Coding Infectious Diseases Ch.5 Complete Test Bank

Let’s Code It!, 1e (Safian)

Chapter 5 Coding Infectious Diseases

1) An infection can spread through:

A) touching a doorknob.

B) shaking someone's hand.

C) picking up a used tissue.

D) all of these

2) ________ is/are any agent that causes disease; a microorganism such as a bacterium or virus.

A) Parasites

B) Pathogen

C) Viruses

D) Systemic

3) When an infection or virus spreads throughout the entire body it is known as:

A) Parasites.

B) Pathogen.

C) Viruses.

D) Systemic.

4) Signs and symptoms of an existence of infection include all except a(n):

A) fever.

B) rash.

C) increased white blood cell count.

D) change in heart rate.

5) When there are no symptoms or manifestations this is known as:

A) Systematic.

B) Symptomatic.

C) Asymptomatic.

D) Chronic.

6) ________ is the reaction of tissues to infection or injury; characterized by pain, swelling, and erythema.

A) Inflammation

B) Acute

C) Chronic

D) Subclinical

7) ________ is of long duration; continuing over an extended period of time.

A) Inflammation

B) Acute

C) Chronic

D) Subclinical

8) ________ is severe; serious.

A) Inflammation

B) Acute

C) Chronic

D) Subclinical

9) When a patient acquires a condition that develops as a result of being in a health care facility it is known as a(n) ________ condition.

A) pathogen

B) virus

C) parasite

D) nosocomial

10) Exposure due to physical interaction with blood, bodily fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes can enable a long list of bloodborne pathogens to make their way from one person to another. This type of exposure is known as:

A) droplet exposure.

B) contact exposure.

C) touch exposure.

D) needlestick exposure.

11) Exposure due to some diseases, such as influenza, can be transmitted by coughing, spitting, talking, and sneezing. This type of exposure is known as:

A) droplet exposure.

B) contact exposure.

C) touch exposure.

D) needlestick exposure.

12) The code description that states "diseases classified elsewhere" means that:

A) the condition has its own code within this code set.

B) the condition does not have its own code within this code set.

C) a combination code is available.

D) only one code is needed.

13) Tuberculosis is transmitted by:

A) needlestick.

B) drinking contaminated water.

C) insect bites.

D) air.

14) Dysentery is transmitted by:

A) needlestick.

B) drinking contaminated water.

C) insect bites.

D) air.

15) Which of the following are named by their shape?

A) Bacteria

B) Fungi

C) Parasites

D) Viruses

16) Janie was visiting her uncle on his farm and drank untreated milk. Janie began to vomit and has diarrhea and abdominal pain. Janie's uncle took her to the doctor who diagnosed Janie with salmonella poisoning. The coder should assign code(s) for:

A) diarrhea.

B) abdominal pain.

C) salmonella.

D) vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and salmonella.

17) Signs of Cellulitis include all of the following except:

A) erythema.

B) hypertension.

C) edema.

D) tachycardia.

18) In your ICD-10-CM turn to code L03.211 in the Tabular List. What notation is found under the code?

A) Includes

B) Excludes1

C) Excludes2

D) Use additional code

19) Tetanus is an infection of the nervous system and is caused by the entry of ________ into the body through a break in the skin.

A) bacteria

B) pathogen

C) parasite

D) virus

20) Joe was vaccinated for tetanus. He is now experiencing headaches and nausea. Dr. Jameson also notes hypotension as a complication from the vaccination. The coder should assign which code?

A) Z23

B) T88.1XXA

C) T88.1A

D) A33

21) Sam is diagnosed with acute miliary tuberculosis of multiple sites. The main term is ________; the correct diagnosis code is ________.

A) Miliary, A15.0

B) Tuberculosis, A17.1

C) Tuberculosis, A18.81

D) Tuberculosis, A19.1

22) Which of the following embed themselves in host cells and can be difficult to isolate?

A) viruses

B) bacteria

C) fungi

D) parasites

23) Chickenpox is a:

A) bacterial infection.

B) fungal infection.

C) parasitic infection.

D) viral infection.

24) Which of the following can lay dormant for long periods of time?

A) Bacteria

B) Viruses

C) Fungi

D) Parasites

25) George Honker is diagnosed with acute hepatitis B without delta-agent with hepatic coma. The main term is ________; the correct diagnosis code is ________.

A) Viral, B16.0

B) Examination, B16.1

C) Hepatitis, B16.2

D) Coma, B16.9

26) Debbie Simmons is diagnosed with influenza with respiratory manifestations. The main term is ________; the correct diagnosis code is ________.

A) Respiratory, J09.X1

B) Influenza, J11.1

C) Influenza, J10.2

D) Manifestations, J11.2

27) Lice and mites are examples of:

A) bacteria.

B) fungi.

C) parasites.

D) viruses.

28) What are hookworms, pinworms, and tapeworms examples of?

A) fungi

B) parasites

C) viruses

D) bacteria

29) What is the most common nail fungus infection?

A) Aspergillus

B) Candida albicans

C) Cutaneous blastomycosis

D) Onychomycosis

30) Mushrooms, yeast, and mold are edible forms of:

A) bacteria.

B) fungi.

C) parasites.

D) viruses.

31) Malaria, a disease spread by mosquitoes, is an example of a:

A) bacterial infection.

B) fungal infection.

C) parasitic infestation.

D) viral infection.

32) Todd was diagnosed with acute pulmonary coccidioidomycosis. The coder should assign which code?

A) B35

B) B44

C) B39.3

D) B38.0

33) All of the following are types of pneumonia except:

A) bacterial.

B) phlegm.

C) viral.

D) fungal.

34) ________ identifies that pneumonia has developed in a patient who has not recently been in the hospital or another health care facility.

A) Hospital-acquired pneumonia

B) Nosocomial-acquired pneumonia

C) Community-acquired pneumonia

D) Nursing home-acquired pneumonia

35) In order to code a diagnosis of meningitis, you have to know the specific virus or bacterium at the core of the inflammation. This can typically be found in the ________ report.

A) Physician's Notes/Operative

B) Imaging

C) Pathology

D) Medication

36) Eugene Williams was diagnosed with pneumococcal streptococcus pneumoniae meningitis. The main term is ________; the code is ________.

A) Meningitis, G00.1

B) Pneumococcal, G00.8

C) Streptococcus, G00.2

D) Staphylococcus, G00.3

37) Refer to your ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines I.C.1.f. The guideline states: If the provider documents "suspected", "possible", or "probable"________, do not assign code A92.5. Assign a code(s) explaining the reason for encounter (such as fever, rash, or joint pain) or ________, Contact with and (suspected) exposure to other viral communicable diseases.

A) MRSA, Z20.821

B) Zika, Z20.828

C) MSSA, Z20.820

D) SIRS, Z20.827

38) Jenny Burton was diagnosed with pneumonia due to mycoplasma pneumoniae. The coder will assign code:

A) J15.7

B) J15.8

C) J15.5

D) J15.6

39) In your ICD-10-CM book, turn to code J13 in the Tabular List. Under this code is a "Code also associated abscess, if applicable" notation. What is the code listed next to the "Code also associated abscess, if applicable" notation?

A) J09.X1

B) J10.0-

C) J85.1

D) J11.0-

40) In your ICD-10-CM book, turn to code J17 in the Tabular List. Under this code is a "Code first underlying disease, such as: Q fever" notation. What is the code next to the Q fever?

A) I00

B) A78

C) B65.1

D) B65.9

41) Refer to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines I.C.1.a.2.h which states: When a patient returns to be informed of his/her HIV test results and the test is negative, use code ________.

A) Z72.5

B) Z71.7

C) Z11.4

D) Z20.6

42) Tim is concerned he might have been exposed to HIV and comes to see Dr. McGee. This is Tim's first office visit to discuss possible HIV exposure. The coder will assign code:

A) Z21.

B) B20.

C) B97.35.

D) Z20.6.

43) When reporting an inconclusive HIV test, the coder will assign code:

A) R75.

B) Z11.4.

C) Z71.7.

D) Z72.820.

44) Jamie Holstein tested positive for HIV five years ago. She has now begun showing signs and symptoms of the disease. The coder should assign code:

A) R75.

B) Z21.

