Test Bank Docx Ch2 Atomic structure and Nuclear Radiation

Test questions for Chapter 2

Atomic structure and Nuclear Radiation

1. The most common nutritional deficiency in the world is_____.
   1. scurvy
   2. anemia
   3. kwashiorkor
   4. rickets
   5. pellagra
2. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of iron deficiency?
   1. dizziness
   2. shortness of breath
   3. frequent urination
   4. headaches
   5. fatigue
3. Which of the following diagrams of an atom best represents the scale of the nucleus and electrons?

a. b. c. d. e.

.

.

nucleus electrons nucleus electrons nucleus electrons nucleus electrons nucleus electrons

1. According to the current model of the atom, the part of the diagram labeled A is made up of

A

B

• 1. protons.
  2. neutrons.
  3. electrons.
  4. protons and neutrons.
  5. protons, neutrons, and electrons.

1. According to the current model of the atom, the part of the diagram labeled B is made up of

A

B

1. protons.
2. neutrons.
3. electrons.
4. protons and neutrons.
5. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
6. Which of the following statements about the model of the atom is true?
   1. The nucleus is much less dense than the surrounding electrons.
   2. Electrons orbit the nucleus like planets around the Sun.
   3. This is the first model of the atom.
   4. The atom is mostly empty space.
   5. The model of the atom was developed by looking directly at an atom.
7. Which of the following statements describes how our model of the atom has changed?
   1. The model of the atom has never changed.
   2. Electrons are now commonly directly observed.
   3. Electrons are now known to orbit the nucleus like a planet orbits the Sun.
   4. The path of a single electron can now be followed exactly.
   5. We now determine the probabality of finding an electron in a region of space.
8. The nucleus is composed of _____.

a. protons

b. neutrons

c. electrons

d. protons and neutrons

e. protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. _____ have a negative charge.

a. Protons

b. Neutrons

c. Electrons

d. Protons and neutrons

e. Protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. _____ have a positive charge.

a. Protons

b. Neutrons

c. Electrons

d. Protons and neutrons

e. Protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. _____ are neutral.

a. Protons

b. Neutrons

c. Electrons

d. Protons and neutrons

e. Protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. _____ are the subatomic particles that have the smallest mass.

a. Protons

b. Neutrons

c. Electrons

d. Protons and neutrons

e. Protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. _____ have a mass of approximately 1 amu.

a. Protons

b. Neutrons

c. Electrons

d. Protons and neutrons

e. Protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. The identity of an element is determined by its number of _____.

a. protons

b. neutrons

c. electrons

d. protons and neutrons

e. protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. _____ determine the physical and chemical characteristics of an atom.

a. Protons

b. Neutrons

c. Electrons

d. Protons and neutrons

e. Protons, neutrons, and electrons

1. Which pair correctly matches an element to its atomic number?
   1. 9.012 – Be
   2. 12.01 – C
   3. 39.94 – Ar
   4. 9 – F
   5. 133 – Cs
2. Which pair does NOT correctly match an element symbol to its full name?
   1. C – carbon
   2. O – oxygen
   3. H – helium
   4. N- nitrogen
   5. Cl – chlorine
3. Which isotope in Zirconium is the lightest?

• 1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

1. Which isotope in Zirconium is the least abundant?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
6. Which isotope in Zirconium has the fewest number of neutrons?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
6. The average atomic mass of zirconium is

1. less than 90 because the atomic mass only depends on the number of protons in the atom.
2. 90 because ⁹⁰Zn has the highest natural abundance.
3. greater than 90 but less than 96 because the atomic mass takes into account the abundance of all naturally occurring isotopes.
4. 96 because the atomic mass is the mass of the highest naturally occurring isotope.
5. greater than 96 because the atomic mass is the sum of masses of the naturally occurring isotopes.
6. Which of the following statements about isotopes is false?
7. Isotopes are atoms with same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
8. Most elements naturally have more than one isotope.
9. Isotopes are atoms with the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
10. An isotope with more neutrons will have a greater mass than an isotope with fewer neutrons.
11. All of the above are true.
12. An atom of carbon containing 7 neutrons can be written which of the following ways?

