × 10-4 J

C) 2.46 × 105 J

D) 6.17 × 1014 J

E) 8.776.2 × 1025 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

25) The photoelectric effect

A) describes the interaction of light with a photograph.

B) describes how electrons interact with each other.

C) is the process in which electrons are ejected from certain material by photons.

D) is the process of light being emitted from an electrical wire.

E) describes the interactions of photons with a pane of glass.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

26) What is the energy of one mole of photons of visible light having a wavelength of 4.89 × 102 nm?

A) 1.48 × 1042 J

B) 1.95 × 10-16 J

C) 2.45 × 105 J

D) 3.24 × 10-40 J

E) 4.06 × 10-19 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

27) What is the energy of one mole of photons associated with radiation that has a frequency of 6.336 × 1015 Hz?

A) 2.528 × 106 J

B) 3.882 × 1014 J

C) 3.955 × 10-7 J

D) 4.198 × 10-18 J

E) 6.298 × 10-26 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

28) What is the energy of one mole of photons associated with radiation that has a frequency of 3.818 × 1015 Hz?

A) 1.045 × 10-25 J

B) 1.524 × 106 J

C) 2.530 × 10-18 J

D) 6.564 × 10-7 J

E) 9.568 × 1024 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

29) What is the wavelength of radiation which has an energy of 3.371 × 10-19 joules per photon?

A) 655.9 nm

B) 152.5 nm

C) 170.0 nm

D) 589.3 nm

E) 745.1 nm

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

30) What is the wavelength of radiation which has an energy of 216.1 kJ per mole of photons?

A) 655.9 nm

B) 546.1 nm

C) 108.8 nm

D) 589.3 nm

E) 977.7 nm

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

31) What is the frequency of radiation which has an energy of 3.371 × 10-19 joules per photon?

A) 1.697 × 1015 s-1

B) 5.893 × 10-7 s-1

C) 5.087 × 1014 s-1

D) 1.966 × 10-15 s-1

E) 6.626 × 10-34 s-1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

32) What is the frequency of radiation which has an energy of 216.1 kJ per mole of photons?

Hint: Pay careful attention to your units. 1 kJ = 1000 J.

A) 615.9 × 1014 s-1

B) 1.624 × 1014 s-1

C) 1.058 × 10-10 s-1

D) 5.416 × 1014 s-1

E) 3.588 × 10-19 s-1

Diff: 3

Section: 7.1

33) What is the energy of one mole of photons whose wavelength is 5.461 × 102 nm?

Hint: Pay careful attention to your units. 1 m = 109 nm.

A) 2.191 × 10-4 J

B) 2.437 × 10-12 J

C) 2.191 × 105 J

D) 1.376 × 106 J

E) 4.06 × 10-19 J

Diff: 3

Section: 7.1

34) Which statement is true?

A) The line spectra of elements are the same provided they belong to the same family.

B) The line spectra of elements are the same provided they belong to the same family and are combined with oxygen.

C) The line spectra of elements are the same provided they belong to the same family and are in the same physical state.

D) The line spectra of elements can be used for separation of elements from mixtures.

E) The line spectra of elements can be used to identify the elements.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.2

35) Which statement is true?

A) The line spectra of atoms consist of a series of white lines superimposed on a colorful background.

B) The line spectra of atoms consist of a series of white lines superimposed on a dark background.

C) The line spectra of atoms consist of a series of colorful lines superimposed on a dark background.

D) The line spectra of atoms consist of a series of dark lines superimposed on a white background.

E) The line spectra of atoms consist of a series of dark lines superimposed on a colorful background.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.2

36) The definite energies associated with specific wavelengths in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen suggest that

A) electrons have a smaller rest mass than photons.

B) photons have a smaller rest mass than electrons.

C) energy states of the electron in the hydrogen atom are quantized.

D) atomic hydrogen is more stable and has a lower potential energy than molecular hydrogen.

E) the potential energy of electrons in the atom can have any arbitrary value over a period of time, but the kinetic energy may only have certain specific values.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.2

37) Calculate the wavelength of the spectral line in the spectrum of hydrogen for which n1 = 1 and n2 = 3.

Hint: Use the Rydberg equation to solve.

A) 277 nm

B) 103 nm

C) 345 nm

D) 397 nm

E) 489 nm

Diff: 3

Section: 7.2

38) Calculate the wavelength of the spectral line in the spectrum of hydrogen for which n1 = 2 and n2 = 4.

Hint: Use the Rydberg equation to solve.

A) 207 nm

B) 365 nm

C) 486 nm

D) 274 nm

E) 131 nm

Diff: 3

Section: 7.2

39) Calculate the wavelength of the spectral line in the spectrum of hydrogen for which n1 = 4 and n2 = 7.

Hint: Use the Rydberg equation to solve.

A) 2.17 × 10-6 m

B) 2.17 × 10-4 m

C) 4.62 × 103 m

D) 8.51 × 10-5 m

E) 8.51 × 10-7 m

Diff: 3

Section: 7.2

40) Which statement is true concerning the spectrum of hydrogen obtained from a gas discharge tube?

A) A photon is absorbed as the electron goes from a state with a higher energy to one with a lower energy.

B) An electron is absorbed as the electron goes from a state with a lower energy to one with a higher energy.