C) B20.

D) Z20.6.

45) Refer to the ICD-10-CM Official guidelines I.C.1.a.2.b which states: If a patient with HIV disease is admitted for an ________ condition, the code for the ________ condition should be the principal diagnosis.

A) related, unrelated

B) unrelated, unrelated

C) nosocomial, related

D) traumatic, unrelated

46) Primary immunodeficiency disorders include all of the following except:

A) XLA.

B) CVID.

C) AIDS.

D) SCID.

47) _______ report a code for HIV infection or illness without a specific physician diagnostic statement-a confirmed diagnosis.

A) Always

B) Never

C) Sometimes

D) Certainly

48) Beverly is diagnosed with acute meningococcal septicemia. The coder should assign code:

A) A39.2.

B) A39.3.

C) A39.4.

D) A39.5.

49) The presence of unknown bacteria in the blood may be diagnosed as:

A) septicemia.

B) sepsis.

C) bacteremia

D) severe sepsis

50) The diagnosis of severe sepsis must include a(n):

A) known pathogen.

B) fever.

C) organ dysfunction.

D) HIV-positive status.

51) The diagnosis of severe sepsis must include:

A) identification of the underlying infection.

B) which organ system failed.

C) the age of the patient.

D) identification of the underlying infection and which organ failed.

52) What is the correct code for a patient diagnosed with sepsis due to group D Streptococcus?

A) A40.0

B) A40.1

C) A41.81

D) A40.8

53) The diagnosis of sepsis must include:

A) a specified pathogen.

B) acute organ dysfunction.

C) an unknown pathogen.

D) HIV-positive status.

54) Coding for septic shock will require:

A) 1 code.

B) 2 codes.

C) 3 codes.

D) 4 codes.

55) Refer to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines I.C.1.d.2.a which states: ________ generally refers to circulatory failure associated with severe sepsis, and therefore, it represents a type of acute organ dysfunction.

A) Sepsis

B) Septic shock

C) Septicemia

D) Bacteremia

56) A physical reaction, such as fever and chills, to an unspecified pathogen is a diagnosis referred to by the acronym

A) HIV.

B) HPV.

C) SIRS.

D) ICPs.

57) The correct sequence for coding SIRS is:

A) Code for the underlying condition, code the SIRS, code the acute organ dysfunction.

B) Code the SIRS, code the underlying condition, code the acute organ dysfunction.

C) Code the organ dysfunction, code the SIRS, code the underlying condition.

D) Code the SIRS, code the acute organ dysfunction, code the underlying condition.

58) A MRSA carrier is coded as:

A) Z22.321.

B) Z22.322.

C) A41.02.

D) J15.212.

59) AMR stands for:

A) Adaptive Mesh Refinement.

B) Audio Modem Riser.

C) Antimicrobial Resistance.

D) American Medical Response.

60) Primarily, one category is used to report AMR. What is that category?

A) Z15

B) Z16

C) Z17

D) Z18

61) In your ICD-10-CM, turn to code category Z16 in the Tabular List. Under the category code you will find an Excludes1 notation for Sepsis due to Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus Aureus. What code is suggested by this notation?

A) A49.02

B) B95.62

C) J15.212

D) A41.02

62) Staphylococcus aureus is what type of infection?

A) bacterial

B) fungal

C) parasitic

D) viral

63) Refer to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines I.C.1.e.1.b which states: When there is documentation of a current infection due to ________, and that infection does not have a combination code that includes the causal organism, assign the appropriate code to identify the condition along with code ________, Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection as the cause of diseases classified elsewhere for the MRSA infection.

A) MSSA, A41.02

B) Zika, Z20.828

C) MRSA, B95.62

D) MRSA, A49.02

64) Which of the following is not a communicable disease?

A) Meningitis

B) Hepatitis A

C) Rubeola

D) Colitis

65) Davita, 2 days old, is diagnosed with sepsis due to E. coli. The coder should assign code?

A) P36.2

B) P36.4

C) A41.2

D) A41.9

66) Gracie, 1 year old, is diagnosed with toxoplasma myocarditis. The coder should assign code:

A) B58.81.

B) P37.0.

C) B58.2.

D) P37.2.