Chapter.46 Verified Test Bank Microbiology And Disease

Student name:__________

1) Infections by microorganisms that can cause disease only when a host's resistance is low are called __________ infections.

2) Organisms that neither help nor harm the host or are beneficial, creating a barrier against pathogens, are called resident normal __________.

3) MRSA is an infection caused by a(n) __________ microorganism that is on the rise in the United States.

4) One strategy to reduce the incidence of antibiotic-resistant microorganisms is to improve __________ use.

5) A(n) __________ stain is used to identify bacteria that have a waxy cell wall, such as the bacterium that causes tuberculosis.

6) Bacteria that grow best in the presence of oxygen are referred to as __________.

7) Bacteria that grow best in the absence of oxygen are referred to as __________.

8) Organisms that can grow in either an aerobic or an anaerobic environment are said to be __________.

9) Semisolid culture media contain a gelatin-like substance derived from seaweed, called __________, which gives them their consistency.

10) A(n) __________ is an agent prescribed by a physician that kills microorganisms or suppresses their growth.

11) A distinct group of organisms seen on the surface of the culture medium is called a(n) __________.

12) A(n) __________ medium is a substance that contains all the nutrients a particular type of microorganism needs to grow.

13) A(n) __________ agent is a living microorganism or its toxin that may cause human disease. A label with this and a biohazard symbol must be affixed to a package containing a microbiologic specimen sent through the mail.

14) Stained bacteria that lose the purple color when the decolorizer is added and pick up the red color of the safranin are referred to as __________ bacteria.

15) Bacterial species that retain the purple dye even after the decolorizer is added and appear blue or violet are referred to as __________ bacteria.

16) In addition to their shape, bacteria are commonly classified by how they react to certain stains. The most common staining procedure in use today is the __________ stain, a method of staining that differentiates bacteria according to the chemical composition of their cell walls.

17) A(n) __________ mount is a type of mount used when a physician suspects that a patient has a fungal infection of the skin, nails, hair, or vagina because it dissolves the keratin and allows visualization of any fungus.

18) The study of microorganisms is called __________.

19) Large, fuzzy, multicelled fungi that produce spores are called __________.

20) Iodine is an example of a(n) __________, which is a substance that intensifies or deepens the response of a specimen to a stain.

21) In cases of a suspected parasitic worm infestation, a(n) __________ specimen may be ordered by the practitioner.

22) An organism that lives on or in another organism and uses that other organism to the detriment of the host organism is a(n) __________.

23) A single-celled eukaryotic organism that is generally much larger than bacteria and is found in soil and water is called a(n) __________. These organisms can cause diseases such as malaria and amebic dysentery.

24) The determination of the type of pathogen on a culture plate is referred to as a(n) __________ analysis of the specimen.

25) The determination of the number of bacteria present in specimens such as urine is referred to as a(n) __________ analysis.

26) A specimen may be directly viewed as a(n) __________, in which a specimen is spread thinly and evenly across a slide.

27) A(n) __________ is a solution of a dye or group of dyes that imparts a color to microorganisms.

28) The smallest known infectious agent, consisting only of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat, is a(n) __________.

29) A specimen may be directly viewed as a(n) __________, which is a preparation of a specimen in a liquid that allows the organisms to remain alive and mobile while they are being identified.

30) A fungus that grows mainly as a single-celled organism and reproduces by budding is referred to as a(n) __________.

31) A pathogen that is made of protein, is very small, and has no nucleic acid is a(n) __________.

32) A viral infection of the liver that can lead to cirrhosis and death is __________.

33) A(n) __________ infestation can cause anal itching, as well as nighttime restlessness due to anal itching.

34) The fifth most common cause of death worldwide from infectious disease is __________.

35) Which of the following refers to the study of microorganisms?

A) pharmacology
B) microbiology
C) hematology
D) radiology
E) neurology

36) Which of the following is characteristic of resident normal flora?

A) They are normally found on the skin and within the human body.
B) They have no effect on animals but are dangerous to humans.
C) They are referred to as pathogenic.
D) They may lead to serious conditions.
E) They cause mild infections.

37) An example of a subcellular microorganism is a __________.

A) virus
B) bacterium
C) protozoan
D) fungus
E) helminth

38) Which of the following is an example of a microorganism that is classified a prokaryotic cell?

A) fungus
B) virus
C) bacterium
D) parasite
E) helminth

39) Which of the following is characteristic of a subcellular microorganism?

A) complex cell structure containing a nucleus
B) highly structured organism with specialized organelles in the cytoplasm
C) noncellular structure in which the nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat
D) simple cell structure with no nucleus and no organelles in the cytoplasm
E) cell with a single chromosome and no organelles

40) Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?

A) They are noncellular.
B) They are simply structured with a single chromosome and no organelles.
C) They are highly structured and contain a nucleus.
D) They have a complex cell structure and have specialized organelles in the cytoplasm.
E) They consist of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat.

41) Which of the following are characteristics of eukaryotic cells?

A) They have a complex cell structure containing a nucleus and specialized organelles in the cytoplasm.
B) They have a simple cell structure with no nucleus.
C) They are noncellular.
D) They have an uncomplicated, basic structure that contains no organelles in the cytoplasm.
E) They consist of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat.

42) Which classification of microorganisms contains protozoans, fungi, and parasites?

A) subcellular
B) prokaryotic
C) eukaryotic
D) bacteria
E) viruses

43) A microorganism capable of causing disease is a __________.

A) pathogen
B) macrophage
C) nucleotide
D) nucleoside
E) symbiote

44) Which of the following can weaken the body's ability to fight infection?

A) high-protein diet
B) cancer treatment
C) proper hygiene habits
D) exercise
E) adequate sleep

45) Beneficial bacteria found in the body that perform functions such as producing vitamins are called __________.

A) antigens
B) normal flora
C) immune flora
D) virulent bacteria
E) acid-fast bacteria

46) What disorder is a complication of a strep infection manifested by inflammation of the heart tissue?

A) tetanus
B) rheumatic fever
C) pertussis
D) scarlet fever
E) mumps

47) The viral infection that affects the salivary glands, causing fever, headache, and inflammation of the glands is __________.

A) whooping cough
B) meningitis
C) mumps
D) rubella
E) scarlet fever

48) The respiratory disease that causes fever, cough, sore throat, runny or stuffy nose, muscle or body aches, headaches, and fatigue, and is spread by airborne transmission is __________.

A) mumps
B) measles
C) influenza
D) pertussis
E) diphtheria

49) Amy is a 9-year-old patient who has a high fever, headache, and an itchy rash. Although Amy usually has a good appetite, her mother says she has not been hungry for the last few days. The rash is starting to blister. Which of the following diseases might you suspect?

A) chickenpox
B) rubella
C) diphtheria
D) hepatitis
E) cholera

50) Mononucleosis is caused by which of the following?

A) varicella-zoster virus
B) Enterobius vermicularis
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) helminths
E) cytomegalovirus

51) Three-year-old Tyler's parents report that he has had a runny nose and a mild cough for the last several days. They brought him to the clinic because the coughing has become "terrible" during the past 24 hours. While getting the history from the parents, you notice a "whoop" sound as Tyler inhales after a severe coughing spell. Which of the following diseases is the most probable cause of Tyler's cough?

A) tetanus
B) diphtheria
C) croup
D) rubella
E) pertussis

52) An acute, often fatal, infectious bacterial disease caused by the introduction of pathogenic spores, which enter the body through a contaminated puncture wound, is __________.

A) pertussis
B) diphtheria
C) tetanus
D) rubeola
E) mumps

53) In which condition does a pseudomembrane cover the tonsils, throat, and nose, causing respiratory obstruction?

A) measles
B) diphtheria
C) mumps
D) influenza
E) Legionnaire's disease

54) Which of the following is a frequent cause of bacterial infections, including epiglottitis and pneumonia, in infants and young children in the United States?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Haemophilus influenzae Serotype B
C) Helicobacter pylori
D) Legionella pneumophila
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

55) Which of the following microorganisms cause diseases that are a leading cause of death in developing countries because of lack of proper sanitation?

A) viruses
B) bacteria
C) protozoans
D) fungi
E) helminths

56) Which of the following are examples of diseases caused by viruses?

A) gonorrhea and meningitis
B) tinea pedis and vaginal yeast infections
C) malaria and trichomoniasis vaginitis
D) chickenpox, hepatitis, and influenza
E) strep throat and gastroenteritis

57) Which of the following are characteristics of viruses?

A) They cannot be seen with a regular microscope.
B) They reproduce by budding and do not cause disease in humans.
C) They are single-celled organisms that reproduce very quickly.
D) They are found in soil and water and most do not cause disease in humans.
E) They are among the largest infectious agents.

58) Bacteria are most commonly classified according to their __________.

A) ability to retain certain dyes
B) ability to grow in the presence or absence of air
C) biochemical reactions
D) shape
E) size

59) The bacteria shown in the figure are __________.


Source: CDC/Janice Carr

A) vibrios
B) cocci
C) spirilla
D) bacilli
E) parasites

60) The comma-shaped bacteria pictured here are __________.


Source: CDC/Janice Haney Carr

A) bacilli
B) vibrios
C) cocci
D) spirilla
E) parasites

61) The spiral-shaped bacterium pictured here is classified as a __________.


©MELBA PHOTO AGENCY/Alamy Stock Photo

A) bacillus
B) coccus
C) spirillum
D) vibrio
E) parasite

62) The bacteria pictured here are classified as __________.


Source: CDC/Janice Carr

A) bacilli
B) spirilla
C) cocci
D) vibrios
E) parasites

63) Which of the following bacteria grow in grape-like clusters and are commonly found on the skin?

A) diplococci
B) mycobacteria
C) staphylococci
D) mycoplasma
E) bacilli

64) Which type of bacteria causes boils, acne, abscesses, food poisoning, and a type of pneumonia?

A) diplococci
B) spirilla
C) staphylococci
D) streptococci
E) bacilli

65) What is the term for the type of cocci that are in pairs?

A) Vibrios
B) Streptococci
C) Diplococci
D) Staphylococci
E) Bacilli

66) What is the shape of streptococci bacteria?

A) chains
B) pairs
C) grape-like clusters
D) spirals
E) triplets

67) Diplococci bacteria are responsible for causing __________.

A) boils, acne, and abscesses
B) gonorrhea and some forms of meningitis
C) gastroenteritis and tetanus
D) syphilis and Lyme disease
E) tuberculosis.

68) Which of the following microorganisms cause infections such as strep throat, certain types of pneumonia, and rheumatic fever?

A) streptococci
B) mycobacteria
C) rickettsia
D) diplococci
E) staphylococci

69) Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for gastroenteritis, tuberculosis, whooping cough, botulism, and tetanus?

A) spirilla
B) bacilli
C) staphylococci
D) streptococci
E) vibrios

70) Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for infections such as syphilis and Lyme disease?

A) staphylococci
B) spirilla
C) vibrios
D) bacilli
E) streptococci

71) Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for diseases such as cholera?

A) spirilla
B) vibrios
C) staphylococci
D) bacilli
E) streptococci

72) What is the name of a solution of a dye or group of dyes that imparts a distinctive color to microorganisms?

A) smear
B) wet mount
C) stain
D) culture
E) medium

73) Which of the following is the most common staining procedure, which differentiates bacteria according to the chemical composition of their cell walls?

A) Gram stain
B) Methylene blue stain
C) Acid-fast stain
D) Congo red stain
E) Ziehl-Neelsen stain

74) The acid-fast staining procedure is a __________.

A) preparation of a specimen in a liquid that allows the organisms to remain alive and mobile
B) procedure for identifying bacteria with a waxy cell wall
C) smear in which a specimen is spread thinly and unevenly across a slide
D) sample of the specimen placed in a substance that allows microorganisms to grow
E) staining procedure that identifies anaerobic bacteria

75) Which of the following are bacteria that grow best in the presence of oxygen?

A) mordants
B) aerobes
C) keratins
D) anaerobes
E) facultative specimens

76) A preparation of a specimen in a liquid that allows the organisms to remain alive and mobile while being identified is a(n) __________.

A) stain
B) culture
C) smear
D) wet mount
E) mordant

77) Which of the following is true regarding anaerobes?

A) They grow best in the presence of oxygen.
B) They are identified by biochemical reactions that occur within the cell.
C) They grow best in the absence of oxygen.
D) They can thrive in an environment either with oxygen or without oxygen.
E) They have a waxy cell wall.

78) A sample of a specimen that is placed in or on a substance that allows microorganisms to grow is a __________.

A) stain
B) smear
C) wet mount
D) culture
E) mordant

79) Facultative bacteria are bacteria that __________.

A) grow best in the presence of oxygen
B) grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
C) grow best in the absence of oxygen
D) are identified by biochemical reactions that occur within the cell
E) have a waxy cell wall

80) In which of the following is a specimen spread thinly and unevenly across a slide?

A) stain
B) smear
C) culture
D) wet mount
E) C&S

81) Which of the following, found in insects such as ticks and mites, are responsible for diseases such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus?

A) mycobacteria
B) chlamydiae
C) mycoplasmas
D) rickettsiae
E) MSRA

82) The genus that causes tuberculosis and leprosy is __________.

A) staphylococcus
B) mycobacterium
C) streptococcus
D) bacillus
E) pneumocystis

83) Which of the following cause eye disease, venereal disease, and a form of pneumonia?

A) spirilla
B) rickettsiae
C) chlamydiae
D) mycobacteria
E) mycoplasmas

84) Fungi that grow into large, fuzzy, multicelled organisms that produce spores are called __________.

A) keratins
B) molds
C) spirilla
D) agar
E) yeasts

85) Which of the following is an organism that lives on or in another organism and uses that other organism for its nourishment, or for some other advantage, to the detriment of the host organism?

A) mordant
B) fungus
C) colony
D) yeast
E) parasite

86) An infection caused by a parasite is called a(n) __________.

A) outbreak
B) mordant
C) infestation
D) epidemic
E) pandemic

87) Which of the following is a parasitic disease?

A) syphilis
B) pneumonia
C) hepatitis
D) scabies
E) ringworm

88) Which of the following reproduce by budding?

A) viruses
B) protozoans
C) yeasts
D) molds
E) parasites

89) Which of the following involves culturing a specimen and then testing the isolated bacterium's susceptibility to antibiotics?

A) culture and sensitivity
B) KOH mount
C) acid-fast stain
D) wet mount
E) Gram stain

90) Which of the following is an agent that kills microorganisms or suppresses their growth?

A) culture
B) smear
C) stain
D) mordant
E) antimicrobial

91) Which of the following is a guideline for the preparation and transportation of a specimen to an outside laboratory for pathologic study?

A) Use whatever collection device is available.
B) Maintain the sample in a state as close to its original state as possible.
C) Use the same specimen for both microbiologic and pathologic examination.
D) Keep the specimens in a heated environment after obtaining them.
E) Obtain the specimen after the patient has started taking an antimicrobial.

92) Which of the following is included in specimen-collection guidelines?

A) One specimen is sufficient for two or more different tests.
B) Obtain a specimen from a site where the organism is least likely to be found.
C) Test the specimen within 10 minutes of collection.
D) Obtain the specimen only after antibiotic therapy has been initiated.
E) Obtain the specimen at a time that allows optimal chance of recovery of the microorganism.

93) Which of the following is an inflammation of the heart tissue that occurs most frequently in school-age children as a result of an untreated strep throat?

A) colitis
B) tuberculosis
C) rheumatic fever
D) botulism
E) whooping cough

94) Rick, a 22-year-old patient, has had a bad cough that has lasted almost a month. He says his chest hurts, and he has been coughing up blood. He has lost 12 pounds since his last visit, three months ago. His temperature is 101.9°F. For which of the following diseases might you expect the physician to test?

A) diphtheria
B) measles
C) epiglottitis
D) hepatitis
E) tuberculosis

95) Which of the following specimens would be collected if the practitioner suspects a patient has tuberculosis?

A) stool specimen
B) wound specimen
C) throat culture specimen
D) sputum specimen
E) blood specimen

96) Which of the following should be included when obtaining a throat culture specimen from a patient?

A) Wear examination gloves, goggles, and a mask or face shield.
B) Instruct all adult patients to lie down for the procedure.
C) Swab the back of the throat, including the uvula and the soft tissue hanging from the roof of the mouth.
D) Insert the swab into the sleeve after touching the outside of the sleeve with the swab.
E) Place the tongue depressor in the nearest trash can after use.

97) Which type of specimen is examined for the presence of parasites such as roundworms or tapeworms?

A) throat culture specimen
B) stool specimen
C) wound specimen
D) sputum specimen
E) blood specimen

98) Mary has come to the medical office complaining of an infection involving her left great toenail. Which of the following tests will the practitioner order for this condition?

A) smear
B) culture
C) Gram stain
D) wet mount
E) KOH mount

99) Which of the following should you include when preparing a KOH mount?

A) Suspend the specimen in a drop of 10% potassium hydroxide.
B) Avoid covering the specimen with a coverslip.
C) Examine the specimen immediately after obtaining it.
D) Refrigerate the specimen if you cannot examine it immediately after obtaining it.
E) Wear a face mask and gown when preparing the specimen.

100) The hard protein the body produces that makes visualizing the fungus possible only in a KOH mount is called __________.

A) keratin
B) mordant
C) agar
D) mold
E) yeast

101) Which of the following would you include in the preparation of a microbiologic specimen smear?

A) Rub the specimen swab vigorously over the frosted part of the slide.
B) Wave the slide in the air to help it dry.
C) Heat-fix the slide with the smear side up.
D) Stain the smear before it cools.
E) Wait until after the smear is prepared to label the slide with the patient's name.

102) A substance that can intensify or deepen the response of a specimen to a stain is called a(n) __________.

A) keratin
B) mordant
C) agar
D) colony
E) culture

103) Which of the following would you include when performing a Gram stain?

A) Cover only a small area of the specimen on the side with the crystal violet stain.
B) Allow the stain to sit for no more than 10 seconds before rinsing.
C) Cover the entire specimen area with iodine and allow it to remain for 1 minute.
D) Rub the slide to hasten drying.
E) Apply exactly 3 drops of alcohol or decolorizer after rinsing away the iodine.

104) Which of the following is a distinct group of organisms that can be seen on the surface of the culture medium?

A) mordant
B) colony
C) agar
D) keratin
E) yeast

105) The gelatin-like substance derived from seaweed that gives a culture medium its consistency is called

A) keratin.
B) agar.
C) mordant.
D) stain.
E) KOH.

106) Determination of the type of pathogen is called __________.

A) quantitative analysis
B) sensitivity testing
C) qualitative analysis
D) staining
E) inoculation

107) Determination of the number of bacteria present in specimens is called __________.

A) quantitative analysis
B) sensitivity testing
C) qualitative analysis
D) staining
E) inoculation

108) What information must be included on a laboratory request form?

A) type of organism suspected
B) patient's phone number
C) source of the microbiologic specimen
D) patient's diet
E) patient's signature

109) The microorganisms pictured here are __________.

A) protozoans
B) bacteria
C) fungi
D) viruses
E) helminths

110) The organism pictured here spreads bacteria that causes Lyme disease and is considered a __________.

A) parasitic insect
B) protozoan
C) rickettsiae
D) parasitic worm
E) chlamydiae

111) The parasitic insect pictured here burrows under the skin and causes __________.


Source: CDC/Janice Carr

A) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
B) scabies
C) malaria
D) plague
E) trichinosis

112) Trinity is a 9-year-old patient who has a fever, swollen glands, and a red rash. Upon examination, the physician found the organism shown in the picture. Which of the following diseases might the physician suspect based on this evidence?

A) malaria
B) Legionnaire's disease
C) SARS
D) tetanus
E) Lyme disease

113) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) are caused by a(n) __________.

A) virus
B) bacterium
C) protozoan
D) fungus
E) prion

114) Which of the following is a virus that infects and gradually destroys components of the immune system, resulting in AIDS?

A) SARS
B) HIV
C) MRSA
D) CMV
E) RSV

115) Procedures for packaging and labeling a specimen for mail delivery are set by __________.

A) OSHA
B) EPA
C) WHO
D) CDC
E) AHA

116) A living microorganism or its toxin that may cause human disease that is transported through the U.S. mail must be marked as a(n) __________.

A) mordant
B) virus
C) infestation
D) etiologic agent
E) blood agar.

117) Which of the following is considered the most reliable and timely method of transporting microbiologic specimens?

A) laboratory pickup
B) shipping company
C) courier delivery
D) patient delivery
E) U.S. Postal Service