C) A photon is emitted as the electron goes from a state with a higher energy to one with a lower energy.

D) A photon is emitted as the electron goes from a state with a lower energy to one with a higher energy.

E) An electron is emitted as the photon goes from a state with a higher energy to one with a lower energy.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.2

41) Which statement is true concerning Bohr's model of the atom?

A) The model accounted for the absorption spectra of atoms but not for the emission spectra.

B) The model could account for the emission spectrum of hydrogen and for the Rydberg equation.

C) The model was based on the wave properties of the electron.

D) The model accounted for the emission spectra of atoms, but not for the absorption spectra.

E) The model was generally successful for all atoms to which it was applied.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.3

42) Which statement about a hydrogen atom is false?

A) Atoms undergo the same specific energy changes.

B) When an excited atom loses energy, only a specific amount can be lost.

C) When an atom is supplied with energy, an electron drops from a higher energy level to a lower energy level.

D) When an electron drops back to a lower energy level, energy equal to the difference between the two levels is released and emitted as a photon.

E) The statements above are all true.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.3

43) Which statement is true of Bohr's equation, E = -b/n2?

A) E represents the energy of the proton.

B) b represents the energy of an excited electron.

C) The negative sign in the equation suggests that any electron with a finite value of n has a lower energy than an unbound electron.

D) The possible values of n are any real number

E) Each orbit is identified by its unique values for b and n.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.3

44) Calculate the energy required to excite a hydrogen atom by causing an electronic transition from the energy level with n = 1 to the level with n = 4. Recall that the quantized energies of the levels in the hydrogen atom are given by:

En = - J

A) 2.02 × 10-29 J

B) 2.04 × 10-18 J

C) 2.19 × 105 J

D) 2.25 × 10-18 J

E) 3.27 × 10-17 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.3

45) A hydrogen atom starts in the n = 1 energy level. What energy level would the atom end up in if it were to absorb 2.093 × 10-18 J of energy?

Hint: Make sure to convert energy to wavelength for your calculations.

A) n = 2

B) n = 3

C) n = 4

D) n = 5

E) n = 6

Diff: 3

Section: 7.3

46) Calculate the wavelength, in nanometers, of light emitted by a hydrogen atom when the electron falls from an n = 7 energy level to an n = 4 energy level. Recall that the quantized energies of the levels in the hydrogen atom are given by:

En = - J

Hint: Be sure to use the correct equation when solving. Pay careful attention to units.

A) 4.45 × 10-20 nm

B) 8.51 × 102 nm

C) 2.17 × 103 nm

D) 1.38 × 1014 nm

E) 2.16 × 103 nm

Diff: 3

Section: 7.3

47) The de Broglie relationship provides a link between which two properties of the electron?

A) the mass and the charge

B) the mass and the energy

C) its energy and its charge

D) the orbit and its wavelike movements

E) its wave and particle properties

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

48) Calculate the wavelength of a particle of mass 1.00 kg traveling at 1.00 km per hour.

A) 101 m

B) 3.45 × 10-19 m

C) 7.20 × 10-29 m

D) 2.38 × 10-33 m

E) 6.25 × 10--34 m

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

49) Calculate the wavelength of an electron (mass = 9.109 × 10-31 kg) traveling at

4.38 × 106 m/s.

A) 101 pm

B) 166 pm

C) 720 pm

D) 298 pm

E) 435 pm

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

50) Calculate the wavelength of a hydrogen atom (mass = 1.674 × 10-27 kg) traveling at

7.88 × 104 m/s.

A) 3.12 × 10-2 m

B) 3.12 × 10-56 m

C) 2.12 × 10-32 m

D) 5.02 × 10-12 m

E) 1.32 × 10-22 m

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

51) Calculate the wavelength of a helium atom (mass = 6.65 × 10-27 kg) traveling at 1.25 km/s.

A) 79.7 nm

B) 79.7 pm

C) 8.31 × 10-27 m

D) 1.25 × 1010 m

E) 831 pm

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

52) The first description of the electron in the hydrogen atom by application of the wave nature of matter was presented by

A) Louis de Broglie.

B) Werner von Heisenberg.

C) Wolfgang Pauli.

D) Ernest Rutherford.

E) Erwin Schrödinger.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.5

53) The letter designation for the subshell in an atom is based on

A) the value of the secondary quantum number, l.

B) the value of the principal quantum number, n.

C) the value of the magnetic quantum number, ml.

D) the value of the spin quantum number, ms.

E) the transverse polarization of the optical emission from the H atom.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.5

54) The three quantum numbers which characterize the solutions to Schrodinger's equation, describing the behavior of the electron in the H atom are usually designated as

A) 1s 2s 2p

B) n l ms

C) ml ms mp

D) n l ml

E) l ml ms

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

55) All orbitals with the same value of the principal quantum number are said to belong to the same

A) shell.

B) subshell.

C) group.

D) period.

E) class.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

56) All orbitals with the same value of the principal quantum number and the secondary quantum number are said to belong to the same

A) shell.

B) subshell.

C) group.

D) period.

E) class.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

57) The notation for the subshell with n = 5 and l = 3 is

A) 5d subshell.

B) 5p subshell.

C) 5f subshell.

D) 5g subshell.

E) 5s subshell.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

58) The notation for the subshell with n = 4 and l = 2 is

A) 4d subshell.

B) 4p subshell.

C) 4f subshell.

D) 4s subshell.

E) There is no subshell fitting this description.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

59) The notation for the subshell with n = 3 and l = 3 is

A) 3d subshell.

B) 3f subshell.

C) 3p subshell.

D) 3s subshell.

E) There is no subshell fitting this description.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

60) How many orbitals are in the n = 2 shell?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 8

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

61) Which statement correctly summarizes allowed values of quantum numbers in atoms?

A) All of the quantum numbers are allowed to have values which are not integers.

B) Only the principal quantum number is allowed to have values which are not integers.

C) Only the spin quantum numbers are allowed to have values which are not integers.

D) Only the secondary quantum number is allowed to have values which are not integers.

E) No quantum numbers are allowed to have values which are not integers.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

62) The Pauli principle states that

A) an electron in an atom can move to another energy level.

B) the energy of an electron has a specific quantum number.

C) the electron trapped in an atom has particle characteristics.

D) no two electrons in the same atom can have the exact same set of quantum numbers.

E) an orbital can hold as many electrons as possible.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

63) What is the maximum number of electrons that can fill all the orbitals of an f subshell?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 10

D) 12

E) 14

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

64) What is the maximum number of electrons that can fill all the orbitals of a d subshell?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 10

D) 12

E) 14

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

65) What is the maximum number of electrons that can fill all the orbitals of a p subshell?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6

E) 10

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

66) The number of electrons required to fill all the energy levels for a shell having principal quantum number n is

A) n

B) n+1

C) 2n

D) n2

E) 2n2

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

67) Which of the following gives a possible quantum number assignment for the last electron added to the sodium atom when developing the electron configuration using the aufbau principle?

n l ml ms

A) 2 1 -1 -½

B) 3 1 -1 ½

C) 3 0 0 ½

D) 3 2 +1 -½

E) 4 1 -1 0

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

68) Which of the following gives a possible quantum number assignment for the last electron added to the oxygen atom when developing the electron configuration using the aufbau principle?

n l ml ms

A) 2 1 +1 -½

B) 3 1 0 ½

C) 3 0 0 ½

D) 3 2 +1 -½

E) 4 1 -1 0

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

69) Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n, l, ml, and ms, which one of these sets is not possible for an electron in an atom?

n l ml ms

A) 3 2 2 -½

B) 3 1 -1 ½

C) 4 3 2 ½

D) 4 3 -2 -½

E) 5 2 3 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

70) Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n, l, ml, and ms, which one of these sets is not possible for an electron in an atom?

n l ml ms

A) 4 2 2 -½

B) 3 1 -1 -1

C) 4 3 2 ½

D) 4 3 -2 -½

E) 5 2 2 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

71) Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n, l, ml, and ms, which one of these sets is not possible for an electron in an atom?

n l ml ms

A) 3 2 2 -½

B) 3 1 -1 ½

C) 4 3 2 ½

D) 4 4 -3 -½

E) 5 2 -2 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

72) Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n, l, ml, and ms,which one of these sets is not possible for an electron in an atom?

n l ml ms

A) 3 1 -1 0

B) 3 2 2 -½

C) 4 3 2 ½

D) 4 3 -2 -½

E) 5 3 2 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

73) Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n, l, ml, and ms, which one of these sets is not possible for an electron in an atom?

n l ml ms

A) 3 1 -1 ½

B) 3 3 2 -½

C) 4 3 2 ½

D) 4 3 -2 -½

E) 5 3 2 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

74) Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n, l, ml, and ms, which one of these sets is not possible for an electron in an atom?

n l ml ms

A) 4 0 0 ½

B) 3 0 +1 -½

C) 3 2 -3 ½

D) 4 3 -2 -½

E) 5 3 0 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

75) A paramagnetic element is an element

A) that always has an element in an excited state.

B) that is missing electrons.

C) that is attracted to a magnet.

D) that is not attracted to a magnet.

E) that forms a molecule with two atoms.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

76) A diamagnetic element is an element

A) that always has an element in an excited state.

B) that is missing electrons.

C) that is attracted to a magnet.

D) that is not attracted to a magnet.

E) that forms a molecule with two atoms.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

77) A possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in the partially filled subshell in a gallium atom in its ground state configuration would be

n l ml ms

A) 3 1 0 -½

B) 3 1 1 ½

C) 4 0 0 -½

D) 4 1 0 ½

E) 4 2 1 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

78) A possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in the partially filled subshell in a vanadium atom in its ground state configuration would be

n l ml ms

A) 3 1 0 -½

B) 3 2 1 ½

C) 4 0 0 -½

D) 4 1 0 ½

E) 4 2 1 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

79) A possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in the partially filled subshell in a potassium atom in its ground state configuration would be

n l ml ms

A) 3 1 0 -½

B) 3 2 1 ½

C) 4 0 0 -½

D) 4 1 0 ½

E) 4 2 1 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

80) A possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in the partially filled subshell in a germanium atom in its ground state configuration would be

n l ml ms

A) 3 1 1 ½

B) 3 2 1 ½

C) 4 0 0 -½

D) 4 1 -1 ½

E) 4 2 1 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

81) A possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in the partially filled subshell in a technetium atom in its ground state configuration would be

n l ml ms

A) 3 1 0 -½

B) 3 2 1 ½

C) 4 0 0 -½

D) 4 1 0 ½

E) 4 2 1 ½

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

82) The requirement that the ground state configuration of an atom is generated by placing electrons into orbitals from the lowest energy to the highest energy, observing the maximum number allowed for each of these levels is

A) the aufbau principle.

B) Bustamente's principle.

C) Hund's Rule.

D) Murphy's rule.

E) the Pauli principle.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.7

83) There are several possible arrangements of electrons when you try to place 7 electrons in a 3d subshell. To determine the correct distribution for the ground state we are guided by

A) Avogadro's principle.

B) Hund's Rule.

C) the Pauli principle.

D) the wave particle duality principle.

E) the uncertainty principle.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.7

84) The fact that the energy of paired electrons is higher than the energy of unpaired electrons leads to which of the following?

A) the aufbau principle

B) Hund's Rule

C) the Pauli principle

D) the wave particle duality principle

E) the uncertainty principle

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

85) Which placement of electrons is never encountered in the ground state configuration of an atom?

A) 3d4 with 4 unpaired electrons

B) 3d7 with 7 unpaired electrons

C) 3p1 with 1 unpaired electron

D) 3d9 with 1 unpaired electron

E) 4f 7 with 7 unpaired electrons

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

86) Which placement of electrons is never encountered in the ground state configuration of an atom?

A) 3d4 with 4 unpaired electrons

B) 3d5 with 5 unpaired electrons

C) 3d6 with 6 unpaired electrons

D) 3d3 with 3 unpaired electrons

E) 3d2 with 2 unpaired electrons

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

87) Which placement of electrons is never encountered in the ground state configuration of an atom?

A) 4p4 with 4 unpaired electrons

B) 4d5 with 5 unpaired electrons

C) 4f 6 with 6 unpaired electrons

D) 4f 3 with 3 unpaired electrons

E) 4p3 with 3 unpaired electrons

Diff: 2

Section: 8.7

88) Which placement of electrons is never encountered in the ground state configuration of an atom?

A) 3d4 with 4 unpaired electrons

B) 3d7 with 3 unpaired electrons

C) 3p1 with 1 unpaired electron

D) 3d9 with 4 unpaired electrons

E) 4f 7 with 7 unpaired electrons

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

89) Which placement of electrons is never encountered in the ground state configuration of an atom?

A) 3d4 with 2 unpaired electrons

B) 3d7 with 3 unpaired electrons

C) 3p1 with 1 unpaired electron

D) 3d8 with 2 unpaired electrons

E) 4d7 with 3 unpaired electrons

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

90) An atom is described as having the electron configuration, [Ar] 4s2 3d5 4f 2. Which element is it?

A) one of the chalcogen family

B) one of the halogen family

C) one of the alkaline earth family

D) one of the lanthanide elements

E) There is no element which fits the description listed above.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

91) Which configuration represents an alkaline earth element?

A) [Ar] 4s1 3d5

B) [Ar] 4s2 3d4

C) [Xe] 5s2 5p1

D) [Xe] 6s2 4f7

E) [Rn] 7s2

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

92) An unidentified element is known to have an electron configuration, [X] ns2, in its ground state. This element must be in the same family as

A) rubidium.

B) radium.

C) radon.

D) arsenic.

E) lead.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

93) Based on its expected electron configuration, element Z = 120

A) should be an inert gas element.

B) should have two unpaired electrons.

C) should be an alkali metal.

D) should be an alkaline earth element.

E) should have four unpaired electrons.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

94) Based on the order in which the subshells are filled and the electron configuration of atoms, element Z = 111

A) should be a transition element.

B) should be an alkali metal.

C) should be a halogen element.

D) should be an actinide element.

E) should be a noble gas element.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

95) The values of n for the valence shells of Sb, Ca, I, and Po are, respectively:

A) 3, 4, 5, 6

B) 5, 5, 6, 6

C) 3, 4, 3, 6

D) 5, 6, 5, 4

E) 5, 4, 5, 6

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

96) A correct description for the electron configuration of an iron atom is

A) [Ar] 3s2 3d6, paramagnetic.

B) [Ar] 4s2 3d6, diamagnetic.

C) [Ar] 4s1 3d7, paramagnetic.

D) [Ar] 3d8, paramagnetic.

E) [Ar] 4s2 3d6, paramagnetic.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

97) Which atom has the electron configuration of [Ar]4s23d104p3?

A) P

B) As

C) Sb

D) Bi

E) N

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

98) A correct description for the electron configuration of a vanadium atom is

A) [Ar] 4s1 3d4, paramagnetic.

B) [Ar] 4s2 3d3, paramagnetic.

C) [Ar] 4s3 3d2, paramagnetic.

D) [Ar] 4d5, paramagnetic.

E) [Ar] 3s2 3d3, paramagnetic.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

99) A correct description for the electron configuration of a chromium atom is

A) [Ar] 4s1 3d5, paramagnetic.

B) [Ar] 4s2 3d4, paramagnetic.

C) [Ar] 4s3 3d3, paramagnetic.

D) [Ar] 3d6, paramagnetic.

E) [Ar] 3s2 3d4, paramagnetic.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

100) A correct description for the electron configuration of a selenium atom is

A) [Ar] 4s1 3d10 4p5, paramagnetic.

B) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p4, paramagnetic.

C) [Ar] 4s2 3d8 4p6, paramagnetic.

D) [Ar] 3d10 4p6, diamagnetic.

E) [Ar] 4s1 3d9 4p6, paramagnetic.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

101) Which of the following are expected to be diamagnetic in their ground state electron configurations: S, Xe, Hg, P, Br?

A) S, Xe, and Br

B) Hg, Xe, and Br

C) Hg and Xe

D) S, P, and Br

E) All are diamagnetic.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

102) Which configuration represents an excited state configuration (that is, one which is not a ground state, yet does not violate the Pauli principle)?

A) [Ar] 4s1 3d5

B) [Ar] 4s2 3d4

C) [Xe] 5s2 5p1

D) [Xe] 6s2 4f7

E) [Rn] 7s2

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

103) Which configuration represents a situation that cannot exist for a ground state or for an excited state (because it violates the Pauli principle)?

A) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p5

B) [Xe] 5s2 4d10 5p4

C) [Rn] 7s2 5f 8

D) [Kr] 5s1 4d6

E) [Ne] 6s1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

104) Which of the following choices is the correct electron configuration for a sulfur atom?

3s 3p_

A) [Ne] ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑

B) [Ne] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑

C) [Ne] ↑ ↑↓ ↑ ↑↓

D) [Ne] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓

E) [Ne] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

105) Which of the following choices is the correct electron configuration for a vanadium atom?

4s _______3d________

A) [Ar] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑

B) [Ar] ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑

C) [Ar] ↑_ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑

D) [Ar] ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑

E) [Ar] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

106) Which of the following choices is the correct electron configuration for a cobalt atom?

4s 3d

A) [Ar] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑

B) [Ar] ↑ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓

C) [Ar] ↑ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑

D) [Ar] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑

E) [Ar] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

107) Based on the aufbau principle and other applicable guiding principles, what electron configuration would one reasonably expect to find for technetium (Z = 43)?

A) [Kr] 4s2 3d5

B) [Kr] 4s2 4d5

C) [Kr] 4d7

D) [Kr] 5s2 4d5

E) [Kr] 5s2 5d5

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

108) Which configuration represents a nonexistent state?

A) [Ar] 4s1 3d5

B) [Ar] 4s2 3d4

C) [Xe] 5s2 5p1

D) [Xe] 6s2 4f 7

E) [Rn] 7s2

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

109) Which configuration represents a halogen element?

A) [Ar] 4s13d5

B) [Ar] 4s23d4

C) [Kr] 5s24d105p5

D) [Xe] 6s24f 7

E) [Xe] 6s24f 145d106p4

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

110) How many pairs of electrons are present in the 3d subshell in the ground state electron configuration of the Cu atom?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 3

D) 5

E) 4.5

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

111) Which of the following metals are expected to be paramagnetic in their ground state electron configurations: Ca, Ti, Cd, Cu, Al?

Hint: Look for unpaired electrons.

A) All are paramagnetic.

B) Al, Ti, and Cu

C) Ca, Cd, and Ti

D) Cd, Cu, and Ca

E) Ca, Al, and Cu

Diff: 3

Section: 7.8

112) Which of the following are expected to be paramagnetic in their ground state electron configurations: S, Ne, Cd, Si, Cl?

Hint: Look for unpaired electrons.

A) S, Ne, and Cl

B) Cd, Ne, and Cl

C) Cd, Ne, and Si

D) S, Si, and Cl

E) All are paramagnetic.

Diff: 3

Section: 7.8

113) A sulfur atom has how many valence electrons?

A) 16

B) 14

C) 8

D) 6

E) 4

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

114) A nitrogen atom has how many valence electrons?

A) 16

B) 12

C) 5

D) 6

E) 4

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

115) Which statement is false?

A) The probability of finding an electron at a given point in space is equal to the square of the amplitude of the electron wave.

B) The electron density in an orbital ends abruptly at some imaginary circumference enclosing 90% of the electron density.

C) The p orbitals have the electron density equally distributed in two regions on opposite sides of the nucleus.

D) All s orbitals are spherical in shape.

E) Within the 2s orbital, there are certain places where the electron density drops to zero.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.9

116) Which statement best describes the d orbitals?

A) There are 5 of them: 4 clover-shaped, one dumbbell-shaped with a donut around the center.

B) There are 5 of them: 5 clover-shaped.

C) There are 3 of them: 3 clover-shaped.

D) There are 3 of them: 3 dumbbell-shaped.

E) There are 7 of them: 6 clover-shaped, one dumbbell-shaped with a donut around the center.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.9

117) Which statement is true?

A) A 3p orbital has four lobes, one in each of the four quadrants.

B) All 3d orbitals have the same shape, just different orientations.

C) The 7s orbital can be represented by a sphere.

D) A 3p orbital has the same energy as a 2p orbital.

E) None of these statements above are true.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.9

118) Which atom would have the largest effective nuclear charge for its valence electrons?

A) Li

B) Be

C) B

D) C

E) N

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

119) Which atom has the smallest radius?

A) Ca

B) Ba

C) K

D) Mg

E) C

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

120) Which atom has the largest radius?

A) Ca

B) Ba

C) Al

D) Mg

E) C

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

121) Which atom has the smallest radius?

A) Rb

B) Na

C) Al

D) Ne

E) O

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

122) Which atom has the largest radius?

A) Rb

B) Na

C) Al

D) Ne

E) O

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

123) Which atom has the smallest radius?

A) Ar

B) Ca

C) K

D) Mg

E) Na

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

124) Which atom has the largest first ionization energy?

A) Al

B) Sr

C) Ga

D) Cr

E) Fr

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

125) Which atom has the smallest first ionization energy?

A) Rb

B) Na

C) Al

D) Ne

E) O

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

126) Which atom has the smallest first ionization energy?

A) Ba

B) C

C) Cs

D) K

E) Mg

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

127) Which atom has the most exothermic electron affinity?

A) O

B) He

C) Ga

D) Cr

E) F

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

128) Which atom has the most exothermic electron affinity?

A) Al

B) Sr

C) Ga

D) Cl

E) S

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

129) For which process is the largest amount of energy required?

A) Li(g) → Li+(g) + e-

B) B(g) → B+(g) + e-

C) B2+(g) → B3+(g) + e-

D) B3+(g) → B4+(g) + e-

E) Be+(g) → Be2+(g) + e-

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

130) For which process is the largest amount of energy required?

A) Be+(g) → Be2+(g) + e-

B) Be2+(g) → Be3+(g) + e-

C) B2+(g) → B3+(g) + e-

D) C(g) → C+(g) + e-

E) C2+(g) → C3+(g) + e-

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

131) The decrease in atomic radius as one progresses from element Z = 11 to Z = 18 in the periodic table can be attributed to

A) the increase in the principal quantum number of the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

B) the decrease in the principal quantum number of the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

C) the increase in the effective nuclear charge experienced by the electron(s) in the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

D) the decrease in the effective nuclear charge experienced by the electron(s) in the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

E) the increase in the secondary quantum number of the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

132) The increase in atomic radius as one progresses within the alkali metal family from element Z = 3 to Z = 87 in the periodic table can be attributed to

A) the increase in the principal quantum number of the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

B) the decrease in the principal quantum number of the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

C) the increase in the effective nuclear charge being experienced by the electron(s) in the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

D) the decrease in the effective nuclear charge being experienced by the electron(s) in the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

E) the increase in the secondary quantum number of the outermost occupied orbital in the atom.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

133) Electromagnetic radiation comes in a broad range of frequencies called the ________.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.1

134) The very narrow band of wavelengths ranging from about 400 to 700 nm is called the ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

135) What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of

7.215 × 1016 s-1 (c = 2.998 × 108 m/s)?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

136) What is the frequency of electromagnetic radiation which has a wavelength of 628 nm (c = 2.998 × 108 m/s)?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

137) What is the energy of one photon of visible radiation with a wavelength of 625.3 nm

(c = 2.998 × 108 m/s)?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

138) What is the energy, in joules, of one mole of photons of visible light having a wavelength of 6.235 × 10-6 m (c = 2.998 × 108 m/s)?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

139) In the Rydberg equation, if n1 = 1, an acceptable value of n2 is ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.2

140) What is the wavelength of light emitted by a hydrogen atom when an electrons goes from n = 3 to n = 1? The value of the Rydberg constant for hydrogen is 109,678 cm-1.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.2

141) The lowest energy state of an atom is the most stable one and is called the ________.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.3

142) When an atom absorbs energy it moves from its ground state to its ________.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.3

143) What is the energy required to excite a hydrogen atom by causing an electronic transition from the n = 2 to the n = 5 energy level? Recall that the quantized energies of the levels in the hydrogen atom are given by:

En = - J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.3

144) A wave in which the crests and nodes do not change position is called ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

145) Calculate the wavelength, in meters, of an electron (mass = 9.109 × 10-28 g) that is traveling at 6.50 × 103 m/s (c = 2.998 × 108 m/s).

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

146) Calculate the wavelength, in meters, of a proton (mass = 1.673 × 10-27 kg) that is traveling at 5.30 m/s (c = 2.998 × 108 m/s).

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

147) The maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the following exact same set of quantum numbers is ________.

n = 4 l = 3 ml = -2 ms = +1/2

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

148) The maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the following exact same set of quantum numbers is ________.

n = 3 l = 2 ml = -2

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

149) The maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the following exact same set of quantum numbers is ________.

n = 3 l = 1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

150) The number of orbitals in the shell with n = 3 is ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

151) The number of orbitals in a subshell with l = 3 is ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

152) The number of orbitals in a p subshell is ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

153) The number of orbitals in a d subshell is ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

154) An electron in an atom can be described by solutions to the wave equation. The solutions are

identified by quantum numbers. How many quantum numbers are required for describing one electron in the atom?

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

155) A particular energy level in an atom has a value of 3 for the secondary quantum number. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy this energy level?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

156) In the orbital diagram for boron, the fifth electron can be placed in any one of the 2p orbitals,

because they are all equal in ________.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.7

157) How many completely filled subshells are there in the ground state configuration for a calcium atom?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

158) How many unpaired electrons are in the ground state electron configuration for an iron atom?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

159) The ground-state of ________ has an electron configuration described by the following orbital diagram.

[Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p4

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

160) The ground state electron configuration, using abbreviated electron configuration, for phosphorus is ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

161) The ground state electron configuration, using abbreviated electron configuration, for arsenic is ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

162) The element ________ has the ground state configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

163) An oxygen atom has ________ valence electrons.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

164) A carbon atom has ________ valence electrons.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.8

165) An electron behaves as if it were spread out in space around the nucleus in a sort of ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.9

166) The probability of finding the electron varies in space, and can be represented by the square of the ________.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.9

167) Which atom in the set [O, F, Ne, Ar, Cl, K, Ga] has the greatest electron affinity?

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

168) Which atom in the set [Ba, Cr, N, Sn, Mg, Se] would you expect to have the largest atomic radius?

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

169) Which one of the atoms in the set [Sr, Hf, Hg, Ga, Cr, Fr, Sn] would you expect to have the largest atomic radius?

Diff: 1

Section: 7.10

170) Which atom in the set [Y, Cr, Mg, N, Ba, As, Sn] has the largest first ionization energy?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

171) Which atom in the set [O, F, Ne, Ar, Cl, K, Ga] has the largest first ionization energy?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

172) Which atom in the set [Sr, Fr, Hg, Ga, Cr, Sn] has the smallest first ionization energy?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

173) Which atom in the set [Mg, Cr, N, Sn, Ba, Sn, Se] would you expect to have the smallest first ionization energy?

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

174) The following are the ionization energies for beryllium listed in random order, (1757; 14,845; 899; 21,000). Which value in kJ/mol corresponds to the removal of the second electron from beryllium?

Diff: 2

Section: 8.10

175) The following are all ionization energies for beryllium.

How much energy would be needed to remove three electrons from a ground state beryllium atom?

Diff: 2

Section: 8.10

176) The frequency of a wave is related to the energy of the radiation.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

177) In an electromagnetic wave, an oscillating charge creates an oscillating magnetic field.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

178) According to the photoelectric effect, increasing the intensity of light will always increase the number of electrons that escape the surface of a material.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.1

179) A continuous spectrum contains a series of brightly colored lines observed against a dark background.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.2

180) Atomic hydrogen has a single electron, and therefore produces the simplest emission spectrum with the fewest lines.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.2

181) Atomic hydrogen has a single electron, and therefore its emission contains only one line.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.2

182) Bohr's theory was not able to adequately explain the spectra of atoms containing two or more electrons.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.3

183) The lowest energy state of the hydrogen atom is the most stable one, and occurs when its electron has n = 1, which brings the electron closest to the nucleus.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.3

184) One way in which very small particles display wavelike behavior is their ability to be diffracted

when they are in beams.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.4

185) The amplitude of a wave at any given point is related to the probability of finding the electron at that location.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.4

186) For a given value of n, the angular momentum quantum number, l, ranges from l = 0 to .

Diff: 1

Section: 7.5

187) When n = 2, there are two subshells — the first is for n = 2 and l = 0, while the second is for and .

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

188) For every value of n, there is an s subshell.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

189) An electron with an n = 2 quantum number may also have a quantum number l = 2.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

190) An electron with an n = 3 quantum number may also have a quantum number l = 0.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

191) The spinning electrical charge of the electron creates its own magnetic field.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.6

192) The spin of the electron is responsible for the fourth quantum number, called the spin quantum number, ms.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

193) It is possible for three of the four quantum numbers to be the same for a pair of electrons.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

194) The last electron of the aluminum atom is placed in the 3p orbital of lowest energy before placing an electron in any other 3p orbital.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

195) The set of 3d orbitals is populated with electrons prior to any electrons being placed in the 4s orbital.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.7

196) In the orbital diagram for carbon in the ground state, the sixth electron cannot be placed in any one of the 2p orbitals because it must be placed in an empty orbital.

Diff: 1

Section: 7.7

197) In the tellurium atom, the electron configuration is [Ar] 4d10 4s2 4p6.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

198) The structure of the periodic table can be correlated with the electron configuration of the elements.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

199) There are more unpaired electrons in the ground state electron configuration of a chromium atom than of a manganese atom.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

200) The directions of maximum electron density of the three p orbitals are mutually perpendicular to each other.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.9

201) The uncertainty principle explains the fact that certain atoms, for instance silver, have different electronic configurations in their ground states than predicted by the aufbau principle.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.9

202) The statement that the position and velocity of a particle cannot be known simultaneously is explained by the uncertainty principle.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.9

203) Generally speaking, both anions and cations have larger radii than their parent atoms.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

204) A good rule of thumb is: the higher the atomic number, the greater the electronegativity of the atom.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

205) Large steps in ionization energy are observed for most elements due to the fact that half full and full subshells have extra stability, and therefore take more energy to remove an electron than would be predicted by the normal trend.

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

206) The operation of the electron microscope is based on the particle nature of the electron.

Diff: 1

Section: Chemistry and Current Affairs 7.1

207) The diffraction of electrons is the principle on which the electron microscope is based.

Diff: 1

Section: Chemistry and Current Affairs 7.1

208) The electron microscope makes use of the waves associated with very slow moving electrons in order to observe small objects.

Diff: 2

Section: Chemistry and Current Affairs 7.1

209) The electron microscope makes use of the waves associated with fast moving electrons in order to observe small objects.

Diff: 2

Section: Chemistry and Current Affairs 7.1

210) Kevin is working on a summer project in which he is using a tunable dye laser. At first, he used radiation on a wavelength of 488.5 nm. After two weeks, his research advisor told him to increase the energy by another 55.0 kJ per mole and repeat the radiation effect tests. What wavelength should he then use? (Use c = 2.998 × 108 m/s)

Hint: Account for the added energy in your formula.

Diff: 3

Section: 7.1

211) Calculate the number of moles of photons required to heat 245 mL of water from 22.5°C to its boiling temperature in a microwave oven, which operates at a frequency of 12.50 cm. Assume the density of water is 1.0 g/mL and the specific heat capacity of water is 4.184 J/g ∙ °C.

Hint: Water boils at 100 °C. Watch your units when solving this problem.

A) 4.55 × 1021 mol photons

B) 3.04 × 1018 mol photons

C) 7.79 × 10-5 mol photons

D) 8.30 × 104 mol photons

E) 5.53 × 102 mol photons

Diff: 3

Section: 7.1

212) A lamp that generates 25 W of energy (1 W = 1 J·s-1) emits 5.5 × 1019 photons of light

in 1 s. Calculate the wavelength (in nm) of the emitted light.

Hint: Use your energy in watts and convert to J/s.

Diff: 3

Section: 7.1

213) Calculate the wavelength of the transition from n = 2 to n = 3 for an ion with a single electron, where the charge on the ion is +2.

Hint: Use the Rydberg equation when calculating transition wavelength.

Diff: 3

Section: 7.2

214) A line in the Balmer series of the hydrogen emission spectrum occurs at 397 nm. Calculate the value of n for the Bohr orbit involved in the emission of this light.

Hint: The Balmer series

Diff: 3

Section: 7.2

215) Calculate the energy difference between the two energy levels that are responsible for the line that has a wavelength of 285.2 nm in an emission spectrum of an atom.

A) 4.017 × 10-21 J

B) 3.043 × 10-18 J

C) 5.192 × 10-15 J

D) 7.254 × 10-18 J

E) 6.965 × 10-19 J

Diff: 2

Section: 7.3

216) What is the speed at which a neutron is travelling if it has a wavelength of 10.0 pm?

Hint: You are calculating the speed of the particle for this question, not using the speed of light.

A) 1.08 × 103 m/s

B) 3.96 × 104 m/s

C) 4.48 × 105 m/s

D) 4.05 × 106 m/s

E) 2.77 × 102 m/s

Diff: 3

Section: 7.4

217) What is the wavelength of a single oxygen molecule traveling at a speed of 1165.7 miles per hour?

Hint: Convert your units. 1 mile = 1609.34 meters.

A) 1.080 pm

B) 23.94 pm

C) 102.9 pm

D) 65.77 pm

E) 48.23 pm

Diff: 3

Section: 7.4

218) How many orbitals are in the shell in which the principal quantum number, n = 4?

A) 2

B) 8

C) 16

D) 32

E) 50

Diff: 2

Section: 7.5

219) How many electrons can be placed in a shell in which the principal quantum number, n = 3?

A) 2

B) 8

C) 16

D) 32

E) 18

Diff: 2

Section: 7.6

220) How many unpaired electrons are in gold?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

E) 1

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

221) Which of the following choices represent an electron configuration for an oxygen atom in an excited state?

Hint: What is the difference between ground state and excited state?

A) 1s2 2s2 2p4

B) 1s2 2s2 2p5

C) 1s2 2s2 2p3 3s1

D) 1s2 2s2 2p3

E) 1s2 2s2 2p6

Diff: 3

Section: 7.8

222) Which of the following choices is the correct electron configuration for a silver atom, based off of experimental evidence?

5s 4d 5p

A) [Kr] ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ __ __ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓

B) [Kr] ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑

C) [Kr] ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑↓ ↑ ↑

D) [Kr] ↑ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓

E) [Kr] ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓

Diff: 2

Section: 7.8

223) When one thinks of the size of an atom as being determined by the region occupied by the electron cloud for the outermost electrons, its "radius" can be imagined. Typically, for an atom this "radius" would be about

A) 2 picometers

B) 20 picometers

C) 200 picometers

D) 2 nanometers

E) 20 nanometers

Diff: 2

Section: 7.9

224) Which reaction is most exothermic?

A) F(g) + e- → F-(g)

B) F-(g) + e- → F2-(g)

C) F2-(g) + e- → F3-(g)

D) F3-(g) + e- → F4-(g)

E) F4-(g) + e- → F5-(g)

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

225) Which reaction is most exothermic?

A) Cl(g) + e- → Cl-(g)

B) He(g) + e- → He-(g)

C) Ar(g) + e- → Ar-(g)

D) O-(g) + e- → O2-(g)

E) N2-(g) + e- → N3-(g)

Diff: 2

Section: 7.10

© 2022 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. All rights reserved. Instructors who are authorized users of this course are permitted to download these materials and use them in connection with the course. Except as permitted herein or by law, no part of these materials should be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise.