Chapter 25 Exam Prep Cpt Surgery Section Safian

Let’s Code It!, 1e (Safian)

Chapter 25 CPT Surgery Section

1) Mr. Jenkins presented with a stage IV decubitus ulcer of the coccyx. Debridement was done down to the bone measuring 40 sq. cm. What is/are the appropriate CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 11044

B) 11044, 11047

C) 11043

D) 11043, 11046

2) A ________ is a treatment that is performed to prevent a condition from developing.

A) prophylactic treatment

B) diagnostic procedure

C) therapeutic procedure

D) separate procedure

3) A ________ is a procedure that is provided, most often, to correct or fix a problem.

A) prophylactic treatment

B) diagnostic procedure

C) therapeutic procedure

D) separate procedure

4) A procedure that is carried out independently or considered to be unrelated to another procedure is known as a:

A) prophylactic treatment.

B) diagnostic procedure.

C) therapeutic procedure.

D) separate procedure.

5) A procedure or test that a physician uses to gather more details about the condition or concern at issue is known as a:

A) prophylactic treatment.

B) diagnostic procedure.

C) therapeutic procedure.

D) separate procedure.

6) What is the generally accepted global period considered to be for major procedures?

A) 3 days

B) 90 days

C) 10 days

D) 120 days

7) What is the generally accepted period considered to be for minor procedures?

A) 3 days

B) 90 days

C) 10 days

D) 120 days

8) A biopsy is what type of procedure?

A) Prophylactic treatment

B) Diagnostic procedure

C) Therapeutic procedure

D) Separate procedure

9) Which surgical approach involves insertion of a scope through an opening to visualize and aid in the performance of a procedure?

A) Percutaneous approach

B) Percutaneous endoscopic approach

C) Via natural or artificial opening approach

D) Via natural or artificial opening endoscopic approach

10) Which surgical approach uses instruments inserted into the body by way of a puncture or small incision?

A) Percutaneous approach

B) Percutaneous endoscopic approach

C) Via natural or artificial opening approach

D) Via natural or artificial opening endoscopic approach

11) Which surgical approach involves inserting instruments into the body through a natural opening?

A) Percutaneous approach

B) Percutaneous endoscopic approach

C) Via natural or artificial opening approach

D) Via natural or artificial opening endoscopic approach

12) Which surgical approach uses instruments inserted into the body by way of a puncture to visualize the intended anatomical site?

A) Percutaneous approach

B) Percutaneous endoscopic approach

C) Via natural or artificial opening

D) Via natural or artificial opening endoscopic approach

13) Dr. Nelson repaired a 4.0-cm nose laceration and a 3.0-cm neck laceration that both required layered closures down to the fascia. What are the appropriate CPT codes?

A) 12013, 12002

B) 12052, 12042–59

C) 12041, 12052

D) 13132, 13152

14) An incision and drainage was done on Mrs. Charles for a complex postoperative wound infection. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 10061

B) 10081

C) 10121

D) 10180

15) Dr. Susan performed a simple repair of a 13-cm knee laceration. What is/are the CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 12045

B) 12005

C) 12016

D) 13121, 13122, 13122

16) Dr. Jim performed a single-layered closure on a 2.1-cm heavily contaminated hand laceration that required extensive cleaning. What is the appropriate CPT code to assign?

A) 12001

B) 12031

C) 12041

D) 12042

17) The process of cleaning out a wound to encourage the healing process is known as:

A) incision and drainage.

B) biopsy.

C) excision.

D) debridement.

18) Mr. King had an incision and drainage of a complicated pilonidal cyst. What code should be reported for this procedure?

A) 10080

B) 10081

C) 10060

D) 10061

19) The physician repairs a wound of the back measuring 8.5 cm requiring complex, layered suturing of torn, crushed, or deeply lacerated tissue and retention sutures. What is/are the appropriate code(s) for this procedure?

A) 13100

B) 13101

C) 13101, 13102

D) 13101, 13102, 13102

20) Mr. Jackson, a diabetic patient, came into the clinic to have all of his toenails trimmed. What is/are the appropriate CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 11720

B) 11721

C) 11720, 11721

D) 11719

21) A repair requiring retention sutures is considered what type of repair?

A) Simple repair

B) Intermediate repair

C) Complex repair

D) None of these

22) Dr. Cobb repairs and bandages a 3.2-cm superficial laceration on Paul Darby's arm. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 12002

B) 12013

C) 12032

D) 13121

23) A wound that requires layered closure of one or more of the deeper layers of subcutaneous tissue is considered what type of repair?

A) Simple repair

B) Intermediate repair

C) Complex repair

D) None of these

24) Jeanine visited her dermatologist for removal of 22 skin tags by scissoring. What is/are the appropriate CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 11300

B) 11200

C) 11310

D) 11200, 11201

25) Flaps (skin and/or deep tissues) are coded from which range of codes?

A) 15740–15879

B) 16000–116036

C) 15570–15738

D) 15920–15999

26) The codes for skin grafts are determined by all of these except:

A) size of the recipient area.

B) anatomical site of the recipient area.

C) general anesthesia.

D) type of graft.

27) Harvesting is the process of:

A) taking the tissue from the donor site.

B) attaching the tissue to the recipient site.

C) testing for compatibility.

D) collecting donor cards.

28) Kelly Spratt has been diagnosed with a malignant lesion on her nose. Dr. Beck destroys the 0.75-cm lesion using laser surgery. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 17261

B) 17271

C) 17281

D) 17286

29) Sally Kiger, a 63-year-old female, has been diagnosed with a sacral pressure ulcer, stage II. Sally is brought to the OR, where Dr. Jackson excises the ulcer, closing with primary sutures. Sally tolerated the procedure well. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 15933

B) 15931

C) 15935

D) 15934

30) Mohs micrographic surgery requires a:

A) modifier.

B) specially trained physician.

C) minimum of two codes.

D) minimum of three codes.

31) Teddy Olden, a 49-year-old male, has been diagnosed with actinic keratosis. Dr. Richards used cryotherapy to destroy five lesions. What is/are the appropriate CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 17000, 17003

B) 17003x5

C) 17000, 17003, 17003, 17003, 17003

D) 17004

32) The surgical package includes:

A) preoperative E/M encounters.

B) general anesthesia.

C) diagnostic testing.

D) postoperative therapy.

33) George Keller was playing football at the local park. When George was tackled, he fell on broken glass, cutting his face, arm, and leg. His friends took him to the nearest ER. Dr. Tamika repaired a 3.6-cm superficial laceration to his arm, a 1.50-cm superficial laceration to his face, and an 8.64-cm laceration to his leg that required a layered closure. What is/are the appropriate CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 12002, 12011-59, 12034–59

B) 12034, 12011–59, 12002–59

C) 12014, 12034

D) 12005

34) A surgical procedure that follows a surgical biopsy is:

A) appended with modifier 51.

B) appended with modifier 76.

C) appended with modifier 58.

D) coded with no modifier.

35) A procedure to treat a complication resulting from the first procedure:

A) uses modifier 58.

B) uses no modifier.

C) uses modifier 76.

D) uses modifier 78.

36) Dr. Emerson performed a laparoscopic cholecystectomy on Grace Wilson eight days ago. Today Grace saw Dr. Emerson for a painful toe. Grace was diagnosed with a subungual hematoma, which Dr. Emerson evacuated. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 11740

B) 11740–76

C) 11740–78

D) 11740–79

37) Use a separate biopsy code only when the procedure is:

A) conducted individually.

B) done with several other procedures.

C) always included.

D) done at the same time.

38) The determination of an excision code includes:

A) the anatomical site.

B) the size of the lesion.

C) the size of margins times two.

D) All of these

39) Simple closures are:

A) coded separately.

B) included in the excision code.

C) reported with a modifier.

D) coded by their length.

40) Intermediate repairs are:

A) multilevel closures.

B) included in the excision code.

C) reported with a modifier.

D) reconstructive procedures.

41) A complex repair is:

A) included in the excision code.

B) reported with a modifier.

C) a simple one layer closure.

D) the performance of extensive undermining.

42) A re-excision to remove additional tissue during a subsequent encounter in the postoperative period is:

A) included in the original procedure code.

B) reported with modifier 58.

C) reported with modifier 76.

D) reported with modifier 51.

43) Multiple wounds are reported first by the:

A) anatomical site.

B) individual length of each wound.

C) total length of all wounds.

D) type of sutures.

44) Stanley Janson injured his hand and went to the ER. Dr. Finke examined Stanley's hand and repaired a palmar 2.9-cm laceration and a dorsal 2.8-cm laceration. Both repairs required layered closure. What is/are the appropriate CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 12002

B) 12031, 12032

C) 12042

D) 12041, 12042

45) You must add this modifier to the correct CPT surgical procedure code when your physician is only going to perform the procedure itself, and not provide or be involved in any preoperative or postoperative care of the patient.

A) 54

B) 55

C) 56

D) 57

46) A wound repair code includes:

A) scar revision.

B) debridement.

C) general anesthesia.

D) fracture repair.

47) Judy Frank, a 16-year-old female, has been diagnosed with comedones. Judy presents today for acne surgery. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 10180

B) 10140

C) 10120

D) 10040

48) Dr. Sam repaired an intermediate closure of a 26-cm wound of the scalp. What is the appropriate code for the repair?

A) 12006

B) 12046

C) 12036

D) 12056

49) Dr. Haber shaved a dermal lesion on Harold Jeffers's chest, total diameter 3.2 cm. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 11301

B) 11303

C) 11308

D) 11313

50) The global surgical package includes all except:

A) local anesthesia.

B) immediate postoperative care.

C) postoperative therapy.

D) follow-up care.

51) Johnny had a fracture of his elbow, and a cast was placed by the physician. What is the appropriate code for the application of a short arm cast?

A) 29125

B) 29085

C) 29075

D) 29065

52) Jason was taken to the surgical suite after arriving in the ER with a stab wound to his abdomen. The planned procedure was an exploration of the penetrating wound to the abdomen. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 20100

B) 20101

C) 20102

D) 20103

53) When the work required to provide a service is substantially greater than typically required, it may be identified by adding modifier_____.

A) 22

B) 23

C) 24

D) 25

54) A surgical procedure that is performed for the surgical immobilization of a joint is called a(n) ________.

A) arthrodesis

B) arthroplasty

C) discectomy

D) osteotomy

55) In the treatment of fractures, what device(s) is/are used in an internal fixation?

A) Brace

B) Cast

C) Plates

D) Halo

56) In the treatment of fractures, what device(s) is/are used in an external fixation?

A) Plates

B) Screws

C) Pins

D) Halo

57) Dr. James performed a closed treatment of a tibia fracture with manipulation and skeletal traction on Mr. Smith, whose motorcycle ran into a tree. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 27535

B) 27530

C) 27532

D) 27536

58) Three-year-old Susie put a marble in her nose. It was too deep in the nasal cavity and had to be removed under general anesthesia. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 30400

B) 30310

C) 30300

D) 30320

59) Christopher was brought back to the surgical suite for a secondary rhinoplasty, bony work with osteotomies. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 30435

B) 30430

C) 30460

D) 30462

60) A lung harvest from a cadaver donor is coded with which CPT code?

A) 32855

B) 32856

C) 32851

D) 32850

61) Mrs. Short was scheduled for a lung transplant, single with cardiopulmonary bypass. What is the appropriate CPT code for this surgery?

A) 32851

B) 32852

C) 32853

D) 32854

62) Mr. Jackson was brought to the OR for repositioning of a previously implanted transvenous pacemaker. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 33217

B) 33215

C) 33216

D) 33211

63) Jerry Rickard had a coronary artery bypass using the saphenous vein graft and three coronary venous grafts. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 33513

B) 33512

C) 33514

D) 33516

64) Combined arterial-venous grafts are in which range of codes?

A) 33517–33523, 33533–33536

B) 33533–33545

C) 35682–35683

D) 33533–33536

65) A coronary artery bypass using arterial grafts and a single artery graft was performed. A femoropopliteal vein was harvested. What is/are the appropriate CPT code(s)?

A) 33533, 35600

B) 33533, 35500

C) 33533, 35572

D) 33533

66) A heart and lung transplant was performed on a patient. Organs were received from a cadaver donor. What is the appropriate CPT code for the harvesting of both organs from the cadaver?

A) 33930

B) 33940

C) 32850

D) 32855

67) How many codes are used when performing a transplant procedure?

A) 1 code

B) 2 codes

C) 3 codes

D) 4 codes

68) In an endovascular repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, an aorto-aortic tube prosthesis was used along with endovascular placement of an iliac artery occlusion device. What are the appropriate CPT codes for this procedure?

A) 34800, 34808

B) 34800, 34806

C) 34802, 34808

D) 34804, 34813

69) A Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) with short limb (150 cm) was performed on Mr. Clark. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 43770

B) 43846

C) 43847

D) 43644

70) Cynthia, a morbidly obese patient, is scheduled for a vertical sleeve gastrectomy today. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 43770

B) 43775

C) 43644

D) 43846

71) Dr. Greg's patient complained of urinary stress and urge incontinence. Dr. Greg performed a complex cystometrogram (CMG) with voiding pressure studies. What is the appropriate CPT code(s) for this procedure?

A) 51725

B) 57126

C) 51727

D) 51728

72) Patrick was seen by his urologist for condyloma of the penis. A simple destruction of the lesion was performed by cryosurgery. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 54050

B) 54055

C) 54056

D) 54057

73) Mr. Sanders complained of an abscess on his epididymis, and the physician performed an incision and drainage of his abscess. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 11004

B) 54700

C) 54800

D) 54830

74) Dr. Chou performed a complete radical vulvectomy with bilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 56630

B) 56632

C) 56633

D) 56637

75) Dr. Grey performed a combined anterioposteriorcolporrhaphy with enterocele repair on Mrs. Smith. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?

A) 57260

B) 57250

C) 57265

D) 57240

76) Codes from the surgery section of CPT are used in the offices of:

A) general surgeons.

B) neurologists.

C) dermatologists.

D) All of these

77) Codes in the surgery section of CPT report:

A) excisions.

B) debridements.

C) repair of wounds.

D) All of these

78) Procedures on the heart as well as the entire network of veins, arteries, and capillaries are coded from which section of the CPT book?

A) Respiratory System

B) Musculoskeletal System

C) Cardiovascular System

D) Digestive System

79) A 45-year-old male had an emergency exploration of a penetrating stab wound to the chest. What is the appropriate code to use for this procedure?

A) 20103

B) 20100

C) 20101

D) 20102

80) The sections of the spine include all except:

A) cervical.

B) thoracic.

C) lumbar.

D) abdominal.

81) When a laminectomy and arthrodesis are both performed during the same session, the coder must code:

A) only the laminectomy.

B) only the arthrodesis.

C) both the laminectomy and the arthrodesis.

D) both the laminectomy and the arthrodesis with modifier 51 appended to the arthrodesis.

82) Code 62263 includes which of the following?

A) Percutaneous insertion of an epidural catheter.

B) Removal of the catheter several days later.

C) Fluoroscopic guidance and localization.

D) All of these

83) Most transplantation surgeries require three steps, including:

A) diagnostic tests of the donor.

B) backbench work.

C) postoperative therapy.

D) preoperative blood tests.

84) A single-chamber pacemaker system includes a pulse generator and one electrode inserted into the:

A) atrium.

B) capillary.

C) muscle.

D) bone.

85) The replacement of a pacemaker battery is actually:

A) removal of the old pulse generator and insertion of a new generator.

B) removal of the old lead and insertion of a new lead.

C) removal of a graft and the insertion of a new graft.

D) removal of the defibrillator and insertion of a new defibrillator.

86) A venous graft using a harvested upper extremity vein will require ________ code(s).

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

87) Reporting an arterial graft from a radial artery will require ________ code(s).

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

88) Aortic vascular procedure codes include the:

A) graft harvesting.

B) preoperative EKG.

C) sympathectomy.

D) postoperative therapy.

89) An abdominal aortic aneurysm repair code includes:

A) intravascular ultrasound.

B) placement of an endovascular graft.

C) balloon angioplasty.

D) introduction of a catheter.

90) An endovascular repair of an iliac aneurysm includes:

A) balloon angioplasty.

B) arterial embolization.

C) intravascular ultrasound.

D) fluoroscopic guidance.

91) For procedures such as endoscopies what is the global time period?

A) Zero day postoperative period.

B) 10-day postoperative period.

C) 45-day postoperative period.

D) 90-day postoperative period.

92) A heart transplant will be reported with a minimum of ________ code(s).

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

93) Joe Brown had a partial vitreous removal, anterior approach (open sky technique or limbal incision). What is the correct code?

A) 65810

B) 67005

C) 67010

D) 65800

94) The removal of a self-retaining, indwelling ureteral stent should be reported with:

A) a separate code.

B) a separate code with modifier 58.

C) no code. It is included in the placement code.

D) two codes.

95) When a surgeon performs microsurgery, he or she has to use an operating microscope which is reported with code ________.

A) 49906

B) 69970

C) 69990

D) 31561

96) A meatotomy is performed on Terry, who is 1 month old and weighs 3.75 kg. This is reported with code:

A) 53020.

B) 53025.

C) 53025–63.

D) 53000.

97) A complete thyroidectomy is reported with code:

A) 60240.

B) 60271.

C) 60254.

D) 60260.

98) The injection of an anesthetic agent into the vagus nerve is reported with code(s):

A) 64400.

B) 64402.

C) 64408.

D) 64400, 64408.

99) The dilation of a bilateral punctum with irrigation is reported with code(s):

A) 68801–50.

B) 68801.

C) 68801, 31000.

D) 68801, 31000–51.

100) A diagnostic laparoscopy (peritoneoscopy) is reported with code:

A) 49320.

B) 47560.

C) 49321.

D) 49000.

101) Which of the following codes already includes the use of an operating microscope?

A) 19367

B) 19368

C) 66999

D) 49568