Chapter 8 Test Bank Juvenile Justice

CHAPTER 8

JUVENILE JUSTICE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Juvenile justice today falls under the umbrella of ____________ law rather than criminal law.

a. delinquent

b. civil

c. domestic

d. property

2. Historically, ______________ have been subject to laws that make some actions illegal for them that are legal for adults (e.g., smoking, not obeying parents, and not attending school).

a. offenders

b. criminals

c. juveniles

d. felons

3. ______________ constitute the largest proportion of juvenile offenses and thus consume an inordinate amount of juvenile courts' time and resources.

a. delinquents

b. status offenses

c. misdemeanors

d. crimes

4. Terms such as child in need of supervision and person in need of supervision tend to be used to distinguish ______________ from juveniles who have committed acts that are crimes when committed by adults.

a. delinquents

b. status offenders

c. crimes

d. misdemeanors

5. No discussion of juvenile delinquency can proceed without noting that some degree of antisocial behavior is ______________ for juveniles.

a. irregular

b. normative

c. identical

d. mysterious

6. Individuals (especially __________) who do not engage in some form of antisocial behavior are statistically in the minority.

a. males

b. females

c. Hispanics

d. African Americans

7. All of the following occur during adolescence EXCEPT:

a. dopamine levels rise

b. serotonin levels rise

c. 10- to 20-fold increase in testosterone

d. the brain undergoes a period of physical reorganization

8. What hormone is linked to aggression and dominance seeking in males?

a. serotonin

b. testosterone

c. myelination

d. inhibition sensors

9. During puberty, the prefrontal cortex is receiving its final coat of a fatty substance called ______________ to insulate various brain structures that are important for the speedy electrochemical transmission of information.

a. serotonin

b. testosterone

c. andollin

d. myelin

10. Around about the age of _______, when the brain reaches its adult state in most people, more adult-like personality traits emerge.

a. 18

b. 21

c. 22

d. 25

11. It has long been known that the vast majority of youth who offend during adolescence ___________ and that only a small number continue to offend in adulthood.

a. continue

b. get into trouble

c. desist

d. get caught

12. According to Terrie Moffitt (1993), ___________ offenders are saddled with neuropsychological and temperamental deficits that are manifested in low IQ, hyperactivity, inattentiveness, negative emotionality, and low impulse control that arise from a combination of genetic and environmental effects on brain development.

a. adolescent-limited

b. criminally-desistent

c. status-persistent

d. life-course-persistent

13. ___________ offenders tend to commit relatively minor offenses, such as petty theft.

a. adolescent-limited

b. life-course-persistent

c. status-persistent

d. criminally-desistent

14. Throughout much of history, young children have been considered not much different from:

a. criminals

b. property

c. pets

d. adults

15. The term used to describe the level to which persons are held legally responsible for their actions is:

a. culpability

b. responsibility

c. maturity

d. liability

16. The minimum legal age of criminal responsibility in British common law is now :

a. 6 years

b. 7 years

c. 10 years

d. 14 years

17. Toward the end of the fourth century, there developed a trend toward limiting the power that fathers had over their children in Roman society, as the cultural idea of ______________ became prominent.

a. paterna pietas

b. paterna potestas

c. patria potestas

d. patria pietas

18. During the Middle Ages, church doctrine held that children under the age of seven could not be held responsible for spiritual transgressions because they had not yet reached the age of:

a. culpability

b. control

c. responsibility

d. reason

19. English courts of the Middle Ages afforded special status to children between the ages of ______________, during which time children could be held criminally responsible and treated as adults only if it could be shown that they were fully aware of the consequences of their actions.

a. 7 and 10

b. 7 and 12

c. 7 and 14

d. 10 and 14

20. English chancery courts were also known as:

a. courts of criminals

b. courts of equity

c. courts of civility

d. courts of crime

21. Parens patriae more loosely but more correctly in a practical sense, means:

a. state as parent

b. delinquency

c. status offenses

d. none of the above

22. The concern over vagrancy and laziness moved the English authorities to create ______________ in which "habits of industry" were to be instilled in their youthful residents, who were typically vagrants and beggars.

a. workhouses

b. bondhouses

c. servicehouses

d. laborhouses

23. Despite its regal origins, which first English workhouse soon became a prisonlike institution?

a. Bridgetwell

b. Groomwell

c. Bridewell

d. House of Refuge

24. The British colonization of the United States provided an additional way to deal with delinquent youths, many of whom were sent from the Bridewells to the colonies as ______________, sometimes even without parental notification or support.

a. indentured servants

b. orphans

c. prisoners

d. all of the above

25. A number of concerned New York citizens formed a group known as the ______________, whose motivation was the belief that the primary causes of criminal behavior were economic; therefore if children were provided with food, shelter, and vocational training, they would choose to become productive citizens rather than thieves and beggars.

a. Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children

b. Society for the Prevention of Child Slavery

c. Society for the Prevention of Cruel Pauperism

d. Society for the Prevention of Pauperism

26. Criteria for admission to the New York House of Refuge were often ______________, as parents could place their children in residence for such offenses as idle and disorderly behavior.

a. arbitrary

b. selective

c. exact

d. disciplined

27. The Ex Parte Crouse case challenged the:

a. legality of methods used by the Child Savers movement in placing children in workhouses

b. power of paterna pietas

c. legality of binding out children

d. power of magistrates to remove children from their parents and send them to houses of refuge

28. Which landmark court decision brought the ideals of the English chancery courts as they pertained to juveniles to America, thus establishing parens patriae as settled law in American juvenile jurisprudence?

a. Schall v. Martin

b. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania

c. In re Gault

d. Ex Parte Crouse

29. As the nineteenth century drew to a close, which group of concerned citizens called for the professionalization of public service?

a. Child Savers

b. Anti-Pauperists

c. Progressives

d. Bridewells

30. The first juvenile court was established in which location?

a. St. Louis County, Missouri

b. Cook County, Illinois

c. Albany County, New York

d. Riverside County, California

31. The burden of proof traditionally used in juvenile court has been:

a. beyond a reasonable doubt

b. reasonable suspicion

c. preponderance of the evidence

d. none of the above

32. In principle, the juvenile court was supposed to:

a. match sentences to offenders

b. emphasize an individualized approach to youthful offending, tailoring each case to the unique characteristics and needs of the child rather than simply matching sentences to offenders

c. hold juveniles as accountable for offenses as adults are in each situation

d. waive juveniles to adult court for all offenses so they can be dealt with in a stricter setting

33. An indictment in adult court is known as a ____________ in juvenile court.

a. sentence

b. trial

c. disposition

d. petition

34. Under certain circumstances, juveniles can be ______________ to adult court, where they are subject to criminal prosecution and punishments.

a. taken into custody

b. aftercare

c. detained

d. waived

35. The practice of waiver increased by _______ percent in the 1980s over what it was in the 1970s.

a. 600

b. 400

c. 200

d. 100

36. Which of the following is NOT a way in which a juvenile can be waived to adult court?

a. parental

b. judicial

c. prosecutorial discretion

d. statutory exclusion

37. A presumptive waiver is one in which:

a. the prosecutor must prove that the juvenile is not amenable to treatment

b. the burden of proof is on the juvenile to prove that they are amenable to treatment

c. the prosecutor files a juvenile’s case directly to adult court

d. certain offenses are excluded from juvenile jurisdiction by statute

38. A prosecutorial discretion waiver is one in which:

a. the prosecutor can file the case directly with the adult court and bypass the juvenile court altogether

b. the judge waives a case to adult court after a full inquiry

c. legislatures have statutorily excluded certain offenses (the most serious ones) from juvenile courts

d. all of the above

39. A statutory exclusion waiver is one in which:

a. the prosecutor can file the case directly with the adult court and bypass the juvenile court altogether

b. the judge waives a case to adult court after a full inquiry

c. legislatures have statutorily excluded certain offenses (the most serious ones) from juvenile courts

d. none of the above

40. Studies of juvenile waivers have shown that:

a. they have a definite deterrent effect

b. juveniles waived to adult courts are more likely to recidivate than youths adjudicated for similar crimes in juvenile courts

c. juveniles waived to adult courts are less likely to recidivate than youths adjudicated for similar crimes in juvenile courts

d. all waived juveniles are punished more severely than non-waived juveniles

41. Under the philosophy of _____________, juvenile courts viewed their mission as helping troublesome, neglected, or abandoned children overcome their difficulties, not punishing them.

a. parens patriae

b. patria potestas

c. patriae paternas

d. hands-off

42. The U.S. Supreme Court maintained a ______________ policy with regard to juvenile issues until 1948.

a. hands-off

b. rigid

c. lenient

d. restrictive

43. In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that the Fourteenth Amendment does prohibit the police from violating the due process clause in obtaining confessions from juveniles and that confessions obtained in this fashion are inadmissible in court?

a. Kent v. United States

b. In re Gault

c. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania

d. Haley v. Ohio

44. Which case was the first instance in which the U.S. Supreme Court provided oversight to juvenile court proceedings, marking a steady shift away from the juvenile courts' traditional operating principle of parens patriae?

a. Haley v. Ohio

b. Kent v. United States

c. In re Gault

d. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania

45. Which U.S. Supreme Court justice likened the juvenile court's proceedings against Gault (In re Gault case) to a "kangaroo court"?

a. Justice Brennan

b. Justice Roberts

c. Justice Fortas

d. Justice Marshall

46. In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that when commitment to a secure facility is a possibility, the “beyond a reasonable doubt” standard of proof must extend to juvenile adjudication hearings even though juvenile proceedings are civil in nature?

a. In re Gault

b. Kent v. United States

c. In re Winship

d. Breed v. Jones

47. What was the sole issue before the U.S. Supreme Court in the case of McKeiver v. Pennsylvania (1971)?

a. whether juveniles have the right to a jury trial during adjudication hearings

b. whether juveniles have the right to bail

c. whether the preventative detention of a juvenile charged with a delinquent act is constitutional

d. whether juveniles could be sentenced to death

48. Practically, the ruling in which U.S. Supreme Court case ruling meant that a waiver to adult court cannot occur after double jeopardy attaches, and jeopardy attaches at the adjudicatory hearing when evidence is first presented?

a. In re Gault

b. Kent v. United States

c. In re Winship

d. Breed v. Jones

49. In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that preventative detention of juveniles was constitutionally permissible because it serves a legitimate state interest in protecting both society and the juvenile from the risk of further crimes while awaiting a hearing?

a. Eddings v. Oklahoma

b. Graham v. Florida

c. Miller v. Alabama

d. Schall v. Martin

50. In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court's majority opinion hold that mandatory life without parole for juveniles violates the Eighth Amendment's prohibition on cruel and unusual punishment?

a. Schall v. Martin

b. Eddings v. Oklahoma

c. Graham v. Florida

d. Miller v. Alabama

51. In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that in death penalty cases, the courts must consider any and all mitigating factors in deciding whether to impose the death sentence on juveniles?

a. Miller v. Alabama

b. Schall v. Martin

c. Eddings v. Oklahoma

d. Graham v. Florida

52. In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that if states choose to execute juveniles who were 16 or 17 at the time of the commission of their crimes, it was constitutionally permissible?

a. Stanford v. Kentucky

b. Miller v. Alabama

c. Eddings v. Oklahoma

d. Graham v. Florida

53. The term amicus curiae literally means:

a. send the record up

b. state as parent

c. friend of the court

d. court as guardian

54. Which law requires adjudicated delinquent sex offenders as well as convicted adult sex offenders to register with law enforcement agencies as sex offenders for the rest of their lives?

a. Jessica's Law

b. Sarah's Law

c. Monica's Law

d. Megan's Law

55. What may be defined as "every action that is primarily oriented toward justice by repairing the harm that has been caused by the act"?

a. healing justice

b. restorative justice

c. social justice

d. procedural justice

56. Which approach used in restorative justice also gained impetus when various victim's rights movements emerged in the 1970s?

a. healing

b. community

c. cognitive

d. social

57. Restorative justice gives equal weight to the needs of:

a. offenders

b. victims

c. the community

d. all of the above

58. Which restorative justice approach focuses on three equally important components for the sanctioning of juvenile offenders?

a. civil

b. community

c. balanced

d. accountability

59. Under the balanced approach component of community protection, which of the following are examples of this ideal?

a. midnight basketball programs

b. dispositional treatments

c. restitution

d. all of the above

60. What programs are an integral part of the restorative justice balanced approach and bring offenders and victims together (voluntarily) in face-to-face meetings that are facilitated by a trained mediation counselor to iron out how the offender can right the harm done to the victim?

a. social reparation

b. victim-offender reconciliation

c. community sanctioning

d. reparative boards

TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS

1. Juveniles who commit acts that are criminal when committed by adults are considered a separate class of offenders called status offenders.

a. True

b. False

2. Delinquent acts are acts that apply only to individuals of a particular status-that of a juvenile..

a. True

b. False

3. Puberty marks the onset of the transition from childhood to adulthood.

a. True

b. False

4. Inhibitory transmitters such as serotonin decrease during puberty.

a. True

b. False

5. Terrie Moffitt (1993) calls those adolescent offenders who desist status-persistent offenders.

a. True

b. False

6. According to Terrie Moffitt (1993), adolescent-limited offenders begin offending prior to puberty and continue well into adulthood.

a. True

b. False

7. Adolescent-limited offenders tend to commit relatively minor offenses, such as petty theft.

a. True

b. False

8. According to Terrie Moffitt (1993), life-course-persistent offending is a product of an interaction between age and historical period.

a. True

b. False

9. The minimum legal age of criminal responsibility in British common law is now 10 years.

a. True

b. False

10. The ancient Romans used the term patria potestas to describe the authority of the father over his family.

a. True

b. False

11. During the Middle Ages, fourteen was the cutoff age between childhood and adulthood for the purpose of assigning criminal responsibility because individuals were considered rational and responsible enough at this age to marry.

a. True

b. False

12. English Chancery Courts were formed in the thirteenth century.

a. True

b. False

13. The Latin term parens patriae literally means "father of his country".

a. True

b. False

14. The idea of binding is the precursor of modern adoption.

a. True

b. False

15. The first English workhouse was considered so successful that in 1576 the English Parliament passed a law establishing Servicewells, or workhouses, in every English county.

a. True

b. False

16. Following the Bridewell model, the House of Progression was established in New York to house orphans, beggars, vagrants, and juvenile offenders.

a. True

b. False

17. The term ex parte designates a hearing in the presence of only one of the parties to a case.

a. True

b. False

18. The first juvenile court was established in 1899.

a. True

b. False

19. An adult is arrested; a juvenile is taken into custody.

a. True

b. False

20. A transfer to adult court is called a waiver because the juvenile court detains its jurisdiction over the child in question to the adult system.

a. True

b. False

21. Presumptive waiver occurs when a juvenile court judge decides, according to their own discretion after a "full inquiry," that the juvenile should be transferred.

a. True

b. False

22. Statutory exclusion waiver is also known as legislative waiver.

a. True

b. False

23. Juveniles waived for property and drug offenses often receive more lenient sentences than they would have in juvenile courts.

a. True

b. False

24. The U.S. Supreme Court maintained a restrictive policy with regard to juvenile issues until 1948.

a. True

b. False

25. In Kent v. United States, the U.S. Supreme Court determined that juveniles must be afforded certain constitutional rights, and, in doing so, began formalizing the juvenile system into something akin to the adult criminal courts.

a. True

b. False

26. In Haley v. Ohio, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that states are not constitutionally required to provide juveniles with the right to a jury trial for adjudication hearings.

a. True

b. False

27. In Miller v. Alabama, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that preventative detention of juveniles was constitutionally permissible because it serves a legitimate state interest in protecting both society and the juvenile from the risk of further crimes while awaiting a hearing.

a. True

b. False

28. Megan’s Law requires law enforcement agencies in all 50 states to register sex offenders in their areas.

a. True

b. False

29. Restorative justice usually means face-to-face confrontation between victim and perpetrator, where a mutually agreeable restorative solution is proposed and agreed upon.

a. True

b. False

30. As part of the victim-offender reconciliation process, a contract is worked out between victim, offender, and mediator laying out what the offender has to do in order to repair the damage they caused.

a. True

b. False

ESSAY QUESTIONS

1. Compare and contrast delinquent offense and status offenses. Provide an example of each type.

2. Discuss why some degree of antisocial behavior is normative for juveniles.

3. Compare and contrast Moffitt's (1993) two types of offenders.

4. Discuss the evolution of culpability as it relates to age. What age do you feel should be the cutoff for culpability of a minor? Justify your answer.

5. Compare and contrast the various types of waiver. Which type do you think is the most effective? Justify your answer.