¹³C ¹²C carbon-13 carbon-12 C-12 C-14

I II III IV V VI

1. All of the choices are correct.
2. II, IV, or V
3. I, III
4. I, II
5. III, IV
6. What is the mass number of an atom of oxygen with 7 neutrons?
7. 1
8. 7
9. 8
10. 15
11. 15.9994
12. According to the periodic table, what types of elements are in group 7A?
    1. transition metals
    2. noble gases
    3. alkali earth metals
    4. alkali metals
    5. halogens
13. The elements numbered 21-30 are examples of _______..
    1. transition metals
    2. noble gases
    3. alkali earth metals
    4. alkali metals
    5. halogens
14. The periods are the _____ of the periodic table.
    1. transition metals
    2. halogens
    3. rows
    4. columns
    5. numbers
15. According to the periodic table, the atomic number of potassium (K) is ______. ?
    1. 4
    2. 19
    3. 39.10
    4. K
    5. 2
16. According to the periodic table, the atomic mass of potassium (K) is ______. ?
    1. 4
    2. 19
    3. 39.10
    4. K
    5. 2
17. According to the periodic table, which element is in period 4, group 6A?
    1. Cr
    2. La
    3. Ga
    4. Se
    5. Al
18. According to the periodic table, which element is found in period 2, group 5A?
    1. nitrogen
    2. vanadium
    3. strontium
    4. boron
    5. cadmium
19. According to the periodic table, which of the following sets of terms accurately describes chlorine?

Metal Halogen Alkaline earth element Atomic number 35

I II III IV

1. I only
2. II only
3. I and II
4. II and IV
5. III and IV
6. An element is a solid at room temperature and a shiny, metallic grey. However, it is a poor conductor of electricity and temperature and it is also brittle. Which of the following elements fits this description?
   1. oxygen
   2. lithium
   3. helium
   4. antimony
   5. iron
7. Which of the following terms is NOT a characteristic of a metal?
   1. malleable
   2. a good conductor of heat
   3. a good conductor of electricity
   4. shiny
   5. a gas at room temperature
8. The number of protons is equal to the _____ in a neutral atom.
   1. number of neutrons
   2. number of electrons
   3. mass number
   4. average atomic mass
   5. group number
9. What is the atomic number of element X?

⁵⁶X

25

• 1. 25
  2. 56
  3. 81
  4. 31
  5. None of the above values is the atomic number.

1. What is the mass number of element X?

⁵⁶X

25

• 1. 25
  2. 56
  3. 81
  4. 31
  5. None of the above values is the mass number.

1. How many electrons are in a neutral atom of element X?

⁵⁶X

25

• 1. 25
  2. 56
  3. 81
  4. 31
  5. None of the above values is the number of electrons.

1. What is the identity of element X?

⁵⁶X

25

• 1. xenon
  2. manganese
  3. gold
  4. copper
  5. iron

1. _____ make up the majority of compounds found in living organisms.
2. Building-block elements
3. Macronutrients
4. Micronutrients
5. Metals
6. Metalloids
7. Most of the micronutrients are
8. transition metals.
9. metalloids.
10. nonmetals.
11. alkali earth metals.
12. noble gases.
13. Micro- and macronutrients are
    1. equally distributed throughout the body.
    2. all metals and metalloids.
    3. obtained through the diet.
    4. only found in the first three periods of the periodic table.
    5. all required in quantities of more than 100 mg per day.
14. Which of the following is NOT a building block element?
    1. C
    2. H
    3. O
    4. N
    5. These are all building block elements.
15. _____ is an important component of hemoglobin. Without this protein, tissues become starved of oxygen and fatigue and shortness of breath results.

a. Iodine

b. Flourine

c. Zinc

d. Iron

e. Oxygen

1. _____ is most commonly ingested along with salt.

a. Iodine

b. Flourine

c. Zinc

d. Iron

e. Oxygen

1. Adding _____ to drinking water is a common practice in many cities, meant to strengthen tooth enamel and decrease dental cavities.

a. iodine

b. flourine

c. zinc

d. iron

e. oxygen

1. _____ is an important component of the immune system as well as required by many enzymes.

a. Iodine

b. Flourine

c. Zinc

d. Iron

e. Oxygen

1. Which atom has two core electrons and one valence electron?

1. H
2. He
3. H and He
4. Li
5. All of the above
6. Which atom is in its ground state?

1. H
2. He
3. H and He
4. Li
5. All of the above
6. Which atom has the largest diameter?

1. H
2. He
3. H and He
4. Li
5. All of the above have the same diameter.
6. Which electron shell is closest to the nucleus of the atom?

a. n =1

b. n =2

c. n =3

d. n =4

e. All electrons are equally close to the nucleus.

1. Which electron shell is lowest in energy?

a. n =1

b. n =2

c. n =3

d. n =4

e. All electrons are equal in energy.

1. According to the periodic table, how many electron shells do the elements in the third row have?
   1. 1
   2. 2
   3. 3
   4. 4
   5. It depends on the specific element.
2. According to the periodic table, how many valence electrons do the elements in the third row have?
   1. 3
   2. 4
   3. 5
   4. 8
   5. It depends on the specific element.
3. According to the periodic table, how many valence electrons do the elements in group 7A have?
   1. 5
   2. 6
   3. 7
   4. 8
   5. It depends on the specific element.
4. Which element is this?

nucleus

2 e^-

8 e^-

2 e^-

A

B

C

• 1. beryllium
  2. magnesium
  3. oxygen
  4. neon
  5. calcium

1. Which shell is the valence shell?

nucleus

2 e^-

8 e^-

2 e^-

A

B

C

• 1. shell A
  2. shell B
  3. shell C
  4. shells A and B
  5. shells B and C

1. How many electrons are in the valence shell?

nucleus

2 e^-

8 e^-

2 e^-

A

B

C

• 1. 12
  2. 10
  3. 8
  4. 4
  5. 2

1. How many electrons are core electrons?

nucleus

2 e^-

8 e^-

2 e^-

A

B

C

• 1. 12
  2. 10
  3. 8
  4. 4
  5. 2

1. The element chlorine has three electron shells. How many electrons are in each shell?

1. Electron shells closest to the nucleus are occupied before electron shells farther from the nucleus because the electrons shells closest to the nucleus are
   1. pulled toward the nucleus by gravity.
   2. protected by the outer shell.
   3. attracted to the nucleus for reasons unknown.
   4. more stable than electrons farther from the nucleus.
   5. Actually, electrons farther from the nucleus are filled first.
2. The size of atoms generally increases as the number of
   1. electron shells increases.
   2. electrons in the valence shell increases.
   3. neutrons in atoms increases.
   4. protons increases.
   5. All atoms are the same size.
3. Which element would you expect to be the largest?
   1. fluorine
   2. chlorine
   3. argon
   4. calcium
   5. hydrogen
4. Nonmetals typically ______ and metals typically ______.
   1. donate electrons; accept electrons
   2. accept electrons; donate electrons
   3. donate protons; accept protons
   4. accept protons; donate protons
   5. donate neutrons; accept neutrons
5. The energy diagram below is for an ion of magnesium. The charge on this ion is _______ making the ion a _______.

• 1. −10; anion
  2. −2; anion
  3. −2; cation
  4. + 2; anion
  5. + 2; cation

1. How many electrons are in the valence shell of the ion represented by the energy diagram shown below?
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12
5. 22
6. 0
7. The energy diagram below is for an ion of magnesium. To make this ion, the atom that it came from had to_________.

1. become a different atom.
2. gain electrons.
3. become a nonmetal.
4. lose electrons.
5. become a metal.
6. Oxygen is a _______ and therefore _______ when it forms an ion.
   1. metal; loses electrons
   2. metal; gains electrons
   3. nonmetal; loses electrons
   4. nonmetal; gains electrons
   5. metalloid; loses electrons
7. Elements in group 6A (16) have a −2 charge when they are in compounds. Which of the following statements best explains the reason for this observation?
8. These elements accept two electrons to increase in energy.
9. These elements donate two electrons during the bonding process.
10. These elements accept two electrons so that their valence shells are full.
11. These elements donate two electrons to minimize their mass.
12. There is no way to rationalize this; it is just an observation.
13. Which of the following elements forms a cation?
    1. carbon
    2. phosphorous
    3. krypton
    4. nickel
    5. iodine
14. Which of the following groups of elements forms anions?
15. noble gases
16. transition metals
17. alkaline metals
18. alkali earth metals
19. halogens
20. The conventional way of writing the symbol for an ion of calcium is
21. calcium-18.
22. Ar.
23. Ca⁻¹⁸.
24. Ca⁺².
25. Ca₊₂.
26. Elements in group 17 (7A) of the periodic table are likely to form ions with the charge
27. −3.
28. −2.
29. −1.
30. +1.
31. +2.
32. Elements in group 1A of the periodic table are likely to form ions with the charge
33. −3.
34. −2.
35. −1.
36. +1.
37. +2.
38. Isotopes are
    1. elements with the same number of electrons but different numbers of protons.
    2. elements with the same number of protons but different numbers of electrons.
    3. elements with the same number of electrons but different numbers of neutrons.
    4. elements with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
    5. elements with the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.
39. Which of the following is NOT true for the atoms ¹²C, ¹³C, and ¹⁴C?
40. They all have six electrons.
41. They all have the same mass number.
42. They all have the same atomic number.
43. They are isotopes.
44. They all have six protons.
45. Radioactive isotopes are
46. very stable isotopes.
47. highly chemically reactive.
48. unstable isotopes.
49. charged species.
50. unusually nonreactive.
51. Select the choice in which atomic number, mass number, number of neutrons, and number of protons listed is correct for phosphorous-32.

1. Which of the following elements has a mass number of 35 and an atomic number of 17?
2. chlorine
3. bromine
4. argon
5. tellurium
6. sulfur-35
7. Which of the following is NOT the same for different isotopes of the same element?
8. atomic number
9. number of protons
10. number of electrons
11. charge
12. mass number
13. Which of the following is NOT a type of radiation that comes from the decay of radioisotopes?
14. microwaves
15. x-rays
16. gamma rays
17. alpha particle
18. beta particle
19. What fraction of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible to humans?
20. about two-thirds of it
21. half of it
22. about one-quarter of it
23. a very small fraction of it
24. none of it
25. Which of the following colors has the lowest energy?
26. red
27. orange
28. yellow
29. green
30. blue
31. What is the relationship between the energy and the wavelength of light?
32. They are proportional.
33. They are inversely proportional.
34. As one increases, so does the other, but not in a linear way.
35. As one increases, the other decreases, but not in a predictable way.
36. They are unrelated in any way.
37. Radioactive decay is the process by which
38. radioisotopes become more stable.
39. radioisotopes emit radiation.
40. radioisotopes emit high-energy particles and/or electromagnetic radiation.
41. an element of one type can change to an element of another type.
42. All of the above
43. What is the most damaging electromagnetic radiation to biological tissue?
44. radiowaves
45. microwaves
46. gamma rays
47. visible light
48. ultraviolet rays
49. The process in which a nucleus spontaneously breaks down by emitting radiation is known as
    1. fusion.
    2. fission.
    3. a chain reaction.
    4. reaction.
    5. radioactive decay.
50. The symbol is used to represent a(n)
51. proton.
52. alpha particle.
53. gamma ray.
54. beta particle.
55. neutron.
56. How is an alpha particle different from an atom of helium?
57. It’s not different at all.
58. It has a different number of protons.
59. It has a different number of neutrons.
60. It has a different number of electrons.
61. It has both a different number of electrons and a different number of protons.
62. The radioisotope undergoing decay is often called the
63. reactant.
64. product.
65. parent nuclide.
66. decayer.
67. daughter nuclide.
68. A nuclear equation is balanced when which of the following is equal on both sides of the equation?
69. identity of the atoms
70. charges on the atoms
71. identity of the radioactive particles
72. sum of the atomic numbers
73. sum of the atomic and mass numbers
74. What type of radiation is emitted when U-235 undergoes radioactive decay?

1. alpha particle
2. beta particle
3. positron
4. gamma ray
5. x-ray
6. Which of the following indicates that an alpha particle has been released during radioactive decay of an atom?
7. The identity of the atom does not change.
8. The mass number of the atom decreases by 4.
9. The atomic number of the atom increases by 1
10. The atomic number of the atom decreases by 1.
11. The atomic number of the atom decreases by 4.
12. In which of the following reactions is the missing particle an alpha particle?

1. The product from the alpha decay of radon-222 is
2. polonium-218.
3. radium-226.
4. polonium-226.
5. radium-218.
6. lead-220.
7. How is a beta particle different from an electron?
8. They are the same.
9. A beta particle is higher energy than a regular electron
10. A regular electron is higher energy than a beta particle.
11. A beta particle is positively charged.
12. A beta particle is positively charged and higher in energy than a regular electron.
13. In which of the following nuclear reactions is the missing particle released a beta particle?

1. In a balanced nuclear reaction, which of the following is consistent with the release of a beta particle? ?
2. The identity of the atom does not change.
3. All radioactive decay releases a beta particle.
4. The mass number decreases by 4.
5. The atomic number increases by 1.
6. The atomic number decreases by 1.
7. What is the identity of the missing daughter nuclide in the following nuclear reaction?

1. beryllium-11
2. beryllium-12
3. beryllium-13
4. carbon-12
5. carbon-13
6. An atom in a metastable state is
7. unusually low in energy.
8. unusually stable.
9. very unreactive.
10. high in energy.
11. emittable.
12. Which of the following changes when gamma radiation is released?
13. atomic number
14. number of protons
15. number of electrons
16. number of neutrons
17. energy of the isotope
18. In which of the following nuclear reactions is only gamma radiation released?

1. In a balanced nuclear reaction, which of the following is consistent with the release of a gamma particle??
2. The identity of the atom does not change.
3. All radioactive decay releases gamma radiation.
4. The mass number decreases by 4.
5. The atomic number increases by 1.
6. The atomic number decreases by 1.
7. The time that it takes a macroscopic sample of a radioisotope to decay to one-half its original activity is known as the
8. reaction rate.
9. kinetics.
10. half-life.
11. lifetime.
12. decay rate.
13. Radioisotopes used in medicine typically have short half-lives. Which of the following statements best describes the reason for this?
14. It minimizes the harmful side effects of the radiation.
15. They are the isotopes that are the easiest to make.
16. These radioisotopes occur naturally.
17. Only small amounts of them are required.
18. These radioisotopes emit the correct type of radioactive particle.
19. Which of the following radioisotope would be least likely to be used in a medical application?
20. barium-131 (half-life = 11.6 days)
21. iodine-131 (half-life = 8 days)
22. technecium-99m (half-life = 6 hours)
23. plutonium-239 (half-life = 2.4 × 10⁴ years)
24. fluorine-18 (109 minutes)
25. Technetium-99m is used in a variety of medical applications. It has a half-life of 6 hours. If 100.0 mg of technetium-99m is prepared at 6:00 AM, how many milligrams are still active when it is needed for diagnostic testing at 6:00 PM?
26. 100.0 mg
27. 50.0 mg
28. 25.0 mg
29. 10.0 mg
30. 5.00 mg
31. Iodine-131 has a half-life of eight days. How many half-lives have passed after 24 days?
32. one half-life
33. two half-lives
34. three half-lives
35. four half-lives
36. five half-lives
37. Carbon-11 has a half-life of 20 minutes. Which of the following equations is used to calculate the amount of carbon-11 remaining after one hour if the starting material a 100-mg sample?
38. 100 mg × ½
39. 100 mg/3
40. 100 mg/20
41. 100 mg/20/20/20
42. 100 mg × ½ × ½ × ½
43. According to the graph, what is the half-life in years of ²²⁶Ra?

1. 8000 years
2. 6400 years
3. 4800 years
4. 3200 years
5. 1600 years
6. According the graph, what percent of radium-226 remains after three half-lives?

1. 100%
2. 50%
3. 25%
4. 12.5%
5. 6.25%
6. According to the graph, radioactive decay is a(n) _________ in radioactivity as a function of time.

1. linear decrease
2. linear increase
3. exponential decrease
4. exponential increase
5. random decrease
6. Phosphorous-32 is a beta emitter with a half-life of 14.3 days. So, after 42 days, a 100-mg sample will have decayed to 25 mg. Which statement best describes where the rest of the ³²P went?
7. It disappeared.
8. It reacted with air.
9. It turned into sulfur and a beta particle.
10. It turned into silicon and a beta particle.
11. It decomposed into beta particles.
12. Which of the following is the best definition of the term “ionizing radiation”?
13. This is radiation that has enough energy to dislodge a valence electron from an atom.
14. This is the radiation that is released during a nuclear reaction.
15. This is any electromagnetic radiation.
16. This is any nuclear or electromagnetic radiation.
17. This is any long-wavelength electromagnetic radiation.
18. How is an atom in the body changed once it is hit with ionizing radiation?
19. It becomes positively charged.
20. It becomes negatively charged.
21. It becomes a new isotope.
22. It becomes a new element.
23. It falls apart.

1. How is ionizing radiation damaging to the body?
2. It can cause DNA damage.
3. It can cause gene mutations.
4. It can cause cell death.
5. It can cause radiation sickness.
6. All of the above
7. Which of the following types of radiation can be stopped by light clothing?
8. beta particles
9. alpha particles
10. gamma rays
11. x-rays
12. All of the above
13. Which of the following statement best describes why alpha particles are not frequently used in medical applications?
14. Their half-lives are too long.
15. They can do too much damage at close range.
16. They are difficult to transport.
17. They require too much shielding.
18. Their penetrating power is too great.
19. What sort of protection should be used when working with gamma emitters?
20. a lead shield
21. heavy clothing
22. a sheet of aluminum
23. a very thick slab of concrete
24. None is needed at all because they are not very penetrating.
25. Which of the following does NOT need to be considered when determining what sort of protection against ionizing radiation must be used?
26. type of ionizing radiation
27. energy of the radiation
28. duration of contact with the ionizing radiation
29. penetrating power of the ionizing radiation
30. All of the above should be considered.
31. Why is it necessary to shield yourself from gamma radiation and beta and alpha particles, but not from radiowaves or microwaves?
32. Radiowaves and microwaves do not have much penetrating power.
33. Radiowaves and microwaves are lower in energy, so they are not ionizing.
34. Radiowaves and microwaves are higher in energy, so they pass through the body without adverse effect.
35. Radiowaves and microwaves are not electromagnetic radiation.
36. Gamma radiation and beta and alpha particles are not ionizing.
37. A Geiger counter can be used to obtain a measurement
38. of effective dose.
39. of absorbed dose.
40. in rems or Rads.
41. of the number of radioactive emissions.
42. in grays.
43. Which of the following describes a benefit of using rems to measure the quantity of radiation that a patient has received instead of curies?
44. Rems measure the biological effect of radiation, not just quantity.
45. Curies measure the biological effect of radiation, not just quantity.
46. Rems measure the amount of energy absorbed, not just quantity.
47. Curies measure the amount of energy absorbed, not just quantity.
48. There is no benefit.
49. Effective dose measurements take into account the ______ of a type of radiation.
50. energy
51. penetrating ability
52. biological effect
53. quantity
54. All of the above
55. During a CT scan of the head and body, a patient receives 100 mrad of gamma radiation. What is the effective dose of gamma radiation that the patient received? Note that the quality factor for gamma radiation is 1.
56. 100 mrem
57. 0.010 rem
58. 1 mrem
59. 0.1 mrem
60. 0.01 mrem
61. Which of the following statements best interprets the statement below?

The LD_{50 ­}for radiation is an acute dose of 3–4 Sv.

1. Exposure to 50 mg of a radiation source will result in radiation poisoning.
2. Exposure to 50 mg of a radiation source will result in death.
3. Fifty percent of people exposed to this dose will get sick within one month of the exposure.
4. Fifty percent of people exposed to this dose will die within one month of the exposure.
5. 4 to 6 Sv is the maximum dose that 50% of people can undergo without long term injury.
6. What sort of information do the units used in this table take into account?

1. energy of the radiation
2. penetrating ability of the radiation
3. quality factor of the radiation
4. quantity of the radiation
5. All of the above
6. What is the minimum dosage in which people are observed to die from radiation sickness?

1. 0.2−0.5 Sv
2. 0.5−1.0 Sv
3. 1.0−2.0 Sv
4. 2−3 Sv
5. 3−4 Sv
6. Which of the following choices describes an acute dose of radiation?
7. the dose that an x-ray technician receives over the course of her career
8. the dose that a scientist receives while working with radioactive materials for a multiyear research project
9. the annual dose that a pilot is expose to
10. the dose that is received by handling a highly radioactive source
11. the annual dose that we all receive as a result of background radiation
12. Which of the imaging technique(s) listed below is a noninvasive procedure?
    • 1. x-ray
      2. magnetic resonance imaging
      3. computed tomography
13. I only
14. I and II
15. I and III
16. II and III
17. All of the above are noninvasive procedures.
18. The figure below is an example of which of the following imaging technique(s)?
19. x-ray
20. magnetic resonance imaging
21. computed tomography

© David Frazier/Corbis

1. I only
2. II only
3. I and III
4. II and III
5. This figure could be any of these imaging techniques.
6. Which of the imaging technique(s) listed below is harmless to the patient?
7. x-ray
8. magnetic resonance imaging
9. computed tomography
10. I only
11. II only
12. I and III
13. II and III
14. All of the above
15. Which of the method(s) of imaging listed below produces three-dimensional images?
16. x-ray
17. magnetic resonance imaging
18. computed tomography
19. I only
20. II only
21. I and III
22. II and III
23. All of the above
24. Which of the method(s) of imaging listed below uses x-rays?
25. x-ray
26. magnetic resonance imaging
27. computed tomography
28. I only
29. II only
30. I and III
31. II and III
32. All of the above
33. What type of molecules is responsible for an MRI image?
34. calcium in bones
35. lipids in cells
36. proteins in the body
37. water
38. air
39. In which of the following diseases and injuries would MRI be useful in diagnosis?
40. broken ribs
41. complex fractures
42. a broken ankle
43. brain injuries
44. all of the above