Chapter 7 The Blueprint Of Life, From Dna To Full Test Bank

Nester’s Microbiology, 9e (Anderson)

Chapter 7 The Blueprint of Life, from DNA to Protein

1) The report that genes direct the synthesis of proteins was first made by

A) Lederberg.

B) Watson and Crick.

C) Beadle and Tatum.

D) Mendel.

E) Curie.

2) The two strands of DNA are bonded to one another by

A) covalent bonds.

B) oxygen bonds.

C) hydrogen bonds.

D) carbon bonds.

E) disulfide bridges.

3) Which pairing is incorrect?

A) A:T

B) G:C

C) A:U

D) A:G

E) C:G

4) What structure is indicated by: 10A, 15T, 3G, 7C?

A) Double-stranded DNA

B) Double-stranded RNA

C) Single-stranded DNA

D) Single-stranded RNA

E) A DNA virus

5) Without changing the sequence or the orientation of the sequence(s), which is/are complementary to the sequence 5' AGGCUAAC 3'?

A) 5' TCCGATTG 3'

B) 3' TCCGATTG 5'

C) 5' CTTAGCCT 3'

D) 3' TAAGCTTA 5'

E) 3' TCCGATTC 5' AND 5' CTTAGCCT 3'

6) GCCCAAAG is a molecule of

A) RNA.

B) DNA.

C) protein.

D) DNA OR lipid

E) Cannot tell as written.

7) Which may be or is an RNA molecule?

A) AGCCTAC and GGGCCCA

B) GGGCCCA and AAATTTA

C) GGGCCCA and GCCCUUA

D) GCCCUUA and AAATTTA

E) AGCCTAC and GGUCCCU

8) RNA is characterized by which one of the following features?

A) Deoxyribose

B) Thymine

C) Ribose

D) Double-stranded

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

9) DNA is characterized by which of the following feature(s)?

A) Ribose AND single-stranded

B) Single-stranded AND uracil

C) Deoxyribose AND single-stranded

D) Deoxyribose AND thymine

E) Thymine AND uracil

10) Which is NOT true of RNA?

A) It is usually single-stranded.

B) It contains both uracil and thymine.

C) It functions in the cytoplasm.

D) It contains ribose.

E) It is a component of ribosomes.

11) The 3' end of DNA

A) has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of deoxyribose.

B) attaches to the 3' phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.

C) always has thymine and uracil attached to it.

D) usually has guanine and guanine attached to it.

E) has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of ribose.

12) Which of the following is/are true of DNA replication?

A) It starts at the origin of duplication.

B) Nucleotides are added to the 3' end.

C) It requires a DNA primer to get started.

D) It is carried out by transcriptases.

E) All of the choices are true.

13) DNA replication is

A) conservative.

B) interspersive.

C) semiconservative.

D) redundant.

E) configurative.

14) Which is true about DNA replication?

A) It is semiconservative.

B) It starts at an origin of replication.

C) It is bidirectional.

D) It requires RNA primers.

E) All of the choices are correct.

15) The term antiparallel

A) refers to the structure of single-stranded RNA.

B) is synonymous with semiconservative.

C) refers to the opposite orientation of the two strands in DNA.

D) refers to a type of prokaryotic replication.

E) refers to the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.

16) The lagging strand

A) is another name for any single-stranded DNA found in slowly dividing cells.

B) is formed during RNA replication because of the nature of the enzymes involved in it.

C) is formed during DNA replication because of the antiparallel nature of DNA.

D) is always the bottom strand of DNA or RNA during the replication process.

E) is always the upper strand of DNA or RNA during the replication process.

17) Which is FALSE about the RNA transcript?

A) It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template.

B) It has the same 5'–3' orientation as the DNA positive strand.

C) It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.

D) The template starts at the promoter region.

E) All the answers are false.

18) Which is true about prokaryotic (bacterial) RNA polymerase?

A) It is used during transcription.

B) It requires a primer.

C) It has a detachable subunit, alpha factor, which recognizes the promoter.

D) It reads the template in the 5'-3' direction.

E) All of the choices are true.

19) The specific sequence of nucleotides in the DNA to which the RNA polymerase binds is the

A) regulatory region.

