Complete Test Bank Ch.9 Campaigns, Elections, and Voting

American Democracy Now, 6e (Harrison)

Chapter 9 Campaigns, Elections, and Voting

1) Direct forms of political participation include

A) voting.

B) volunteering on a campaign.

C) running for office.

D) answering Internet political surveys.

E) volunteering on a campaign, running for office, and voting.

2) Which of the following is the best example of grassroots organizing?

A) donating money to a campaign

B) reading about politics

C) drafting a party's platform

D) get-out-the-vote activities

E) voting

3) Identify the correct chronological order among the following, starting with which comes first.

A) primary election, general election, candidate nomination

B) candidate nomination, primary election, general election

C) primary election, candidate nomination, general election

D) general election, candidate nomination, primary election

E) general election, primary election, candidate nomination

4) All of the following are influential factors in general election competitiveness EXCEPT

A) the presence of incumbency.

B) the strength of incumbency.

C) party competition.

D) candidate gender.

E) level of office.

5) Which of the following statements about who can vote in primary elections is the most accurate?

A) All registered voters can vote in primary elections.

B) Only registered party members are eligible to vote in primary elections.

C) Who can vote in primary elections varies from state to state.

D) All citizens can vote in primary elections, regardless of registration status or party affiliation.

E) Only popularly nominated delegates can vote in primaries.

6) In U.S. presidential primaries, who decides which candidate will receive the national party nomination?

A) party-registered voters

B) local party leaders

C) state party organizations

D) national party leaders

E) locally-selected delegates

7) Which year saw a party convention that prodded both parties to make significant reforms that increased party-voter influence for candidate selection?

A) 1948

B) 1960

C) 1968

D) 1980

E) 1988

8) In some states, party voters select delegates at state party meetings known as

A) caucuses.

B) congresses.

C) secretariats.

D) commissions.

E) GOTV rallies.

9) Who can vote in an open primary election?

A) anyone, even unregistered voters

B) any registered voter of any party, and independents

C) any registered voter of any party except independents

D) only registered voters of members of that party

E) only preapproved registered voters of members of that party

10) Who can vote in a closed primary election?

A) anyone, even unregistered voters

B) any registered voter of any party, and independents

C) any registered voter of any party except independents

D) only registered members of that party

E) None of these answers is correct.

11) Who or what controls the timing of primary elections?

A) registered voters

B) national party organizations

C) the states

D) the Federal Election Commission

E) the Supreme Court

12) In which month is Super Tuesday, the day on which the most presidential primary elections take place?

A) February

B) March

C) October

D) November

E) June

13) In the United States, most general elections are held in which month?

A) February

B) March

C) October

D) November

E) June

14) Presidential elections are always held on what day?

A) whatever day is set by the Supreme Court for that specific year

B) the last Tuesday before the last Wednesday in October

C) the last Tuesday in October

D) the second Tuesday in November

E) the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November

15) In general elections for Congress, how many votes must a candidate receive in order to win?

A) 50 percent of the vote

B) a majority of the vote

C) the most votes

D) 50 percent of the vote, plus one

E) a preponderance of the votes

16) In many states, what percentage of votes must a candidate receive in a general election to avoid a runoff election?

A) 50 percent

B) 55 percent

C) 60 percent

D) 65 percent

E) 70 percent

17) What technology has facilitated the use of instant runoff elections?

A) computers

B) mobile technologies and devices

C) cellular phones

D) computerized voting machines

E) touch-screen voting portals

18) In a referendum, voters in a state can vote for or against a measure proposed by whom?

A) citizens

B) interest groups

C) county governments

D) state legislatures

E) state supreme courts

19) Which groups typically sponsor initiatives, or initiative petitions?

A) citizens' groups

B) interest groups

C) county governments

D) state legislatures

E) citizens' and interest groups

20) Which of the following best describes a proposition?

A) a special election

B) a proposed measure

C) a recall

D) an instant runoff election

E) a winner-take-all election

21) What type of election allows voters to cut short an office-holder's term?

A) recall election

B) runoff election

C) instant runoff election

D) primary election

E) runoff primary election

22) Which of the following is FALSE about balloting in the United States?

A) The secret ballot is used.

B) The government prepares the ballot.

C) When balloting is complete, the ballots are counted by government officials.

D) Methods of balloting are constitutionally stipulated.

E) The Australian ballot is used.

23) During the presidential election of 2000, which state's voting system came under enormous scrutiny because of paper perforations known as chads?

A) California

B) New York

C) South Carolina

D) Florida

E) Ohio

24) Which type of ballot generally leads to the coattail effect, where down-ballot candidates benefit from the popularity of a top-of-ticket nominee?

A) party-column ballot

B) Australian ballot

C) butterfly ballot

D) office-block ballot

E) absentee ballot

25) Which of the following is an effect of the office-block ballot?

A) Candidates for lower-level offices are more likely to benefit from the popularity of a top-of-ticket nominee.

B) Voters are less likely to know which party the candidates represent.

C) Voters are more likely to split their ticket.

D) The secrecy of the ballot is more difficult to maintain.

E) Voters are more likely to vote absentee.

26) Which of the following was NOT a problem in the contested Florida presidential election results of 2000?

A) a faulty electronic voting system

B) poorly designed ballots

C) differing standards of hand counting of ballots

D) absence of a single judicial officer

E) contested tally count

27) Due to the popularity of voting by mail, which of the following states abandoned voting in polling places on Election Day?

A) Kansas

B) California

C) Oregon

D) Idaho

E) Nevada

28) Which region of the country is most accommodating of voters, in that it is overall easier to vote early, by mail, and by absentee ballot?

A) West Coast

B) South

C) Plains states

D) Midwest

E) Northeast

29) Which of the following is NOT a criticism of vote-by-mail?

A) There is a lack of access to late information about candidates.

B) It may undermine feelings of civic engagement.

C) Chances of fraud are increased.

D) It leads to a reduction of privacy.

E) It decreases voter participation.

30) Which of the following describes what motivates individuals to run for office?

A) a sense of civic responsibility

B) party loyalty and allegiance

C) desire for financial and personal gain

D) personal goals and a desire for greater name recognition

E) civic responsibility, party allegiance, personal goals, and desire for greater name recognition

31) What age limit for presidential office is codified by Article I of the Constitution?

A) at least 25 years old

B) at least 28 years old

C) at least 30 years old

D) at least 35 years old

E) at least 38 years old

32) A candidate for vice president must be

A) at least 30 years old.

B) resident of a different state than the presidential candidate.

C) a person with excellent debating skills.

D) younger than the presidential candidate.

E) All of these answers are correct.

33) What age limit for senatorial office is codified by Article I of the Constitution?

A) at least 25 years old

B) at least 28 years old

C) at least 30 years old

D) at least 35 years old

E) at least 38 years old

34) What age limit for election to the House of Representatives is codified by Article I of the Constitution?

A) at least 25 years old

B) at least 28 years old

C) at least 30 years old

D) at least 35 years old

E) at least 38 years old

35) Which of the following describes formal eligibility requirements for elected office at the state level?

A) citizenship

B) residency

C) age

D) place of birth

E) age, residency, and citizenship

36) All of the following are considered informal qualifications for federal office EXCEPT

A) possession of a college degree.

B) considerable professional experience.

C) strong communications skills.

D) meeting the age requirement.

E) having been elected to office.

37) Today, most political campaigns are conducted and managed by

A) party volunteers.

B) unpaid campaign consultants.

C) paid campaign consultants.

D) local electoral officials.

E) political party organizations.

38) Which of the following conducts focus groups to determine candidate strengths and weaknesses?

A) campaign manager

B) pollster

C) fundraising consultant

D) media consultant

E) campaign strategist

39) Who is primarily responsible for creating ads for television, radio, print, and the Internet?

A) campaign manager

B) pollster

C) fundraising consultant

D) media consultant

E) campaign strategist

40) Efforts to limit the influence of money on political campaigns started after what event?

A) the Supreme Court's ruling in Citizens United v. The Federal Election Commission during Barack Obama's presidency

B) the Teapot Dome scandal during Warren Harding's presidency

C) passage of the McCain-Feingold legislation during George W. Bush's presidency

D) passage of the Hatch Act during the presidency of Franklin D. Roosevelt

E) passage of the Federal Election Campaign Act during Richard Nixon's presidency

41) Which anticorruption reform is also known as the Hatch Act of 1939?

A) Federal Corrupt Practices Act

B) Political Activities Act

C) Federal Election Campaign Act

D) Bipartisan Campaign Finance Reform Act

E) McCain-Feingold Act

42) Lacking in the original legislation, what was the most important provision in the 1974 amendments to the Federal Election Campaign Act?

A) a voluntary tax return check-off for qualified presidential candidates

B) limits on campaign expenditures

C) creation of an enforcement mechanism

D) limits on campaign finances

E) public financing for all candidates

43) What is the major significance of the Supreme Court's ruling in Buckley v. Valeo?

A) All political expenditures are protected by the First Amendment.

B) PACs can legally coordinate expenditures with political campaigns.

C) A PAC's contributions to a political candidate cannot be limited.

D) Congress can limit overall campaign spending.

E) Independent expenditures are protected by law against limitations.

44) For most of the last 40 years, the most common type of PAC was

A) nonconnected.

B) labor.

C) corporate.

D) health.

E) None of these was a common type of PAC.

45) Contributions to political parties designated for so-called party-building activities are known as

A) PAC donations.

B) soft money.

C) independent expenditures.

D) grants-in-kind.

E) extra-campaign contributions.

46) The McCain-Feingold Act

A) passed over the veto of George W. Bush.

B) has so far withstood every court challenge.

C) ended public financing of presidential campaigns.

D) banned most soft money contributions.

E) All of these answers are correct.

47) The Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the McCain-Feingold Act in McConnell v. the Federal Election Commission. What portion of the act did the Supreme Court then invalidate in its 2007 ruling in Federal Election Commission v. Wisconsin Right to Life, Inc.?

A) ban on independent expenditures

B) ban on limits to overall campaign expenditures

C) ban on issue-based ads within the 30- and 60-day election window

D) limitations on advertisements and donations from corporations and labor unions

E) restriction on public funding of political candidates

48) In 2016, how much money could an individual give to each candidate or candidate committee, per election?

A) $2,700

B) $5,000

C) $33,400

D) $45,400

E) no limit

49) In 2016, how much money could a national party give to each candidate or candidate committee, per election?

A) $2,700

B) $5,000

C) $33,400

D) $45,400

E) no limit

50) In 2016, how much money could a multi-candidate PAC give to a national party committee, per calendar year?

A) $2,700

B) $5,000

C) $15,000

D) $33,400

E) no limit

51) Nonprofit groups operated exclusively for the promotion of social welfare, which can include lobbying and engaging in political campaigning, are known as

A) 527s.

B) 501(c)3s.

C) 502s.

D) 501(c)4s.

E) 521s.

52) Tax-exempt groups that raise money for political activities are known as

A) 527s.

B) 501(c)3s.

C) 502s.

D) 501(c)4s.

E) 521s.

53) Which of the following is a major result of the Supreme Court's ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission?

A) decreased importance of money in politics

B) growth of super PACs

C) candidates having a more difficult time soliciting individual donors

D) decreased influence of traditional PACs

E) All of these answers are correct.

54) By the 2016 primary season there were about ________ super PACs.

A) 20

B) 400

C) 2,400

D) 8,600

E) 20,000

55) How many electors are there in the Electoral College?

A) 100

B) 103

C) 435

D) 535

E) 538

56) What is the minimum number of votes required to win the Electoral College?

A) 100

B) 270

C) 435

D) 527

E) 658

57) In most elections, the Electoral College ________ the winner's margin of victory.

A) matches

B) exaggerates

C) decreases

D) reduces

E) None of the answers is correct.

58) Which state has the most electoral votes?

A) Texas

B) New York

C) California

D) Florida

E) Pennsylvania

59) Which of these factors is most important in determining voter participation?

A) age

B) income level

C) education level

D) gender

E) ethnicity

60) A person with which education level is most likely to vote?

A) less than high school graduate

B) high school graduate

C) associate's degree

D) bachelor's degree

E) advanced degree

61) Which of the following statements about age and voting in the United States is most accurate?

A) Because of initiatives like MTV's Rock the Vote, young people are more likely to vote than the middle-aged.

B) The youth turnout rate for President Obama's 2008 election was the lowest in decades.

C) Since the 2008 presidential election, youth turnout rates have continued to rise.

D) Eighteen-year-olds were first given the right to vote in the 1970s.

E) As Americans age, they are less likely to vote.

62) Which group had the highest turnout rate in the 2012 presidential election?

A) whites

B) African Americans

C) Hispanics

D) Asians

E) None of these answers is correct.

63) A voter who evaluates candidates based on the candidates' positions and votes for the candidate that best represent his or her views is a(n)

A) retrospective voter.

B) salient voter.

C) issues voter.

D) prospective voter.

E) absentee voter.

64) A voter who evaluates an incumbent candidate based on the candidate's past decisions and actions is a(n)

A) retrospective voter.

B) salient voter.

C) issues voter.

D) prospective voter.

E) absentee voter.

65) What is the most important factor determining how a person will vote?

A) whether or not the candidate is an incumbent

B) the gender of the candidate

C) the race of the candidate

D) the effectiveness of campaign ads for and against the candidate

E) None of these answers is correct.

66) On which of these types of issues are voters most willing to base their vote?

A) party-based issues

B) personal issues

C) liberty issues

D) salient issues

E) controversial issues

67) In recent years, political campaigns have grown

A) increasingly positive.

B) somewhat more positive.

C) neither positive nor negative.

D) somewhat more negative.

E) increasingly negative.

68) In the United States, the length of presidential campaigns tends to lead to voter fatigue. How long do presidential campaigns in the United States generally last?

A) over three years

B) over one year

C) up to a year

D) six to nine months

E) three to six months

69) What theory states that making the conscious choice not to vote is rational and logical?

A) rational choice theory

B) voter fatigue thesis

C) cumulative cost thesis

D) rational actor thesis

E) nonvoter rationalization thesis

70) Outline how elections offer opportunities for citizen involvement in the political process.

71) Define a caucus and explain its function in elections.

72) Compare and contrast open and closed primary elections.

73) Explain the difference between a referendum and an initiative.

74) Outline and discuss the key features of the Australian ballot system.

75) Identify the chief advantages of absentee voting.

76) Outline the four types of motivation generally in play when individuals run for political office.

77) Discuss the increased use of, and various functions performed by, campaign consultants in recent elections.

78) Outline how new technologies have changed the conduct of political campaigns in recent years.

79) Explain the relationship between party competitiveness and voter turnout.