—Prenatal Development And + Chapter 3 | Test Bank + Answers

Name _______________________________

Chapter 3—Prenatal Development and Childbirth—Quick Quiz 1

1. According to the text, about what percent of fertilized eggs are lost within the first two weeks following conception?

a. 2–3%

b. 5–9%

c. 25%

d. 60–70%

2. Suppose that Judy’s menstrual cycle begins on the first day of July. On which day should she expect that ovulation will occur?

a. July 1

b. July 10

c. July 14

d. July 28

3. If a baby were born with no bowel and with complications involving the small intestines as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the:

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. placenta

4. When infants reach the age of viability at 24 weeks, they have about a ______ % chance of surviving outside of the uterus if given high-quality medical treatment.

a. 90

b. 70

c. 50

d. 10

5. The sequence of growth in which development proceeds from the head toward the feet is known as:

a. gross-to-specific trend

b. proximodistal trend

c. cephalocaudal trend

d. differentiated-to-integrated trend

6. Which of the following mothers is at the greatest risk of having a miscarriage?

a. Anne, who is 20

b. Judy, who is 28

c. Lucretia, who is 35

d. Mary, who is 42

7. If a teratogen interferes with prenatal development only during a particular period of time, the period of development in which the teratogen can exert its effect is called:

a. a teratogenic period

b. a teratogenic stage

c. a critical period

d. a high-risk – low-reward stage

8. An excited father who is watching his daughter be born exclaims with excitement, “I can see her head!” Technically, this would be referred to as:

a. “showing”

b. “crowning”

c. an Apgar of 1

d. traditional childbirth

9. In prepared childbirth, the primary function of the relaxation and breathing techniques used is to:

a. increase the supply of oxygen to the baby during delivery

b. increase the Apgar score of the baby at the time of delivery

c. help the mother cope more effectively with the pain of delivery

d. reduce the carbon dioxide content of the mother’s blood

10 When a neonate’s hand is stimulated by an object such as a finger or a pencil, the infant’s fingers will close tightly in a grasp. This behavior is best considered to be an example of:

a. the plantar reflex

b. the palmar grasp reflex

c. the Moro reflex

d. the Babinski reflex

Name _______________________________

Chapter 3—Prenatal Development and Childbirth—Quick Quiz 2

1. When does ovulation typically occur?

a. during menstruation

b. the day before the onset of menstruation

c. the 14th day after the onset of menstruation

d. the day after menstruation has ceased

2. If a pregnancy test can detect pregnancy within two weeks after fertilization, it most likely works by:

a. detecting the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin in the woman’s urine

b. detecting a rise in the woman’s body temperature from 98.6 to about 99.3

c. detecting the presence of a much higher percentage of alpha brain waves during the woman’s sleep cycles

d. detecting a dramatic increase in the acidity of the woman’s urine

3. The digestive system, lungs, and some other internal organs develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo?

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. zygoderm

4. Suppose Dr. Barnes is a fertility specialist who studies the sex of recently fertilized ova. If her research population included all fertilized ova conceived in a population, and if she found that 1,000 of these zygotes were female, she should expect that the population would also include _____ male zygotes.

a. 960

b. 1,000

c. 1,040

d. 1,250

5. Doug is told that his wife should not visit his office during the second and third month of her pregnancy because chemicals there could negatively affect the development of their baby. However, he is also told that it would be safe for her to visit after the fourth month, since the chemicals would not affect fetal development. This example highlights the concept of:

a. critical period

b. gross-to-specific trend

c. fetal development

d. ectopic pregnancy risk

6. Heart defects are especially common when pregnant mothers are exposed to a teratogen during which prenatal period?

a. the germinal period

b. the embryonic period

c. the fetal period

d. the last two weeks before birth

7. Maria is in her ninth month of pregnancy. She begins to feel contractions, but when she gets up and walks around, the contractions go away. Most likely, she has experienced which of the following?

a. showing

b. the first stage of labor

c. the second stage of labor

d. Braxton-Hicks contractions

8. According to the text, traditional childbirth is typically done:

a. in a birthing center

b. in a hospital

c. at home

d. anywhere, including in a birthing center, in a hospital, or at home

9. Suppose a baby is born whose Apgar score is 3. What would such a score most likely indicate?

a. All vital signs are perfect.

b. All vital signs are normal.

c. Some of the baby’s bodily processes are not functioning fully.

d. Immediate emergency measures are required.

10. Jackie is a new mother who says, “I just can’t stand to be away from my baby. I feel so close to him emotionally that I just love him.” Jackie’s comments reflect the core principle involved in:

a. crowning

b. attachment

c. the Moro reflex

d. the Babinski reflex

Quick Quiz Answers

Quick Quiz 3.1

1. d; 3.1.1

2. c; 3.1.1

3. b; 3.1.2

4. c; 3.1.3

5. c; 3.1.4

6. d; 3.2.1

7. c; 3.3

8. b; 3.4.1

9. c; 3.4.2

10. b; 3.5.3

Quick Quiz 3.2

1. c; 3.1.1

2. a; 3.1.1

3. c; 3.1.2

4. d; 3.1.2

5. a; 3.3

6. b; 3.3

7. d; 3.4.1

8. b; 3.4.2

9. d; 3.4.4

10. b; 3.5.3

Chapter 3

Prenatal Development and Childbirth

Learning Objectives:

3.1: Describe the three periods of prenatal development

3.2: Evaluate the impact of maternal health on fetal development

3.3: Analyze the impact of teratogens on fetal development

3.4: Explain how the process of childbirth affects human development

3.5: Characterize the relationship between a neonate and its caregivers

Multiple Choice questions:

Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1: Describe the three periods of prenatal development

3.1. Lacy is 38 years old and has just found out she is pregnant. Although the pregnancy is unintended, Lacy may take some comfort in knowing that unintended pregnancies comprise about what percent of all pregnancies in the United States today?

a. two-thirds

b. half

c. one-third

d. 10%

Module: Chapter Introduction

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, 50% of all U.S. pregnancies are unintended.

3.3. Which type of genetic information is NOT included in a one-celled fertilized egg?

a. genetic instructions for whether the sex of the child will be male or female

b. genetic instructions for how tall the child will likely be at adulthood

c. genetic instructions for eye color

d. All genetic instructions are present from the point of fertilization on.

Module: 3.1: Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: At the time of fertilization, the genetic material of two individuals “fuses” and is translated into a new living entity called a zygote. All of the genetic instructions are present from this point on.

3.4. In a typical normal pregnancy, which of the following statements about the length of trimesters is correct?

a. The first trimester is the longest.

b. The second trimester is the longest.

c. The third trimester is the longest.

d. All trimesters are about the same length.

Module: 3.1: Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.5. What is the correct developmental sequence of the periods of prenatal development?

a. germinal, embryonic, fetal

b. embryonic, fetal, germinal

c. fetal, germinal, embryonic

d. germinal, fetal, embryonic

Module: 3.1: Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: The germinal period lasts from conception through 2 weeks, the embryonic period spans weeks 2 through 8, and the fetal period spans weeks 9 through 38.

3.6. The germinal period of prenatal development begins with conception and ends about ___ later.

a. one trimester

b. two weeks

c. one month

d. 12 weeks

Module: 3.1: Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The germinal period ends when implantation is complete, about two weeks after conception.

3.7. The germinal period of prenatal development occurs during which trimester(s)?

a. the first trimester

b. the second trimester

c. the third trimester

d. the second and third trimesters

Module: 3.1: Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The germinal period lasts from conception through the second week; the first trimester spans weeks 1 through 13.

3.8. The embryonic period of prenatal development occurs during which trimester(s)?

a. the first trimester

b. the second trimester

c. the third trimester

d. the second and third trimesters

Module: 3.1: Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The embryonic period lasts from the second through the eighth week; the second trimester spans weeks 13 through 25.

3.9. The fetal period of prenatal development occurs during which trimester(s)?

a. the first trimester

b. the second trimester

c. the third trimester

d. the second and third trimesters

Module: 3.1: Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The fetal period lasts from the ninth through the 38th week; the third trimester spans weeks 26 through 38.

3.10. What is the release of the ovum from the ovary called?

a. ovulation

b. fertilization

c. implantation

d. menstruation

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.11. When does ovulation typically occur?

a. during menstruation

b. the day before the onset of menstruation

c. the 14th day after the onset of menstruation

d. the day after menstruation has ceased

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.12. After studying human prenatal development, Rita should know that one (or more) of her ova will begin to undergo the final stage of meiosis at about what point in each of her menstrual cycles?

a. on the first or second day of a regular menstrual period

b. on about the 10th day after the start of a regular menstrual period

c. about two weeks after the start of a regular menstrual period

d. on about the 28th day after the start of a regular menstrual period

Module 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Difficult

Rationale: As noted in the text, at about the 10th day after the start of a regular menstrual period, stimulated by hormones, an ovum enters the final stage of meiosis.

3.13. Suppose that Judy’s menstrual cycle begins on the first day of July. On which day should she expect that ovulation will occur?

a. July 1

b. July 10

c. July 14

d. July 28

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the text, at about the 10th day after the start of a regular menstrual period, stimulated by hormones, an ovum enters the final stage of meiosis. By the end of the 13th or 14th day of this growth, the follicle (sac) surrounding the ovum breaks, releasing the mature ovum: This process is called ovulation.

3.14. Suppose that Latisha’s menstrual cycle begins on the first day of January. If she is planning on having sexual intercourse but does not want to become pregnant, she should be most concerned about using contraception (or abstaining from intercourse) during which of the following dates?

a. January 2–7

b. January 10–15

c. January 20–26

d. January 27–31

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: By the end of the 13th or 14th day of this growth, the follicle (sac) surrounding the ovum breaks, releasing the mature ovum: This process is called ovulation. The ovum can survive for 12 to 24 hours. Sperm can survive for about 5 days once deposited in the vagina. Thus, Latisha should be most concerned about becoming pregnant from January 10 to January 15.

3.15. Fertilization normally takes place:

a. in the uterus

b. in the vagina

c. in the ovary from which the egg is released

d. in the fallopian tube

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.16. The attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall is called:

a. ovulation

b. menstruation

c. fertilization

d. implantation

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.17. Normally, sperm can survive and be viable for about how long following ejaculation?

a. 2–3 hours

b. 24–36 hours

c. 1–2 days

d. about 5 days

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.18. The number of sperm contained in each ejaculation is approximately:

a. 200

b. 2,000

c. 200,000

d. 200,000,000

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.19. If George and his wife wish to increase the chances of becoming pregnant, they should know that George’s sperm can survive about how long following ejaculation?

a. 2–3 hours

b. 6–12 hours

c. 24–36 hours

d. 5 days

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: After sperm are deposited in the vagina during sexual intercourse, they can survive there for about 5 days.

3.20. The union of an ovum and sperm creates a(n):

a. gamete

b. embryo

c. amnion

d. zygote

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: A zygote, by definition, is a fertilized ovum. It is the first cell of a human being that occurs as a result of fertilization.

3.21. Implantation of a fertilized egg in the uterine wall typically occurs:

a. within 1 to 2 hours following fertilization

b. within 12 to 24 hours following fertilization

c. within 2 to 3 days following fertilization

d. about one week following fertilization

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.22. If Susanna was worried that she has just become pregnant as the result of intercourse last night, and she wants to take a drug to make sure that implantation of the fertilized ovum does not occur, she should be sure to take this drug:

a. immediately, because implantation occurs in the first day after fertilization

b. within 24 hours, because implantation occurs in the first 24 to 36 hours after fertilization

c. within 2 days, because implantation occurs about 3 days following fertilization

d. within 5–6 days, because implantation occurs about 1 week following fertilization

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, toward the end of the first week the dividing cells have developed into a blastula—a ball of cells around a fluid-filled center—that has made its way to the uterus. Once formed, the blastula starts to burrow into the lining of the uterus, breaking tiny blood vessels to obtain nutrients. The cells begin the process of differentiation, and within a few days, if all goes well, the blastula is implanted in the uterine wall.

3.23. If Jacob was going to draw a picture of a blastula, the shape he would produce would be most like which of the following?

a. a straight line

b. a square

c. a circle

d. a “glob” that looks like the shape of Lake Michigan

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The book describes the blastula as a hollow, fluid-filled sphere of cells that forms soon after conception.

3.24. If a pregnancy test can detect pregnancy within two weeks after fertilization, it most likely works by:

a. detecting the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin in the woman’s urine

b. detecting a rise in the woman’s body temperature from 98.6 to about 99.3

c. detecting the presence of a much higher percentage of alpha brain waves during the woman’s sleep cycles

d. detecting a dramatic increase in the acidity of the woman’s urine

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, cell differentiation is the point at which home urine tests can assess pregnancy: The cells of the supportive structures begin secreting a detectable hormone called human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg), which shuts down further ovulation and prevents the next menstrual period.

3.25. According to the text, about what percent of fertilized eggs are lost within the first two weeks following conception:

a. 2–3%

b. 5–9%

c. 25%

d. 60–70%

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.26. Janae wants to become pregnant and believes that fertilization has taken place. However, she does not want to get her hopes up too quickly because she knows that about _______ of fertilized ova are lost during the first two weeks of pregnancy.

a. 5%

b. 10–15%

c. a third

d. two-thirds

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, an estimated two-thirds of all fertilized eggs may be lost within the first 2 weeks, some because they are incompletely formed and others because the uterine environment is inhospitable.

3.27. Combining the percentage of fertilized eggs that are lost within the first two weeks with the percent that are aborted or lost due to miscarriage in the remaining months of pregnancy, you should conclude that about ________ of all fertilized eggs eventually result in the birth of a baby.

a. 20%

b. half

c. two-thirds

d. almost 90%

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Difficult

Rationale: An estimated two-thirds of all fertilized eggs may be lost within the first two weeks. Another 19% are aborted and 17 % are lost through miscarriage. Thus, of the choices provided, 20% is the best estimate of the number of fertilized eggs that eventually result in the birth of a baby.

3.28. Dr. Shepard is an advocate for laws that would prohibit abortion under all circumstances. To make her case, she argues that, of pregnancies that survive the first few weeks, over half are terminated by an abortion. You know that Dr. Shepard’s argument is false because the percentage of pregnancies that are terminated by abortion after the first few weeks is actually:

a. 2%

b. 6%

c. 19%

d. 36%

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Difficult

Rationale: According to the National Center for Health Statistics (2008), in the United States, of those pregnancies that survive the first few weeks, 19% are aborted.

3.29. Suppose that prior to implantation, Janetha’s fertilized egg divides into two cells, and these cells then split entirely. If Janetha’s pregnancy results in a healthy birth, you would know that she would have:

a. a girl

b. a boy

c. a girl and a boy

d. twins with identical genetic characteristics

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Sometimes in the first few divisions of the zygote, the two identical cells or small groups of cells separate and develop into two (or more) embryos. The result is monozygotic (identical) twins.

3.30. The similarity of genetic traits carried by two individuals who are dizygotic twins would be most comparable to which of the following pairs of individuals?

a. their mother and father

b. any two siblings, regardless of gender

c. two clones of the same person

d. two unrelated individuals

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings: Fraternal twins may be of the same sex or different sexes.

3.31. John (a boy) and Jill (a girl) claim that they are twins. You would know for certain that:

a. if they are twins, they are monozygotic twins

b. if they are twins, they are dizygotic twins

c. if they are twins, John was born first and Jill was born second

d. they could not possibly be twins

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings: Fraternal twins may be of the same sex or different sexes.

3.32. Jane and Jill are monozygotic twins. Therefore, they:

a. share the same physical traits

b. are no more alike than any other two siblings

c. developed from two separate ova fertilized by two separate sperm

d. have been raised in different environments

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Because monozygotic twins develop from the same fertilized zygote, they have the same genes: Identical twins are always the same sex and share the same physical traits.

3.33. Tom and Forrest are dizygotic twins. Therefore, they:

a. share the same physical traits

b. resulted from the division of a single fertilized ovum

c. are no more alike genetically than any other two siblings

d. have been raised in different environments

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings.

3.34. When a woman becomes pregnant from the fertilization of two separate ova by two separate sperm, these twins are called_________ twins:

a. dizygotic

b. monozygotic

c. identical

d. non-fraternal

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, when two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced.

3.35. Which of the following statements regarding fraternal twins is FALSE?

a. They are produced when two ova are released and each unites with a sperm.

b. They may be of the same or opposite sex.

c. The twins develop from the same zygote.

d. The genetic traits of the two twins can be as different or as similar as those of any other two siblings.

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings: Fraternal twins may be of the same sex or different sexes.

3.36. Suppose that Maddie has difficulty becoming pregnant and decides to use reproductive technologies to increase her chances of having a baby. According to the text, one side effect of this technology that she should be aware of is that it:

a. increases the risk of miscarriage

b. increases her chances of getting a divorce

c. increases her chances of having twins

d. increases her likelihood of experiencing postpartum depression

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: About two-thirds of the dramatic increase in multiple births (76% from 1980 to 2009) is accounted for by the use of reproductive technologies.

3.37. Which of the following develops from the embryonic disk?

a. the placenta

b. the baby

c. the amniotic sac

d. the amniotic fluid

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.38. Which of the following structures is most similar in function to a filtering system in the engine of a car that moves gas from the gas tank, filters impurities out of it, and delivers it to the carburetor?

a. the amniotic fluid

b. the amniotic sac

c. the placenta

d. the embryonic disk

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: The placenta permits the exchange of nutritive and waste materials by diffusion across cell membranes, normally without any exchange of blood cells. Thus, the placenta serves as a filter. The placenta’s role can be considered analogous to the role of a filtering system in the engine of a car.

3.39. A fluid-filled membrane that encloses the developing embryo or fetus is called the:

a. amniotic sac

b. embryonic disk

c. fallopian tube

d. placenta

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.40. The disk-shaped structure that nourishes the embryo and fetus is called the:

a. amniotic sac

b. umbilical disk

c. embryonic disk

d. placenta

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.41. During which period of prenatal development do most major structures, such as the heart, develop in rudimentary form?

a. embryonic period

b. fetal period

c. germinal period

d. zygotic period

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: The embryonic period is the second prenatal period, which lasts from implantation to the end of the second month after conception; all the major structures and organs of the individual are formed at this time.

3.42. The digestive system, lungs, and some other internal organs develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo?

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. zygoderm

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.43. The skin, sense organs, and the brain develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo?

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. zygoderm

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.44. The muscles, blood, and the excretory system develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo?

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. zygoderm

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.45. If a baby were born with malformed eyes and ears as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the:

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. placenta

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: Immediately after implantation, the embryonic disk develops into three distinct layers. The outer layer, known as the ectoderm, will become the skin, the sense organs, and the brain and nervous system.

3.46. If a baby were born with no bowel and with complications involving the small intestines as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the:

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. placenta

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: Immediately after implantation, the embryonic disk develops into three distinct layers. The middle layer, known as the mesoderm, will become muscles, blood, and the excretory system.

3.47. If a baby were born with an incompletely formed digestive system and lung problems as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the:

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. placenta

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: Immediately after implantation, the embryonic disk develops into three distinct layers, The inner layer, known as the endoderm, will become the digestive system, lungs, thyroid, thymus, and other organs.

3.48. Which of the following developmental events occurs earliest in the prenatal period?

a. the baby is able to hear

b. the baby is able to see

c. the heart starts beating

d. the neural tube develops into a three-part brain

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: By the end of the fourth week after conception, the heart is beating.

3.49. An advertising campaign urges pregnant women to get good prenatal care by saying that all of the structures that we recognize as human (including arms, legs, eyes, internal organs, and a beating heart) have already developed early in pregnancy. Having studied prenatal development, you know that the most accurate statement is that these structures are present, at least in rudimentary form, by:

a. the end of the second week of pregnancy

b. the end of the second month of pregnancy

c. the end of the fourth week of pregnancy

d. the end of the fourth month of pregnancy

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Difficult

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, by the end of the embryonic period, the embryo has developed arms, legs, fingers, toes, a face, a heart that beats, a brain, lungs, and all of the major organ systems. The embryonic period lasts through the eighth week (i.e., end of the second month).

3.50. Suppose a friend calls you and tells you that she has had a miscarriage during the fourth month of her pregnancy. Technically, her miscarriage would be termed:

a. spontaneous abortion

b. term abortion

c. mid-term abortion

d. developmental abortion

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Miscarriages are, in technical terms, known as spontaneous abortions and defined as a naturally triggered expulsion of the developing child before it is viable.

3.51. Suppose Naomi is in her third trimester of pregnancy. If Naomi is worried that her pregnancy might end with a spontaneous abortion, you might be able to provide some comfort to her by stating that _____ of spontaneous abortions occur in the first trimester.

a. about half

b. about two-thirds

c. about 90%

d. about 99.9%

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Miscarriages occur primarily during the first trimester; almost 90% occur by 12 or 13 weeks, and miscarriages beyond 20 weeks are rare.

3.52. Which of the following groups would be expected to have the highest rate of miscarriage?

a. babies whose fathers are younger than 20

b. babies whose fathers are between 20 and 30 years of age

c. babies whose fathers are between 30 and 40 years of age

d. babies whose fathers are older than 40

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: The miscarriage rate for pregnancies conceived by fathers over 40 years of age is nearly three times higher than those of fathers under age 25.

3.53. Suppose Paul is working in a hospital. For every 100 female babies born, he should expect that about ____ male babies will be born.

a. 94

b. 100

c. 105

d. 125

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Although there are about 125 male conceptions for every 100 females conceived, at birth this ratio falls to about 105 to 100. These data reflect both the greater likelihood of the sperm containing the smaller Y chromosome to fertilize the egg and the greater vulnerability of the male during the prenatal period.

3.54. Suppose Dr. Barnes is a fertility specialist who studies the sex of recently fertilized ova. If her research population included all fertilized ova conceived in a population, and if she found that 1,000 of these zygotes were female, she should expect that the population would also include _____ male zygotes.

a. 960

b. 1,000

c. 1,040

d. 1,250

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: There are about 125 male conceptions for every 100 females conceived. It should be noted, however, that at birth this ratio falls to about 105 to 100. These data reflect both the greater likelihood of the sperm containing the smaller Y chromosome to fertilize the egg and the greater vulnerability of the male during the prenatal period

3.55. Generalizing from data presented in the text, you should conclude that ______ embryos are more vulnerable during the prenatal period and _______ are more vulnerable during the first two years of life.

a. male; male

b. female; female

c. male; female

d. female; male

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: Despite the fact that there are about 125 male conceptions for every 100 females conceived, at birth this ratio falls to about 105 to 100. These data reflect both the greater likelihood of the sperm containing the smaller Y chromosome to fertilize the egg and the greater vulnerability of the male during the prenatal period. The book also notes that males continue to be more vulnerable throughout childhood.

3.56. Rex describes a period of the lifespan as “the time when primitive organ systems mature and become functional.” The period he is describing would correctly be identified as:

a. the germinal period

b. the fetal period

c. the embryonic period

d. the viability period

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: During the fetal period the organs and systems mature and become functional,

although different systems develop at different points throughout this period.

3.57. Dr. Peters tells a pregnant woman that she is now at the point in her pregnancy where her baby would have a 50% chance of surviving if it were born today. At what point in pregnancy is this woman?

a. 24 weeks

b. 29 weeks

c. 32 weeks

d. 35 weeks

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: At 24 weeks, a healthy fetus reaches the age of viability, meaning it now has about a 50% chance of surviving outside the uterus if given high-quality intensive care, although currently over half of the surviving fetuses born at 24 weeks have serious anomalies.

3.58. When infants reach the age of viability at 24 weeks, they have about a ______ % chance of surviving outside of the uterus if given high-quality medical treatment.

a. 90

b. 70

c. 50

d. 10

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.59. In developed economies like the United States, a healthy fetus reaches the age of viability at:

a. 30 weeks

b. 24 weeks

c. 20 weeks

d. 16 weeks

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.60. Dr. Buresh tells a pregnant woman that she is now at the point in her pregnancy where her baby would have a 50% chance of surviving if it were born. This point is termed:

a. the age of viability

b. the beginning of the fetal period

c. the beginning of the embryonic period

d. the end of the embryonic period

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: At 24 weeks, a healthy fetus reaches the age of viability, meaning it now has about a 50% chance of surviving outside the uterus if given high-quality intensive care, although currently over half of the surviving fetuses born at 24 weeks have serious anomalies.

3.61. Suppose that Winnie is ill and should deliver her baby as soon as it develops to the point at which it will have a 90% chance of surviving. Willie should expect to deliver her baby at what point?

a. at 24 weeks

b. at 25 weeks

c. at 28 weeks

d. at 33 weeks

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Difficult

Rationale: At 28 weeks, over 90% of babies survive with a good outcome, provided that they receive quality intensive care.

3.62. If prenatal care was very poor in a particular country, you would expect that the age of viability in that location would be ______ the age of viability in the United States today.

a. lower than

b. higher than

c. about the same as

d. unrelated to

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: The age of viability refers to the age at which the fetus has a 50% chance of surviving outside the womb, provided quality intensive care is available. If such care was not available, we would expect the age of viability to be higher.

3.63. According to the text, which of the following most correctly describes the relationship between the father’s age at conception and the probability that his conceived child will be miscarried?

a. There is no relationship between paternal age and risk of miscarriage.

b. Fathers over age 40 have 3 times the risk for miscarriage.

c. Fathers under age 25 have 3 times the risk for miscarriage.

d. Fathers over age 40 and fathers under age 25 have half the risk of having their child miscarried as do fathers age 25–40.

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.64. The fetal period of prenatal development begins at ________ and ends at _______:

a. conception; birth

b. conception; the end of the 2nd month

c. the end of the 1st month; birth

d. the end of the 2nd month; birth

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.65. If the director of a prenatal care clinic had a goal that the percentage of women in the geographic area served by the clinic reached the U.S. national average for prenatal care, the clinic’s goal would be to provide prenatal care to ____ % of the local population.

a. 50

b. 67

c. 85

d. 97

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Difficult

Rationale: Today, the percentage of U.S. women who begin prenatal care in the first trimester is about 82%, and only 3% received no prenatal care at all.

3.66. There is a tendency for an infant to react to a stimulus with generalized, whole-body movements at first, with responses becoming more specific and refined later. This trend is referred to as which of the following?

a. body-in-total trend

b. cephalocaudal trend

c. proximodistal trend

d. gross-to-specific trend

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.67. The sequence of growth in which development proceeds from the head toward the feet is known as:

a. gross-to-specific trend

b. proximodistal trend

c. cephalocaudal trend

d. differentiated-to-integrated trend

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.68. When 2-year-old Nicholas was first learning to draw, he often moved his whole body, even his tongue. Only later did he confine the action to his fingers, hand, and slight arm motion. This tendency is called the:

a. gross-to-specific trend

b. proximodistal trend

c. cephalocaudal trend

d. differentiated-to-integrated trend

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The gross-to-specific trend refers to the tendency to react to body stimuli with generalized, whole-body movements at first, with these responses becoming more local and specific later.

3.69. Developing the ability to grab with the full hand before the ability to pick up something with a finger and thumb is best considered to be an example of the:

a. gross-to-specific trend

b. proximodistal trend

c. cephalocaudal trend

d. differentiated-to-integrated trend

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.70. Marty notices that her baby develops arm coordination well in advance of leg coordination. This finding is best considered an example of which of the following growth trends?

a. the gross-to-specific trend

b. the proximodistal trend

c. the cephalocaudal trend

d. the specific-to-gross trend

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The cephalocaudal trend refers to the sequence of growth that occurs first in the head and progresses downward.

3.71. Dan notices that his son develops the ability to manipulate his hands and arms long before he can coordinate the movements of his fingers. This finding is best considered an example of which of the following growth trends?

a. the patterned-response trend

b. the proximodistal trend

c. the differentiated-to-integrated trend

d. the specific-to-gross trend

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The proximodistal trend refers to the sequence of growth that occurs first at the body’s center (in this case the arms, then the hands) and progresses downward outward (in this case to the fingers). This finding could also be considered an example of the gross-to-specific trend, but this is not one of the options provided.

3.72. At 6 months of age, Alexandra could reach out and grab a toy with her hand, but was unable to pick up a small toy with her finger and thumb until she was 9 months of age. This illustrates what developmental trend?

a. patterned-response trend

b. gross-to-specific trend

c. cephalocaudal trend

d. differentiated-to-integrated trend

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The gross-to-specific trend refers to the tendency to react to body stimuli with generalized, whole-body movements at first, with these responses becoming more local and specific later.

Prenatal Environmental Influences

Learning Objective 3.2: Evaluate the impact of maternal health on fetal development

3.73. According to statistics presented in the text, about what percent of babies born in the United States today are born before 34 weeks’ gestation?

a. 1–2%

b. 3–4%

c. 8%

d. 14%

Module: 3.2: Prenatal Environmental Influences

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.74. If your friend were interested in having a baby at the age where risks to the baby were the lowest, you should advise her that she should consider having her baby at which of the following ages?

a. age 16

b. age 22

c. age 33

d. age 40

Module: 3.2.1: Maternal Age

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, mothers in their 20s experience the lowest risk of miscarriages, stillbirths, or births of children with congenital anomalies.

3.75. Which of the following individuals has the lowest risk for a miscarriage?

a. a woman over the age of 40

b. a woman between 20 and 24

c. a teenager

d. None of the other choices is correct because age is not a risk factor for miscarriage.

Module: 3.2.1: Maternal Age

Learning Objective 3.2

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, mothers in their 20s experience the lowest risk of miscarriages, stillbirths, or births of children with congenital anomalies.

3.76. Which of the following mothers is at the greatest risk of having a miscarriage?

a. Anne, who is 20

b. Judy, who is 28

c. Lucretia, who is 35

d. Mary, who is 42

Module: 3.2.1: Maternal Age

Learning Objective 3.2

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: Older mothers are also at greater risk for miscarriage and for some congenital anomalies. One study of over 1.2 million pregnancies in Denmark indicated that the miscarriage rate was over 50% for women over age 40 and 75% for women over 45. The miscarriage rate for mothers age 20 to 24 was 9% by comparison.

3.77. Suppose Ann and her sister are both going to have a baby. Ann is age 28; her sister is age 45. Generalizing from statistics noted in the text, you would know that Ann’s probability of having a child with Down syndrome are:

a. about the same as her sister’s

b. slightly greater than her sister’s

c. slightly less than her sister’s

d. more than 10 times less than her sister’s

Module: 3.2.1: Maternal Age

Learning Objective 3.2

Evaluate It

Difficult

Rationale: Down syndrome increases from about 1 in 800 births for mothers under age 35 to about 1 in 25 for mothers age 45 or older.

3.78. If a woman is age 25, her risk of having a child with Down syndrome is about 1 in ____; if she is age 45, her risk is about 1 in ____.

a. 1,000; 500

b. 500; 1,000

c. 800; 25

d. 500; 10

Module: 3.2.1: Maternal Age

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, Down syndrome increases from about 1 in 800 births for mothers under age 35 to about 1 in 25 for mothers age 45 or older.

3.79. If Lorraine, who is going to have a baby, gets good prenatal care, you would expect her physician would recommend that she gain about how many pounds during her pregnancy:

a. 18 pounds

b. 24 pounds

c. 30 pounds

d. 40 pounds

Module: 3.2.2: Maternal Health and Nutrition

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Regardless of age, mothers who begin pregnancy fit and in good health, eat a balanced diet rich in protein and calcium, and gain about 25 to 35 pounds (11 to 16 kilograms) are more likely to give birth to healthy babies.

3.80. Malnutrition during pregnancy is especially problematic for the baby if it is:

a. of long duration

b. the result of eating too little sodium

c. the result of eating too little sugar

d. the result of eating too little meat

Module: 3.2.2: Maternal Health and Nutrition

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Malnutrition is especially problematic when it occurs over a long period of time. Research with animals has shown that the mother protects the fetus from the effects of short-term malnutrition by drawing on her own stored reserves. Therefore, if previously well-nourished mothers go through a temporary period of malnutrition during pregnancy, but the baby has a good diet and responsive caregivers after birth, there likely will be few long-lasting effects.

3.81. The text discusses a study in which malnourished children in Guatemala were given food supplements to counteract the effects of poor diets. In particular, the effects were positive when the diets were rich in:

a. minerals

b. complex sugars such as fructose and sucrose

c. complex starches from vegetables such as corn and beans

d. protein

Module: 3.2.2: Maternal Health and Nutrition

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.82. Generally, women are recommended to begin prenatal health care during which trimester?

a. first trimester

b. second trimester

c. third trimester

d. it depends on the woman’s age

Module: 3.2.3: Prenatal Healthcare

Learning Objective 3.2

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: The best outcomes are associated with five or more visits to a doctor or healthcare facility beginning in the first trimester of pregnancy.

3.83. A developing fetus is at greater risk for which of the follow abnormalities if the mother becomes ill with rubella during pregnancy?

a. heart abnormality

b. deafness

c. limb deformities

d. All of these abnormalities can be associated with rubella.

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.84. Newborns are routinely treated with silver nitrate eye drops as a preventative treatment for which of the following?

a. syphilis

b. gonorrhea

c. rubella

d. HIV

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.85. Andrew has AIDS and is receiving HAART therapy. This means that he is:

a. having frequent blood transfusion

b. is taking a “cocktail” of several medications

c. should not conceive a child because he is at high risk for passing the AIDS virus on to the child he would have

d. should drastically reduce his intake of dairy products

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: At present, there is no vaccine to halt completely the transmission of the AIDS virus, but new therapies that involve combinations of drugs, called HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapies) or “drug cocktails,” have dramatically reduced AIDS-related deaths and mother-to-infant transmission of the virus.

3.86. According to the text, at present about ____ % of the children and adults with AIDS live in Africa:

a. one-fourth

b. one-half

c. nearly 70%

d. more than 90%

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.87. If a woman with AIDS found out she was pregnant, her treatment would most likely consist of:

a. bed rest while she stops taking her AIDS drugs during the last 3 months of pregnancy

b. bed rest while she stops taking her AIDS drugs during the second trimester of pregnancy

c. treatment with retroviral drugs and having a caesarian section delivery method

d. abstaining from sexual intercourse during her entire pregnancy

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: By using a combination of HAART therapy to keep mothers’ viral counts low and cesarean section delivery methods when possible, it now appears that mother-to-infant HIV transmission can be reduced to about 2%.

3.88. Prenatal exposure to the Zika virus is associated with which of the following:

a. microcephaly

b. increased risk of developing AIDS

c. being born without legs

d. malnutrition

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective: 3.2

Understand the Concept

Easy

Prenatal Environment: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3: Analyze the impact of teratogens on fetal development

3.89. Doug is told that his wife should not visit his office during the second and third month of her pregnancy because chemicals there could negatively affect the development of their baby. However, he is also told that it would be safe for her to visit after the fourth month, since the chemicals would not affect fetal development. This example highlights the concept of:

a. critical period

b. gross-to-specific trend

c. fetal development

d. ectopic pregnancy risk

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: Critical period refers to the period of development during which the effect of a teratogen occurs. A teratogen is a toxic agent of any kind (including chemicals) that potentially causes abnormalities in the developing child.

3.90. Exposure to toxins during weeks 3 to 5 during a pregnancy would be most likely to result in defects in which of the body’s organs?

a. the brain

b. the ears

c. the heart

d. the genitalia (sexual organs)

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: As shown in the text, the heart is susceptible to teratogens during weeks 3 to 5. The brain, ears, and genitalia are not generally susceptible until later in the prenatal period.

3.91. If a teratogen interferes with prenatal development only during a particular period of time, the period of development in which the teratogen can exert its effect is called:

a. a teratogenic period

b. a teratogenic stage

c. a critical period

d. a high-risk – low-reward stage

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Critical period refers to the period of development during which the effect of a teratogen occurs. A teratogen is a toxic agent of any kind (including chemicals) that potentially causes abnormalities in the developing child.

3.92. To state that a particular teratogen has an effect during a “critical period” means that it:

a. can affect organ systems that are critical for sustaining life

b. can cause the mother to become critically ill and perhaps die

c. exerts its effect on development only during a particular stage of development

d. will require the mother to be hospitalized, most likely in a critical care unit

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: Critical period refers to the period of development during which the effect of a teratogen occurs. A teratogen is a toxic agent of any kind (including chemicals) that potentially causes abnormalities in the developing child.

3.93. Exposure to toxins during weeks 20 to 36 during a pregnancy would be most likely to result in defects in which of the body’s organs?

a. the brain

b. the ears

c. the heart

d. the genitalia (sex organs)

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: As shown on the chart on Module 75 of the text, the brain is susceptible to teratogens during the weeks 20 to 36. The ears, heart, and genitalia are susceptible at earlier periods in the prenatal stage of development.

3.94. Exposure to toxins during the 12th week of a pregnancy would be most likely to result in defects in which of the body’s organs?

a. the brain

b. the ears

c. the heart

d. the genitalia (sex organs)

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: As shown on the chart on Module 75 of the text, external genitalia are susceptible to teratogens during the 12th week of pregnancy. The heart and ears are susceptible earlier, and the brain is susceptible later.

3.95. Thalidomide was prescribed in the late 1950s and early 1960s for the treatment of which of the following?

a. migraine

b. anxiety

c. morning sickness

d. cancer

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.96. A toxic agent of any kind that potentially causes abnormalities in a developing child is called a:

a. teratogen

b. karyotype

c. protein

d. critical agent

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.97. Suppose 3 mothers were accidentally exposed to a teratogen during their pregnancies. Who would have the lowest risk for having a child with some sort of birth defect?

a. Abbey, who is exposed during the germinal period of prenatal development

b. Brittany, who is exposed during the embryonic period of prenatal development

c. Whitney, who is exposed during the fetal period of prenatal development

d. All 3 women would have approximately equal chances of having a child affected by the teratogen.

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Difficult

Rationale: During the germinal period, teratogens rarely have an effect, because implantation has not yet occurred; therefore, chemicals and diseases are not easily transmitted to the zygote.

3.98. Heart defects are especially common when pregnant mothers are exposed to a teratogen during which prenatal period?

a. the germinal period

b. the embryonic period

c. the fetal period

d. the last two weeks before birth

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The heart is typically susceptible to teratogens during weeks 3 to 5, which fall in the embryonic period (weeks 3–8).

3.99. The drug tetracycline, which is a frequently prescribed antibiotic, has been shown to have a teratogenic effect on:

a. the development of the eyes and ears

b. the development of limbs

c. the development of the heart

d. the development of teeth and bones

Module: 3.3.1: Prescription and Over-the-Counter Drugs

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.100. According to statistics cited in the text, about what percent of U. S. women who know they are pregnant report “risk drinking” of alcohol?

a. 25%

b. 15%

c. 10%

d. 3%

Module: 3.3.2: Alcohol

Learning Objective 3.3

Apply What You Know

Difficult

Rationale: One of every thirty women (about 3%) that knows she is pregnant reports risk drinking, which is defined as seven or more drinks per week or five or more drinks on any one occasion.

3.101. Research suggests that fetal alcohol syndrome is most closely associated with which of the following conditions?

a. newborns being born overweight

b. facial abnormalities

c. heart defects

d. hyperactivity

Module: 3.3.2: Alcohol

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.102. The position of the Surgeon General of the United States is that women who are pregnant should drink no more than what amount of alcohol per week during pregnancy?

a. no more than 3 drinks per week, and never more than one drink per day

b. no more than 2 drinks per week

c. no more than 1 drink per week

d. No alcohol whatsoever should be consumed during pregnancy.

Module: 3.3.2: Alcohol

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.103. Research cited in the text suggests that cigarette smoking during pregnancy interferes with prenatal development primarily because:

a. oxygen flow is reduced to the fetus

b. cigarette smoke includes teratogens that can cross the placental barrier

c. women who smoke cigarettes are more likely to also use alcohol

d. women who smoke are more likely to have poor nutrition

Module: 3.3.3: Tobacco

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Research suggests the smoking damages fetuses through damage to the placenta and constriction of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to a reduced flow of nutrients and oxygen.

3.104. According to the text, marijuana exposure during the prenatal period leads to:

a. a greater likelihood that the child will be born with an addiction

b. a greater likelihood that the child will develop an addiction later in life

c. low birth weight and a higher risk of stillbirth

d. disruptions in the brain and other organ systems

Module: 3.3.4: Marijuana

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.105. The addictive drug that is most closely tied to an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, a higher risk of premature birth, greater complications during labor, and increased risk of developing attention deficit disorder and learning disabilities during childhood is:

a. alcohol

b. marijuana

c. cocaine

d. nicotine

Module: 3.3.5: Cocaine and Other Amphetamine Drugs

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.106. Pregnant women often are advised to keep their consumption of coffee and other foods that contain caffeine to a minimum. This is because caffeine has similar properties to which of the following:

a. alcohol

b. marijuana

c. cocaine

d. mercury

Module: 3.3.5: Cocaine and Other Amphetamine Drugs

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Caffeine is a drug with similar effects to other amphetamines; therefore women are advised to keep their consumption low during pregnancy.

3.107. Prenatal exposure to mercury is most likely to result from eating a diet high in:

a. cereals

b. raw vegetables

c. beef and pork

d. fish

Module: 3.3.6: Environmental Pollutants and Radiation

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.108. If a woman’s doctor urged her to be especially careful about eating food served on hand-made pottery, you would assume that the doctor is trying to limit this woman’s exposure to:

a. PCBs

b. lead

c. radiation

d. harmful bacteria

Module: 3.3.6: Environmental Pollutants and Radiation

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Lead is sometimes used in the glazes and paints used in making pottery.

3.109. Because radiation can have damaging effects during the prenatal period, pregnant women are usually cautioned to avoid:

a. fish from the oceans off Japan

b. x-rays that are not essential

c. eating from glazed pottery dishes

d. swimming in polluted lakes and rivers

Module: 3.3.6: Environmental Pollutants and Radiation

Learning Objective 3.3

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: X-ray procedures exposed people to small doses of radiation. Although the radiation level of x-rays is very small and unlikely to cause damage, it is generally recommended that pregnant women delay them if possible until after childbirth.

Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4: Explain how the process of childbirth affects human development

3.110. Which of the following stages is NOT one of the stages of childbirth?

a. afterbirth

b. initial labor

c. delivery

d. Braxton-Hicks contractions

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.111. When initial labor begins, mild uterine contractions usually are about ______ minutes apart:

a. 60

b. 10

c. 15 to 20

d. 1 to 2

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.112. The typical length of initial labor ranges from between a few minutes to as many as ____ hours.

a. 100

b. 60

c. 30

d. 2

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.113. When Braxton-Hicks contractions occur, they are considered to be part of:

a. false labor

b. initial labor

c. delivery

d. afterbirth

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.114. Suppose that your pregnant friend calls to tell you that she has just experienced “showing.” You should know that showing:

a. occurs as the amniotic sac ruptures and fluid is released

b. involves the release of the mucous plug that covers the cervix

c. involves the baby’s descent into the birth canal, where its body features can now be distinguished more clearly

d. she is having Braxton-Hicks contractions

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: One event that may occur during initial labor is called showing, in which a mucus plug that covers the cervix is released; some bleeding may also occur during showing.

3.115. Maria is in her ninth month of pregnancy. She begins to feel contractions, but when she gets up and walks around, the contractions go away. Most likely, she has experienced which of the following?

a. showing

b. the first stage of labor

c. the second stage of labor

d. Braxton-Hicks contractions

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: False labor, also called Braxton–Hicks contractions, refer to contractions that generally diminish if the mother walks.

3.116. One method of determining whether contractions are part of false labor is to see if they go away or diminish:

a. when the mother breathes deeply

b. after 10 minutes

c. when the mother walks

d. after several minutes of abdominal massage

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.117. When a mother’s water breaks, this is the result of which of the following?

a. the mucus plug that covers the cervix is released

b. the mother urinates uncontrollably

c. the amniotic sac ruptures and amniotic fluid is expelled

d. the placenta is expelled

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: During initial labor, the amniotic sac may break and amniotic fluid may rush forth. When this happens we say that the mother’s “water breaks.”

3.118. In comparison to having her first child, a mother having her third child should expect that:

a. this child will be more likely to be a boy

b. this child will be more likely to be a girl

c. her labor and delivery will take longer

d. her labor and delivery will take a shorter amount of time

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the text, labor and delivery usually takes from 10 to 40 minutes and tends to be shorter with succeeding births.

3.119. An excited father who is watching his daughter be born exclaims with excitement, “I can see her head!” Technically, this would be referred to as:

a. “showing”

b. “crowning”

c. an Apgar of 1

d. traditional childbirth

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Normally, the first part of the baby to emerge from the birth canal is the head. First it “crowns,” or becomes visible, then it emerges farther with each contraction.

3.120. Sometimes physicians make an incision during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. Such a procedure is called:

a. caesarean section

b. amniocentesis

c. episiotomy

d. chorionic villus sampling

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: During birth, the tissue of the mother’s perineum (the region between the vagina and the rectum) must stretch considerably to allow the baby’s head to emerge. In U.S. hospitals, the attending physician often makes an incision called an episiotomy to enlarge the vaginal opening.

3.121. In most cases, why would an episiotomy be performed?

a. because the baby needs to be born faster, due to complications

b. because the baby’s Apgar score is very low

c. because the mother is unable to deliver the baby without pain killing medication

d. because the baby’s head is so large that the vaginal opening might tear

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: During birth, the tissue of the mother’s perineum (the region between the vagina and the rectum) must stretch considerably to allow the baby’s head to emerge. In U.S. hospitals, the attending physician often makes an incision called an episiotomy to enlarge the vaginal opening. It is believed that an incision will heal more neatly than the jagged tear that might otherwise occur.

3.122. Which of the following positions of the child during birth is considered most typical?

a. head first, face down

b. head first, face up

c. buttocks first, face down

d. buttocks first, face up

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the first part of the baby to emerge from the birth canal is normally the head. In most normal births, the baby is born in a face-down position.

3.123. Which of the following stages of labor is typically least painful for the mother?

a. initial labor

b. the second stage of labor

c. the birth itself

d. the afterbirth

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: The expulsion of the placenta, the umbilical cord, and related tissues marks the third stage of childbirth, called afterbirth. This stage is virtually painless and typically occurs within 20 minutes after the delivery.

3.124. During the process of labor and delivery, when is the afterbirth typically delivered?

a. just before the infant is born

b. at the same time that the infant is born

c. about 1 to 2 hours after the infant is born

d. about 20 minutes after the infant is born

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.125. According to the text, traditional childbirth is typically done:

a. in a birthing center

b. in a hospital

c. at home

d. anywhere, including in a birthing center, in a hospital, or at home

Module: 3.4.2: Approaches to Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.126. If a mother wanted a midwife to deliver her baby, the type of childbirth method most likely involved would be:

a. traditional childbirth

b. Caesarean section

c. natural childbirth

d. premature childbirth

Module: 3.4.2: Approaches to Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: A midwife is a woman who is experienced in childbirth, with or without training, who assists with home delivery.

3.127. In prepared childbirth, the primary function of the relaxation and breathing techniques used is to:

a. increase the supply of oxygen to the baby during delivery

b. increase the Apgar score of the baby at the time of delivery

c. help the mother cope more effectively with the pain of delivery

d. reduce the carbon dioxide content of the mother’s blood

Module: 3.4.2: Approaches to Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the text, the relaxation exercises help reduce the pain of labor and delivery; the breathing and other techniques help distract the mother from any discomfort she may be feeling.

3.128. Which of the following is generally true, regarding the use and philosophy of birthing centers?

a. Usually mothers stay for a least a week in a birthing center following delivery.

b. Fathers are usually excluded from the birthing center except during delivery, so the baby has a better chance of becoming attached to the mother.

c. Usually babies are removed from the birthing center and cared for by experienced nurses, so that the exhausted mother can get some much-needed rest.

d. The entire labor and delivery occurs in the same room.

Module: 3.4.2: Approaches to Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Birthing centers (or suites) are designed to accommodate the entire childbirth process from labor through delivery and recovery; thus, they attempt to combine the privacy and intimacy of a home birth with the safety and backup of medical technology. Mothers are encouraged to spend lots of time with baby to encourage early attachment.

3.129. Suppose Janet is 12 weeks pregnant and is concerned that she may be carrying twins or triplets. She goes in for diagnostic testing, which most likely would consist of:

a. amniocentesis

b. chorionic villus sampling

c. an ultrasound

d. fetal monitoring

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Ultrasound is typically done around the 15th week, but with high-resolution scanning, can now be done earlier. It is the least invasive and most widely used method to provide information about the growth and health of the fetus.

3.130. Which of the following methods of providing information about the growth and health of the fetus is the least invasive and most widely used?

a. amniocentesis

b. fetoscopy

c. CVS

d. ultrasound

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.131. Suppose that Aletha is in her first trimester of pregnancy and she begins to experience some vaginal bleeding. Her doctor suspects an ectopic pregnancy, so most likely the doctor will do which of the following procedures?

a. amniocentesis

b. chorionic villus sampling

c. an ultrasound

d. fetal monitoring

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Ultrasound is typically done around the 15th week, but with high-resolution scanning, can now be done earlier. It is the least invasive and most widely used method to provide information about the growth and health of the fetus.

3.132. Amniocentesis is typically performed at about which week of pregnancy?

a. 16th week

b. 21th week

c. 25th week

d. 32nd week

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.133. Chorionic villus sampling is:

a. done much later in a pregnancy than amniocentesis

b. done earlier in a pregnancy than amniocentesis

c. is another name for amniocentesis

d. is only done when amniocentesis cannot be done

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.134. Which of the following techniques results in a karyotype picture of the baby’s chromosomes?

a. ultrasound

b. fetal monitoring

c. chorionic villus sampling

d. an Apgar test

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) refers to the withdrawal and analysis of cells from the membranes that surround the fetus, either with a syringe or with a catheter. Both amniocentesis and CVS involve the collection of cells for karyotyping, but because more cells are collected in this procedure than in amniocentesis, the test can be completed more quickly.

3.135. Why is fetal monitoring generally used only with high-risk deliveries?

a. because it is dangerous, and can cause a miscarriage

b. because it reduces the supply of oxygen available to the baby during the birth process

c. because it is quite painful for the mother

d. because its use is associated with a significantly higher use of unnecessary caesarean sections

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.136. If a baby is positioned so that it will be born face up, this is called a _________ presentation; if the baby is positioned so that it will be born buttocks first, this is called a _____________ presentation.

a. normal; breech

b. breech; normal

c. breech; posterior

d. posterior; breech

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.137. Sondra finds out that her baby will be born head first, face up. This birthing situation would be correctly described as which of the following?

a. posterior presentation

b. breech presentation

c. posterior breech presentation

d. normal

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Posterior presentation refers to a situation in which the baby is facing the mother’s abdomen rather than her back; In this situation, a more difficult birth process often results.

3.138. While observing the birth of his daughter, Mr. Johnson sees that she will be born buttocks first. He would correctly describe this type of birth as:

a. posterior presentation

b. breech presentation

c. normal presentation

d. Apgar presentation

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Breech presentation refers to a position of the baby in the uterus in which the head will emerge last. In this situation, assistance is sometimes needed in such cases to prevent injury to the infant.

3.139. About what percent of births in the United States today are performed by cesarean section?

a. 5–10%

b. 15–20%

c. 25%

d. 32%

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.140. Why did the American Academy of Pediatrics take the position that electronic fetal monitoring be abandoned in low-risk pregnancies:

a. it is very expensive

b. it takes too much of the doctor’s time during labor and delivery

c. it leads to an increase in cesarean deliveries

d. it is too risky for the fetus

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.141. What is a perfect Apgar score?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 7

d. 10

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.142. Suppose a baby is born whose Apgar score is 3. What would such a score most likely indicate?

a. All vital signs are perfect.

b. All vital signs are normal.

c. Some of the baby’s bodily processes are not functioning fully.

d. Immediate emergency measures are required.

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: A perfect Apgar score is 10 points, with a score of 7 or more considered normal. Scores below 7 indicate that some bodily processes are not functioning fully and may require special procedures. Babies with a score of 4 or less require immediate emergency measures.

3.143. Mary’s newborn son was given the Apgar test at 1 minute and again at 5 minutes after birth. If he received a perfect score both times, what would the first and second Apgar scores be, respectively:

a. 0 and 10

b. 5 and 10

c. 10 and 10

d. 10 and 20

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: A perfect Apgar score is 10 points, with a score of 7 or more considered normal. The scale does not change between first and second administrations of the test.

3.144. Baby Doe is born at 38 weeks and weighs just 4 pounds. He would be considered:

a. premature

b. preterm

c. small-for-date

d. malnourished

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Apply What You Know

Difficult

Rationale: A small-for-date newborn is a full-term newborn who weighs less than 5 pounds 8 ounces. Since Baby Doe was born at 38 weeks (full-term) he is neither premature nor preterm.

The Evolving Family

Learning Objective 3.5: Characterize the relationship between a neonate and its caregivers

3.145. According to the text, pregnant women are most likely to experience a sense of heightened well-being during which of the following stages?

a. the first 4 weeks

b. weeks 5 through 12

c. the second trimester

d. the third trimester

Module: 3.5.1: The Transition to Parenthood

Learning Objective: 3.5

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.146. In families headed by same-sex parents, children are likely to experience development in which of the following ways:

a. They are more likely to be exposed to more feminine behaviors by their parents, but only if the parents are women.

b. They are more likely to be exposed to more masculine behaviors by their parents, but only if the parents are men.

c. They are more likely to be exposed to more feminine behaviors, regardless of whether the parents are men or women.

d. They experience development very much like children raised in traditional families.

Module: 3.5.1: The Transition to Parenthood

Learning Objective: 3.5

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.147. About what percent of couples in the United States today have difficulty conceiving a child?

a. 2–3%

b. 5–7%

c. 12%

d. 23%

Module: 3.5.2: Pregnancy in a Changing World

Learning Objective 3.5

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.148. About what percent of U.S. women today use in vitro fertilization technology to become pregnant?

a. 0.1%

b. 1.6%

c. 4-5%

d. 15%

Module: 3.5.2: Pregnancy in a Changing World

Learning Objective 3.5

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.149. If a 30-year old woman elected to use in vitro fertilization technology to help her become pregnant, she should expect to spend about for one cycle of treatment and know that her odds of success are about .

a. $500; 60%

b. $2,000; 40%

c. $12,000; 50%

d. $35,000; 15%

Module: 3.5.2: Pregnancy in a Changing World

Learning Objective 3.5

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Today, one cycle of ART costs about $12,000 to $15,000. For healthy women under age 35, chances of success are about 42%, but by age 41 this percentage has fallen to about 15%.

3.150. A baby who is between 0 and 1 month of age is referred to as a(n):

a. embryo

b. neonate

c. fetus

d. zygote

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.151. In the last few moments before birth, infants experience a major surge of:

a. adrenaline and noradrenaline

b. oxygen

c. carbon dioxide

d. protein

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.152. A new mother is surprised to see that her newborn looks like he is covered with cottage cheese. The substance she is noticing is called:

a. vernix caseosa

b. noradrenalin

c. lanugo

d. molding

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the text, the body of a newborn may be covered with remnants of the vernix caseosa, a cheesy-looking protective coating.

3.153. A new mother is surprised to see that her newborn looks “furry” like he is covered with a coat of hair. The “fur” she notices is called:

a. vernix caseosa

b. lanugo

c. molding

d. crowning

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the body of a newborn may be covered with lanugo hair, which should disappear during the first month.

3.154. When baby Rex is bounced gently on his father’s knee, his father can see the skin on the top of Rex’s head move up and down, sort of like the skin is covering a bowl of jello. This is because:

a. Rex’s brain has not yet solidified and is a soft mass of tissue

b. the fontanels in Rex’s head have not yet fused into bone

c. Rex must have some sort of bone disease that has prevented his skull from forming correctly

d. Rex probably has Down syndrome

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Apply What You Know

Difficult

Rationale: At the time of birth, the soft, bony plates of the skull—called fontanels—are connected only by cartilage areas, which are squeezed together in the birth canal to allow the baby’s head to pass through, giving the newborn a “cone-head” appearance. Fontanels do not fully harden and fuse until late in infancy, which is why an infant’s or young toddler’s head must be protected from bumps; otherwise, there is a risk of concussion.

3.155. Which of the following is NOT an example of a survival response?

a. palmar grasp

b. sucking

c. rooting

d. breathing

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: Survival reflexes are just that: reflexes necessary for adaptation and survival, especially during the first days or weeks before the higher brain centers begin to take control. Primitive reflexes are not necessary for survival now, but may have been important at some stage in our evolutionary history. The palmar grasp is a primitive reflex: When an infant’s palm is stimulated, the infant will grasp tightly and increase the strength of the grasp if the stimulus is pulled away.

3.156. When a neonate’s hand is stimulated by an object such as a finger or a pencil, the infant’s fingers will close tightly in a grasp. This behavior is best considered to be an example of:

a. the plantar reflex

b. the palmar grasp reflex

c. the Moro reflex

d. the Babinski reflex

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: The palmar grasp is a primitive reflex. As noted in the textbook this reflex refers to the finding that when an infant’s palm is stimulated, the infant will grasp tightly and increase the strength of the grasp if the stimulus is pulled away.

3.157. When infants are held upright with their feet against a surface and are moved forward, they appear to walk in a coordinated way. This reflex is referred to as:

a. palmar reflex

b. stepping reflex

c. Babinski reflex

d. walking reflex

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, when infants are held upright with their feet against a flat surface and are moved forward, they appear to walk in a coordinated way—a reflex known as the stepping reflex. This reflex disappears after 2 or 3 months.

3.158. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a survival reflex present in newborns?

a. breathing

b. rooting

c. sucking

d. kicking

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.159. Jackie is a new mother who says, “I just can’t stand to be away from my baby. I feel so close to him emotionally that I just love him.” Jackie’s comments reflect the core principle involved in:

a. crowning

b. attachment

c. the Moro reflex

d. the Babinski reflex

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Attachment refers to the reciprocal emotional bond that develops between a child and caregivers.

3.160. When her baby is born, Cynthia refuses to look at him or hold him. She feels no emotional connection with him at all and won’t give him a name. Cynthia’s reaction demonstrates a problem with the concept referred to as:

a. attachment

b. primitive reflexes

c. advanced reflexes

d. the Moro reflex

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: Attachment refers to the reciprocal emotional bond that develops between a child and caregivers.

Changing Perspectives: Nurse–Family Partnerships: An Early Intervention Program That Works

3.161. Which of the following is NOT one of the outcomes associated with the Nurse–Family Partnership program described in the text?

a. much lower rates of child abuse and neglect

b. much lower rates of arrest of teenagers raised in the program

c. considerably higher rates of participation in welfare programs

d. much lower rates of behavioral and intellectual problems for children raised in the program

Module: 3.2.3: Prenatal Healthcare

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.162. According to the text, the cost of the Nurse–Family Partnership program described is about __________ per family served and the benefit to society is about _________ per family served.

a. $13,000; $70,000

b. $34,000; $10,000

c. $50,000; $60,000

d. $80,000; $250,000

Module: 3.2.3: Prenatal Healthcare

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Difficult

Rationale: This program costs about $4,000 per year for 3 years ($13,500), but the benefit to society is about 5 times the cost ($67,500).

3.163. The major cost savings that result from providing Nurse–Family Partnership programs to at-risk families is achieved primarily through:

a. private donations that are given to fund the program

b. fewer doctor visits required for babies and children since these are covered by the nurse

c. fewer emergency room calls

d. less use of welfare programs

Module: 3.2.3: Prenatal Healthcare

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.164. The text describes a Nurse–Family Partnership program that aims to improve outcomes for newborns. Which of the following statements is the best description for what this program involves?

a. Food supplements are delivered by nurses to low-income mothers beginning at the 3rd month and continuing on for 3 years after birth.

b. Nurses provide counseling to at-risk mothers beginning in the prenatal period and continuing on for 2 years after birth.

c. Nurses in the labor and delivery room with low-income mothers continue to visit them in their homes for 6 to 12 months to give advice on childrearing.

d. Students in nursing school are paired with pregnant women so that they learn more about the psychological and social aspects of pregnancy and parenting.

Module: 3.2.3: Prenatal Healthcare

Learning Objective 3.2

Evaluate It

Moderate

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the Nurse–Family Partnership begins when the mother is 20 to 28 weeks into her first pregnancy and focuses on addressing substance abuse issues and other behaviors that contribute to family poverty, subsequent pregnancies, poor maternal and infant outcomes, and poor child-care opportunities. Each mother enrolled in the program is matched with a highly trained public health nurse, who visits her every 1 to 2 weeks for the next 30 months, until the infant is about age 2.

3.165. Which of the following was NOT stated as an outcome for the Nurse–Family Partnership program described in the text?

a. substantially lower rates of child abuse and neglect

b. substantially fewer criminal convictions of children served when they grew to age 15

c. less time for the family spent on welfare

d. substantially fewer divorces among parents in the families served by the program

Module: 3.2.3: Prenatal Healthcare

Learning Objective 3.2

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Rationale: The textbook notes that research has yielded each of the findings above except the finding regarding divorce.

Current Issues: Kangaroo Care for Low-Birth-Weight Infants: An Experimental Approach Being Tried in Countries Around the World

3.166. The technique of kangaroo-care emphasizes the importance of:

a. physical contact and a quiet environment

b. having the father do some of the feedings, if possible

c. making sure that no excess drugs are given to the mother during labor and delivery

d. preparing older siblings for the birth of a new brother or sister

Module: 3.5.1: The Transition to Parenthood

Learning Objective 3.5

Understand the Concept

Easy

3.167. Kangaroo care is generally recommended when:

a. the infant has no biological mother to care for it

b. the mother is addicted to drugs

c. the baby is born with HIV

d. the baby is low birth weight

Module: 3.5.1: The Transition to Parenthood

Learning Objective 3.5

Analyze It

Moderate

Rationale: Kangaroo care is aimed at calming and stabilizing fragile, low-birth-weight babies.

3.168. The primary feature of a “kangaroo care” environment is that it:

a. involves a quiet and calming environment

b. utilizes the skills of many different types of caregivers

c. always is done within a hospital environment so appropriate medical intervention is available if needed

d. is supported by Title 19 so that mothers do not have to pay for these services

Module: 3.5.1: The Transition to Parenthood

Learning Objective 3.5

Understand the Concept

Moderate

Short Answer questions:

Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1: Describe the three periods of prenatal development

3.169. Describe how the three periods of prenatal development (germinal, embryonic, and fetal) overlap with the three trimesters of pregnancy.

Module: 3.1

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

3.170. Explain the process by which monozygotic and dizygotic twins occur, explaining why monozygotic twins are more similar to each other than are dizygotic twins.

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

3.171. What are the most important developmental events that occur in the germinal period?

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.172. Identify two body structures that develop from each of the following parts of the embryonic disk: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.173. How does the development of the body’s structures differ in the embryonic period from that which occurs in the fetal period?

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period; 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Difficult

3.174. Suggest two reasons why males are more vulnerable in early life than are females.

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

3.175. Give a clear example of each of the following developmental trends: cephalocaudal trend, proximodistal trend, and gross-to-specific trend.

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Prenatal Environmental Influences

Learning Objective 3.2: Evaluate the impact of maternal health on fetal development

3.176. Suggest two reasons that might explain why older mothers have higher risks for miscarriage and for some congenital anomalies.

Module: 3.2.1: Maternal Age

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

3.177. Describe the results of the malnutrition research described in the text, noting the outcomes of programs that attempt to remediate malnutrition by providing food supplements in infancy.

Module: 3.2.2: Maternal Health and Nutrition

Learning Objective 3.2

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.178. Identify three characteristics of a high-quality prenatal healthcare plan and describe why each is important.

Module: 3.2.3: Prenatal Healthcare

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

3.179. What are two things that can be done to prevent the HIV virus from being passed from mother to fetus?

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective 3.2

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Prenatal Environment: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3: Analyze the impact of teratogens on fetal development

3.180. Define the term “critical period” as it is used in studies of how teratogens exert their effects.

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.181. Describe three different ways a teratogen can be passed along to the developing embryo or fetus, and provide an example of a teratogen that is passed along in each of these three methods.

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Difficult

3.182. Why should pregnant women check with their physician before they take over-the-counter or prescription drugs?

Module: 3.3.1: Prescription and Over-the-Counter Drugs

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.183. Describe the symptoms associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

Module: 3.3.2: Alcohol

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.184. Describe three possible risk factors associated with cigarette smoking during pregnancy.

Module: 3.3.2: Alcohol

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.185. Describe three possible risk factors associated with marijuana use during pregnancy.

Module: 3.3.4: Marijuana

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.186. Identify three different risk factors for a baby that are associated with the mother’s use of cocaine or other amphetamines during pregnancy.

Module: 3.3.5: Cocaine and Other Amphetamine Drugs

Learning Objective 3.3

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.187. Describe three things pregnant women can do to reduce their exposure to environmental pollutants and radiation.

Module: 3.3.6: Environmental Pollutants and Radiation

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Moderate

Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4: Explain how the [process of childbirth affects human development

3.188. What is an episiotomy and why is it sometimes performed?

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.189. Why might a woman choose to have her baby in a birthing center rather than a traditional hospital room?

Module: 3.4.2: Approaches to Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.190. Describe what ultrasound does and why it is often used during pregnancy.

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.191. Why did the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend that fetal monitors be used only in high-risk pregnancies?

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.192. Distinguish between a premature baby that is preterm and one that is small-for-date.

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Difficult

The Evolving Family

Learning Objective 3.5: Characterize the relationship between a neonate and its caregivers

3.193. Give an example of how culture can influence the experience of childbirth.

Module: 3.5.1

Learning Objective 3.5

Apply What You Know

Moderate

3.194. Describe why a neonate’s head can be cone-shaped for a few days immediately following birth.

Module: 3.5.2: Pregnancy in a Changing World

Learning Objective 3.5

Analyze It

Moderate

3.195. Name and describe three survival reflexes that are observed in neonates.

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.15

Analyze It

Moderate

3.196. Define attachment and provide an example that demonstrates why psychologists describe it as a reciprocal process between caregiver and infant.

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Evaluate It

Difficult

Essay questions:

Prenatal Growth and Development

Learning Objective 3.1: Describe the three periods of prenatal development

3.197. Explain how fertilization occurs, noting when and where each step in the process takes place.

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

3.198. Suppose a couple wants to become pregnant. During which days in the woman’s monthly menstrual cycle is conception likely to occur? As part of your answer, be sure to describe the timing of ovulation and the life expectancy of sperm.

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

3.199. Describe in detail how the zygote becomes a blastula and how the blastula differentiates into the embryonic disk and supportive structures.

Module: 3.1.1: Conception and the Germinal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.200. Describe three major developments that occur during the embryonic period of prenatal development.

Module: 3.1.2: The Embryonic Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Analyze It

Moderate

3.201. Suggest three different reasons why infant mortality rates generally have declined in the United States over the past five decades.

Module: 3.1.3: The Fetal Period

Learning Objective 3.1

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.202. Give an example of each of the following developmental trends: (a) cephalocaudal; (b) proximodistal; (c) gross-to-specific.

Module: 3.1.4: Developmental Trends

Learning Objective 3.1

Apply What You Know

Moderate

Prenatal Environmental Influences

Learning Objective 3.2: Evaluate the impact of maternal health on fetal development

3.203. Describe three ways in which older mothers are at greater risk than mothers in their 20s.

Module: 3.2.1: Maternal Age

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

3.204. What prenatal risks are associated with malnutrition? What kinds of intervention programs can most effectively reduce these risks?

Module: 3.2.2: Maternal Health and Nutrition

Learning Objective 3.2

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.205. Describe three different ways by which a disease present in the mother may be passed to the fetus or newborn infant.

Module: 3.2.4: Maternal Diseases

Learning Objective 3.2

Analyze It

Moderate

Prenatal Environment: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3: Analyze the impact of teratogens on fetal development

3.206. Give an example of how a teratogen can have different effects on the developing embryo or fetus, depending on what stage of development is involved. Use this example to explain what is meant by the term, “critical period” of development.

Module: 3.3: Drugs and Pollutants

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Difficult

3.207. Summarize the evidence that supports the Surgeon General’s statement on women’s consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. Is drinking alcohol safe?

Module: 3.3.2: Alcohol

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.208. Compare the effects of prenatal exposure to tobacco with those of marijuana. Suggest which drug do you think poses the more serious risk to prenatal development, explaining why you chose that response.

Modules: 3.3.3 and 3.3.4

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Difficult

3.209. Identify two environmental pollutants that are known teratogens and describe how pregnant women can limit their risks for each.

Module 3.3.6

Learning Objective 3.3

Evaluate It

Moderate

Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4: Explain how the [process of childbirth affects human development

3.210. Describe how a typical labor and delivery would proceed, noting the major events associated with each of the three stages of childbirth.

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.211. Describe the major events that occur in each of the three stages of childbirth: initial labor, labor and delivery, and afterbirth.

Module: 3.4.1: Stages of Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.1

Understand the Concept

Moderate

3.212. How does natural (or prepared) childbirth differ from traditional childbirth?

Module: 3.4.2: Approaches to Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.213. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages associated with both traditional childbirth procedures and natural childbirth procedures. If your best friend were having a baby, which would you recommend to her, and why would you make this choice?

Module: 3.4.2: Approaches to Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Difficult

3.214. Describe three diagnostic procedures that can be used to monitor the health of the unborn child during pregnancy: ultrasound, amniocentesis, and chorionic villus sampling. What kinds of health problems does each method help diagnose?

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Analyze It

Moderate

3.215. Describe the differences between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling and discuss when and why each might be preferred over the other.

Module: 3.4.3: Advances in Technology

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.216. What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with the use of caesarian section procedures for childbirth?

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.217 What is the Apgar Scoring System? How are scores computed? What factors are related to an infant receiving a “good” score versus a “bad” score?

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Analyze It

Moderate

3.218. What special risks are associated with premature childbirth? How might a preterm infant pose different problems than a small-for-date infant?

Module: 3.4.4: Complications in Childbirth

Learning Objective 3.4

Evaluate It

Difficult

The Evolving Family

Learning Objective 3.5: Characterize the relationship between a neonate and its caregivers

3.219. Describe two major concerns about becoming a parent that typically are identified among mothers and two concerns that are identified among fathers. How might these concerns reflect cultural and family forces?

Module: 3.5.1: The Transition to Parenthood

Learning Objective 3.5

Evaluate It

Difficult

3.220. Describe in detail three different approaches women might take if they had difficulty conceiving a child.

Module: 3.5.2: Pregnancy in a Changing World

Learning Objective 3.5

Analyze It

Moderate

3.221. What roles do the survival reflexes play in helping the neonate adjust to life outside the womb?

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Evaluate It

Moderate

3.222. How do the primitive reflexes differ from the survival reflexes? Give an example of each reflex type to support your answer.

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Evaluate It

Difficult

3.223. Define in your own words what is meant by the term “attachment.” Give an example that demonstrates how attachment develops in a reciprocal fashion between infant and caregiver.

Module: 3.5.3: The Arrival of the Neonate

Learning Objective 3.5

Analyze It

Moderate