B) promoter region.

C) sigma region.

D) core region.

E) starter region.

20) The transcription terminator

A) results in a hairpin loop structure in RNA, AND stops DNA polymerase.

B) results in a hairpin loop structure in RNA, AND results in the polymerase falling off the DNA template.

C) stops DNA polymerase, AND results in the polymerase falling off the DNA template.

D) stops DNA polymerase, AND adds a terminator nucleotide to the RNA.

E) adds a terminator nucleotide to the RNA, AND results in a hairpin loop structure in RNA.

21) How many nucleotides are in a codon?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

22) There are ________ codons to code for the 20 possible amino acids.

A) 20

B) 30

C) 61

D) 64

E) 3

23) The genetic code has more than one codon for some amino acids. This is an example of

A) evolution.

B) stringency.

C) redundancy.

D) translation.

E) replication.

24) Which molecule carries an anticodon?

A) DNA

B) mRNA

C) rRNA

D) tRNA

E) ribosome

25) AUG

A) is only used as the start codon.

B) codes for methionine.

C) determines the reading frame.

D) is one of the stop codons.

E) codes for methionine AND determines the reading frame.

26) The amino acid that is placed first during translation in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts is

A) methionine.

B) N-formyl-methionine.

C) glycine.

D) N-formyl-glycine.

E) the promoter.

27) The placement of the amino acid during translation is determined by the

A) DNase, which transcribes both molecules.

B) complementarity of the codon-anticodon.

C) sequence of nucleotides at the 5' end of the tRNA.

D) secondary structure of the newly forming protein.

E) antiparallel nature of mRNA.

28) What is the number of tRNA molecules that may be associated with translation?

A) 20

B) Fewer than 20

C) 64

D) Fewer than 64

E) 2

29) The P-site

A) is found on the polymerase enzyme.

B) is an allosteric site on an enzyme.

C) is a promoter site on the ribosome.

D) is the peptidyl site on the ribosome.

E) is an allosteric site AND is a promoter site.

30) The E-site

A) is found on the RNA polymerase enzyme.

B) is responsible for the release of the tRNA.

C) is found on the 35S polysome.

D) is the aminoacyl site on the ribosome.

E) is another name for anticodon.

31) A stop codon

A) codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine.

B) forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.

C) codes for no amino acid.

D) enhances the binding of the e-polymerase.

E) codes for the stop amino acid AUG.

32) Post-translational modification may include

A) formation of exons and introns.

B) folding of the protein, often with the aid of chaperones.

C) removal of the signal sequence.

D) addition of glycine tags.

E) folding of the protein, often with the aid of chaperones, AND removal of the signal sequence.

33) The ribosomes

A) move along the tRNA in a 3'–5' direction AND provide a platform that brings the amino acids into a favorable position for joining.

B) move along the mRNA in a 3'–5' direction AND provide a platform that brings the amino acids into a favorable position for joining.

C) move along the mRNA in a 5'–3' direction AND provide a platform that brings the amino acids into a favorable position for joining.

D) move along the DNA in a 5'–3' direction AND provide a platform that brings the amino acids into a favorable position for joining.

E) move along the DNA in a 3'–5' direction AND provide a platform that brings the amino acids into a favorable position for joining.

34) All of the following are true about DNA sequence analysis EXCEPT

A) the (−) strand of DNA is used.

B) the start codon is ATG.

C) ORFs are searched for.

D) codon usage is a helpful indicator for protein coding areas.

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

35) Some segments of the precursor mRNA in eukaryotes are non-coding and are called

A) exons.

B) introns.

C) integrans.

D) uselessans.

E) genes.

36) Bacteria use ________ attached to the polymerase to direct RNA polymerase to promoters; eukaryotic cells use ________ that attach directly to the DNA first instead.

A) sigma factors; transcription factors

B) transcription factors; sigma factors

C) ribosomes; sigma factors

D) tRNA; rRNA

E) sigma factors; tRNA

37) Ribozymes

A) are complexes of ribosomes and RNA.

B) are self-catalytic RNA.

C) suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins.

D) are enzymes that degrade RNA and therefore have potential for clinical applications.

E) are self-catalytic RNA AND suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins.

38) The scientists responsible for the idea that RNA can act as a catalyst were

A) Watson and Crick.

B) Beadle and Tatum.

C) Altman and Cech.

D) Lederberg and Stanley.

E) Curie and Curie.

39) Signal transduction

A) is the relay of information about conditions outside a cell to inside the cell.

B) often relies on a four component system.

C) never involves phosphorylation of various molecules.

D) is used by certain pathogens to sense high magnesium conditions.

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

40) Quorum sensing

A) is used by bacteria to sense the density of cells within their population AND is used by eukaryotes to sense the presence of bacteria in their environment.

B) involves the production and monitoring of signaling molecules AND is used by eukaryotes to sense the presence of bacteria within their population.

C) is used by bacteria to limit the density of cells in a population AND is used by eukaryotes to sense the presence of bacteria within their environment.

D) involves the production and monitoring of signaling molecules AND is used by bacteria to sense the density of cells within their population.

E) is used by bacteria to limit the density of cells in a population AND is used by eukaryotes to sense the presence of pathogens within their cells.

41) Gene regulation may entail

A) turning on genes only when needed.

B) turning off genes when not needed.

C) turning on or off entire groups of genes.

D) All of the answer choices are correct.

E) None of the answer choices is correct.

42) The regulatory protein

A) binds to the promoter region of DNA.

B) may inhibit or enhance transcription.

C) may control translation of the operon.

D) affects the activity of the DNA polymerase.

E) binds to the operator region of RNA.

43) Operon(s) in bacteria

A) refers to a group of genes that are controlled in a coordinated manner AND involve monocistronic mRNA.

B) refers to a group of genes that are controlled in a coordinated manner AND involve both monocistronic and polycistronic DNA.

C) refers to a group of genes that are controlled in a coordinated manner AND involve monocistronic DNA.

D) refers to a group of genes that are controlled in a coordinated manner AND involve polycistronic DNA.

E) refers to a group of genes that are controlled in a coordinated manner AND involve polycistronic mRNA.

44) The set of genes in bacteria that are linked together and transcribed as a single unit is referred to as a(n)

A) operon.

B) regulon.

C) operator.

D) repressor.

E) promoter.

45) The DNA site to which the repressor protein binds is the

A) operon.

B) regulon.

C) operator.

D) repressor.

E) starter.

46) The molecules that bind to a repressor and cause it to no longer bind to the operator are called

A) activators.

B) repressors.

C) introns.

D) inducers.

E) stimulons.

47) Repressors

A) bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation) AND are involved in positive control.

B) bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation) AND are involved in negative control.

C) always bind to the promoter AND are involved in positive control.

D) always bind to the promoter AND are involved in negative control.

E) always bind to the ribosome AND are involved in negative control.

48) Activators

A) are involved in negative control AND bind to the terminator.

B) are involved in positive control AND bind to the terminator.

C) are allosteric proteins AND are involved in positive control .

D) are allosteric proteins AND are involved in negative control.

E) are involved in negative control AND bind to the start codon.

49) Negative control means a regulator molecule is

A) bound, and transcription starts.

B) removed, and transcription is inhibited.

C) bound, and transcription is inhibited.

D) removed, and transcription starts.

E) bound, and transcription is inhibited OR removed, and transcription starts.

50) Glucose

A) is preferentially used over lactose in E. coli as a result of catabolite repression AND levels are correlated with cAMP levels.

B) is preferentially used over sucrose in E. coli as a result of catabolite repression AND levels are directly sensed via catabolite repression.

C) is preferentially used over lactose in E. coli as a result of catabolite repression AND glucose levels are the inverse of cAMP levels.

D) is preferentially used over lactose in E. coli as a result of catabolite repression AND levels directly affect the production of lactose dehydrogenase.

E) is preferentially used over sucrose in E. coli as a result of catabolite repression AND levels are correlated with cAMP levels.

51) The lac operon

A) is an example of positive control.

B) produces lactose.

C) is an example of a regulon.

D) is an example of negative control.

E) is an example of constitutive control.

52) CAP

A) is involved in positive control AND stands for cyclic amp protein.

B) is involved in positive control AND works in conjunction with cAMP.

C) stands for cyclic amp protein AND is a regulon.

D) stands for cyclic amp protein AND works in conjunction with cAMP.

E) is involved in negative control AND works in conjunction with cAMP.

53) RNAi

A) is the form of mRNA that initiates translation in most pathogenic bacteria.

B) uses short pieces of double-stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts.

C) is a mechanism of genetic regulation found in all prokaryotes.

D) is any chemical that inhibits transcription.

E) uses short pieces of single-stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts 

54) Adenine binds to thymine via three hydrogen bonds.

55) One end of a strand of DNA is different from the other end.

56) DNA replication is usually unidirectional.

57) The minus strand of DNA serves as the template for RNA production.

58) Antisense RNA is the complement of the plus strand and may be useful in inhibiting translation.

59) The genetic code is nearly universal.

60) A codon consists of two nucleotides.

61) The anticodon determines which amino acid is linked to its tRNA.

62) Ribozymes are non-protein molecules with catalytic activity.

63) A drug that inhibits the activity of bacterial DNA gyrase ________ be a good antibiotic because ________.

A) would; it would inhibit all DNA synthesis

B) would NOT; it would inhibit all DNA synthesis, even our own cell's DNA synthesis

C) would; it would selectively inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis due to differences between bacterial/human gyrase

D) would NOT; the DNA replication machinery could still function, even with impaired DNA gyrase enzyme

E) would; it would selectively impair bacterial DNA structure thus killing the cells

64) Why is it a good idea for a bacterial cell to be able to use glucose FIRST as an energy source (until it is depleted), THEN switch to lactose?

A) Lactose can only be used by a small number of bacteria as an energy source AND for conservation of energy: why use the energy to make the enzymes for breaking down lactose when glucose doesn't need any extra enzymes for breakdown?

B) For conservation of energy: why use the energy to make the enzymes for breaking down lactose when glucose doesn't need any extra enzymes for breakdown AND because breakdown of lactose produces inhibitory compounds.

C) Glucose is an easier compound to break down and obtain energy from than lactose AND for conservation of energy: why use the energy to make the enzymes for breaking down lactose when glucose doesn't need any extra enzymes for breakdown?

D) Glucose provides 10x as much energy when broken down as lactose AND for conservation of energy: why use the energy to make the enzymes for breaking down lactose when glucose doesn't need any extra enzymes for breakdown?

E) For conservation of energy: why use the energy to make the enzymes for breaking down lactose when glucose doesn't need any extra enzymes for breakdown AND because lactose always triggers endospore formation, which may be unnecessary.

65) Does the presence of introns/exons in eukaryotic cells provide more potential diversity in gene products (proteins) than is possible in prokaryotic cells?

A) It doesn't. There is the same potential for gene products (proteins) in a bacterium with 1,000 genes as there is in a eukaryotic cell with 1,000 genes.

B) It does. Each exon and each intron could be used individually and discretely to make a gene product (protein). Since bacteria lack these, they will have less ability to create different proteins.

C) It does. Exons/introns can be spliced together in different ways post-transcription to yield different mRNAs (and therefore, different proteins). Bacteria lack this system.

D) It does. Exons/introns can be spliced together in different ways at the DNA level to eventually yield different mRNAs (and therefore, different proteins). Bacteria lack this system.

E) It doesn't. Bacteria and eukaryotes have the same number of introns and exons, and can thus synthesize the same types and numbers of proteins.

66) A graduate student is trying to isolate bacterial mRNA for an enzyme that will degrade trinitrotoluene (TNT). She's frustrated to find that the enzyme isn't produced when the bacterium in question is grown on nutrient agar. What might she do to solve the problem and obtain the mRNA?

A) Add nitrogen and toluene to the agar which will drive up synthesis of TNT, leading to production of the mRNA the student is looking for.

B) Add TNT to the agar—this will drive synthesis of the enzyme to degrade it, leading to production of the mRNA the student is looking for.

C) Remove glucose from the agar—this will cause the bacteria to shift to other compounds for their energy purposes.

D) Remove nitrogen and toluene from the agar which will lead to driving up synthesis of TNT, leading to production of the mRNA the student is looking for.

E) Remove TNT from the nutrient agar; it acts as an inhibitor of all microbial growth, and prevents the bacteria from synthesizing any enzymes at all.

67) Cells are often ground up with abrasive to get to their internal enzymes/molecules, followed by removal of the abrasives. Here are two situations and two outcomes. What is the correct interpretation of the results?

In situation #1, radioactive amino acids are mixed with ground-up cell material. Radioactive proteins are produced.

In situation #2, radioactive amino acids AND the enzyme RNAse (an enzyme that degrades RNA) are mixed with ground-up cell material. No radioactive proteins are produced.

A) The mRNA from the cell can be used to make proteins with the radioactive amino acids in the first situation. In the second situation, the mRNA is destroyed by the RNAse before it can be translated into protein containing the radioactive amino acids.

B) The DNA from the cell can be translated into protein using the radioactive amino acids in the first situation. The RNAse in the second situation degrades the ribosomal RNA (rRNA), preventing ribosomes from forming and making proteins with the radioactive amino acids.

C) The radioactivity in the amino acids corrupts the tRNA molecules, leading to no protein production in the second scenario.

D) The radioactivity in the medium causes the DNA of the bacteria to mutate. This causes a malfunction of all the enzymes of that cell.

E) The results cannot be interpreted—there isn't enough information given in the question.

68) Cells are often ground up with abrasive to get to their internal enzymes/molecules, followed by removal of the abrasives. Here are three situations and three outcomes. What is the correct interpretation of the results? In situation #1, radioactive amino acids are added to cell material, and radioactive proteins are produced. In situation #2, radioactive amino acids, cell material, and the enzyme DNAse (degrades DNA) are added together. Radioactive proteins are still produced. In situation #3, the ground-up cell material is allowed to sit for 24 hours before radioactive amino acids and DNAse are added to it. No radioactive protein is produced. What is the most likely interpretation?

A) RNA polymerase has no activity after 24 hours, so no mRNA is transcribed and translated into radioactive proteins in the last scenario.

B) The radioactivity in the amino acids is altering/degrading the tRNA molecules, leading to no protein production in the last scenario.

C) Natural RNAses present in the ground-up material will degrade any existing mRNAs in that 24-hour interval. Added DNAses break down DNA so that new RNAs are not synthesized. This will lead to a loss of capability to translate protein in the last scenario.

D) The radioactivity in the amino acids completely disappears within 24 hours. Transcription and translation occur as usual, but there is no radioactivity left in the system, so proteins are untagged.

E) No conclusions can be made from the information given. More results are needed to interpret these experiments.

69) Transcription begins at the ________ and ends at the ________, while translation begins at the ________ and ends at the ________.

A) start codon; stop codon; promoter; terminator

B) promoter; stop codon; terminator; stop codon

C) promoter; start codon; terminator; stop codon

D) promoter; terminator; start codon; stop codon

E) initiator; ender; starter; stopper

70) Which tasks must a bacterial cell accomplish in order to multiply?

A) Replication, translation, protein synthesis

B) DNA duplication, RNA synthesis, protein synthesis

C) Protein synthesis, mitosis, capsule formation

D) Mitosis, gene expression, apoptosis

E) DNA replication, mitosis, cytokinesis

71) Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Transcription is the conversion of DNA into RNA.

B) Replication is the process of duplicating a DNA molecule.

C) Binary fission is the process of bacterial cell division.

D) Transcription is the process of copying mRNA from DNA.

E) Translation is the process of synthesizing protein using information in mRNA.

72) DNA polymerases

A) add nucleotides to the 3' end of RNA during transcription.

B) generate short stretches of RNA called primers to initiate replication.

C) unwind the DNA template at the replication fork.

D) move in a 3' to 5' direction on the template DNA.

E) only add nucleotides to the leading strand during replication.

73) Which pair is INCORRECT?

A) Okazaki fragments—generated on the lagging strand during DNA replication.

B) Splicing—removal of introns from prokaryote mRNA following transcription.

C) Signal transduction—transmission of information from outside a cell to inside the cell.

D) Constitutive enzymes—enzymes that are constantly produced by a cell.

E) Promoter—nucleotide sequence to which RNA polymerase binds to start transcription.

74) Which of the following is an example of phase variation?

A) N. gonorrhoeae expressing different types of pilin protein.

B) Influenza virus expressing variations of glycoprotein HA and NA spikes.

C) S. pyogenes producing a capsule of hyaluronic acid, which is also a host component.

D) E. coli producing pili for attachment to epithelial cells.

E) These are all examples of phase variation.

75) How can some bacteria sense the density of cells in an environment?

A) Detecting the concentration of a signaling molecule.

B) Quantifying the accumulation of waste products.

C) Measuring the depletion of oxygen in the environment.

D) Sensing the depletion of water in the environment.

E) Detecting the accumulation of endospores.

76) The simultaneous regulation of many bacterial genes is

A) quorum sensing.

B) a regulon.

C) local control.

D) induction.

E) global control.

77) A regulatory protein binds to the operator in a strand of DNA, blocking transcription. The protein is

A) a repressor.

B) an inducer.

C) an operon.

D) a terminator.

E) an activator.

78) If a DNA triplet is AGT, the mRNA codon would be ________ and the tRNA anticodon would be ________.

A) TCA; AGU

B) UCA; AGU

C) TGA; serine

D) UCA; stop

E) AGU; UGA

79) For synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, 

A) a compound must bind to the repressor.

B) a compound must bind to the operator.

C) a product must bind to the terminator.

D) a corepressor must bind to the start codon.

E) lactose must be present without fructose.

80) When E. coli is grown in medium containing both glucose and lactose, 

A) the cells growth fastest after lactose is used up.

B) the cells use lactose first, then glucose.

C) the cells grow fastest initially when glucose is available.

D) the cells use the glucose and then stop growing.

E) the cells grow at the same rate until all sugars are depleted.

81) When E. coli is placed in a medium containing both glucose and lactose, why does cell growth stop temporarily when the glucose is used up?

A) Once glucose is depleted, the cell must use the lactose; before it can do this, it must express the lac operon and synthesize the enzymes needed to use lactose, which takes time.

B) Once lactose is depleted, the cell must use the glucose; before it can do this, it must express the lac operon and synthesize the enzymes needed to use lactose, which takes time.

C) Once glucose is depleted, the cell must use the lactose; before it can do this, it must express the lac operon—it can only do this if the culture medium is placed in the dark at 22oC.

D) Glucose is the preferred medium of the cells—when it is available, they grow extremely fast, and this depletes all the energy in the cell which must be replaced before it can use lactose.

E) The presence of glucose denatures the lactose in the medium; once the glucose is depleted, the lactose has to regain its original shape before the cells can use it.

82) Why is the position of the first AUG after the ribosome binding site critical?

A) Every polypeptide must start with methionine.

B) It initiates transcription.

C) Every polypeptide must start with arginine.

D) It establishes the reading frame.

E) Every polypeptide must end with methionine.

Your patient has a fever of 39oC, sore throat, cough, and chest pain. You ask her whether she has had pneumococcal vaccine this year, which protects against the the 23 most common strains of the causative bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. She says she has not. Your patient has a number of questions that you answer to help her understand the genetics of the organism causing her illness.

83) Your patient took biology many years ago. You remind her of the structure of DNA and RNA. Which statement is NOT correct?

A) DNA is usually a double-stranded, helical structure composed of nucleotides, each of which contains a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nucleobase (A, T, C or G).

B) The two strands of DNA are complementary and are held together by hydrogen bonds between the nucleobases.

C) RNA is a single-stranded molecule composed of nucleotides that contain the nucleobases adenine, thymine, uracil, or cytosine.

D) RNA nucleotides contain the 5-C sugar ribose while DNA nucleotides contain the 5-C sugar deoxyribose.

E) A single linear strand of DNA will always have a 5′PO4 at one end and a 3′OH at the other, referred to as the 5′ end (5 prime end) and the 3′ end (3 prime end) respectively.

84) You give your patient some general information on gene expression in cells. You explain that when cells divide, two processes are involved: replication and gene expression. Gene expression includes two related events: (i) copying the information encoded in DNA into RNA, a process called ________, followed by (ii) the interpretation of the information carried by the RNA to synthesize the encoded protein in a process called ________.

A) transcription; translation

B) translation, transcription

C) replication; transcription

D) replication; translation

E) binary fission; transcription

85) You explain that transcription starts at a particular region on the DNA template called the ________, and ends at a sequence called the ________.

A) promoter; stop codon

B) promoter; terminator

C) start codon; terminator

D) start codon; stop codon

E) initiator; terminator

86) Your patient somewhat remembers the details of replication but can't really recall what role various enzymes play in the process. You give her the information. Which of the following would you NOT tell her?

A) DNA gyrase temporarily breaks the strands of DNA, relieving the tension caused by unwinding the two strands of the DNA helix.

B) DNA polymerases synthesize the new stand of DNA using the parent strand as a template.

C) The antiparallel strands of DNA are joined together by DNA ligase.

D) Helicase unwind the DNA helix at the replication fork.

E) Primase synthesizes small fragments of RNA to serve as primers for DNA synthesis.

87) You remind your patient that information for proteins is encoded in DNA ________. These are copied into ________ in the mRNA.

A) triplets; codons

B) codons; triplets

C) nucleotides; codons

D) codons; anticodons

E) anticodons; triplets

88) You tell your patient that the genetic code is used when translating mRNA to synthesize protein. You explain that the code is degenerate and that this is important because 

A) one codon codes for more than one amino acid.

B) one amino acid codes for more than one codon.

C) base-pairing errors made during transcription may not result in a change in the encoded protein.

D) one amino acid codes for more than one codon AND base-pairing errors made during transcription will result in a change in the encoded protein.

E) one codon codes for more than one amino acid AND base-pairing errors made during transcription may not result in a change in the encoded protein.

89) Your patient tells you she didn't get the flu vaccine either because she heard that she would have to get it every year. She doesn't understand why this is that case. You explain that flu viruses have two types of glycoprotein spikes that have a role in flu virus pathogenesis. Every year, minor changes occur in the genes that code for these spikes, resulting in slight changes in their amino acid sequence. These changes to the spikes on the surface of the virus is an example of ________.

A) antigenic variation

B) phase variation

C) quorum sensing

D) two-component regulation

E) gene splicing

Your niece has been diagnosed with Diamond-Blackfan anemia, an extremely rare disorder of the bone marrow that causes people have a low red blood cell (RBC) count. The disease is classified as a ribosomal protein disease, meaning that one or more of the genes involved in ribosome production is/are mutated, and the ribosomes are not synthesized properly. Although it is not currently understood why mutations in ribosome biosynthesis affect blood cell formation particularly, you are able to help your sister understand the role of ribosomes in the cell and the consequence of ribosome failure, so that she has a better grasp of her child's condition. 

90) You explain to your sister that ribosomes are the site of ________ in cells.

A) protein synthesis

B) lipid synthesis

C) peptidoglycan synthesis

D) DNA replication

E) the nucleolus

91) Ribosomes are involved in generating proteins in a cell. The other components directly needed for this process to occur are

A) mRNA, tRNA, and amino acids

B) mRNA, tRNA, and nucleic acids

C) DNA, DNA polymerase, and amino acids

D) a nucleus, tRNA, and amino acids

E) a nucleolus, tRNA, and nucleic acids

92) Your sister asks you what the difference is between protein synthesis and translation. You explain to your sister that the process of generating proteins in a cell is called translation because the information for the protein is in the form of ________ but proteins are composed of ________.

A) codons; anticodons

B) anticodons; codons

C) amino acids; nucleic acids

D) nucleic acids; amino acids

E) 70S; 80S

93) One of the genes affected in Diamond-Blackfan Anemia is called RPS19. This gene plays a role in maturation of the 40S subunit. Your sister tells you she heard that protein synthesis can occur normally if the large ribosomal subunit is present, even if the small subunit is not because the large subunit is the part that decodes the information. You tell her that this is 

94) Which of the following statements would NOT be good information for your sister?

A) Ribosomes have two subunits—a large subunit and a small subunit.

B) Ribosomes catalyze peptide bond formation between amino acids.

C) Bacterial ribosomes and eukaryote ribosomes are identical.

D) Protein synthesis is an anabolic reaction and requires ATP.

E) Protein synthesis takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell.