Ch6 Exam Prep Selecting Employees And Placing Them In Jobs

Fundamentals of HR Management, 8e (Noe)

Chapter 6 Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs

1) The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs.

2) Automated systems always ensure that all highly qualified candidates are included in the selection process.

3) A reliable measurement generates consistent results.

4) Reliability answers the important question if one is measuring something that matters.

5) Content validation is most suitable for measuring abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership ability.

6) Under equal employment opportunity laws, if an employer uses an interview process that eliminates most candidates who are black or Hispanic, the employer must show that the method is necessary for selecting candidates who project the right brand image.

7) Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather on application forms and in interviews.

8) The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate's consent before downloading his or her résumé from an online job site.

9) An HR department at a manufacturing firm wants to ensure that applicants for production jobs provide complete information about themselves in a standard format. The most effective method would be to ask candidates to submit a résumé.

10) Most organizations check references as soon as they receive a candidate's application form.

11) Aptitude tests assess a person's existing knowledge and skills.

12) Jenny is the human resource manager for a machine job that produces custom parts. To make these products, production employees must be able to quickly learn new methods and machines. To identify job candidates who can quickly acquire new skills, Jenny could administer achievement tests.

13) Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.

14) The Civil Rights Act of 1991 encourages the use of sex norming as a selection tool.

15) Personality tests are more reliable than intelligence tests.

16) The Polygraph Act legalized the use of polygraph tests for employment screening in most organizations.

17) In a nondirective interview, the interviewer always asks questions from an established set of questions.

18) Interviewing is considered the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.

19) Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.

20) In an organization, a supervisor usually makes the final employee selection decision.

21) Ed, an entrepreneur, wants to hire a human resource professional who can help him make decisions about who will or will not be allowed to join his organization. In advertising for this professional, what term should he use to describe the process he wants help with?

A) predictive validation

B) job analysis

C) concurrent validation

D) trend analysis

E) personnel selection

22) In most organizations, the first step in the personnel selection process is

A) verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.

B) negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits.

C) screening the applications to see which ones meet the basic requirements for the job.

D) administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities.

E) inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews.

23) Along with 50 other candidates, Paula applied for the position of analyst at Atticus Inc. Because Paula's profile stood out from other candidates' profiles, she was called for an interview in which she performed well. In the context of the steps involved in the selection process for recruitment, which step would most likely be taken next by the recruiter?

A) reviewing Paula's work samples

B) negotiating salary and benefits with Paula

C) verifying Paula's qualifications through background checks

D) sending Paula a job offer letter

E) getting Paula to sign the job offer

24) Russell, the new human resource manager at RTL Inc., proposes using automated systems for screening résumés of applicants. Russell claims that automated systems are better than humans at picking the right profiles. Which statement weakens Russell's claim?

A) Automated systems might reject qualified people who didn't use the same keywords as the job description.

B) Automated systems reduce the pace of the selection process by a large margin.

C) Automated systems prevent candidates from knowing the status of their applications.

D) Automated systems do not help in matching résumés to the keywords in job requirements.

E) Automated systems refrain from replying to the candidates when their profiles are rejected.

25) A strategic approach to selection requires ways to measure the effectiveness of selection tools. What is a basic standard for this?

A) The method can be personally relatable.

B) The method will highlight invalid information.

C) The information provided will always be specific to the candidates applying.

D) The method offers practical value.

E) The legality of the selection criteria depends on in which country the measurement is performed.

26) The ________ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.

A) reliability

B) validity

C) generalizability

D) utility

E) verifiability

27) Statistics that measure the degree to which two sets of numbers are related are known as

A) aligned statistics.

B) important integers.

C) reliable ratings.

D) natural numbers.

E) correlation coefficients.

28) A correlation coefficient of -1.0 between two sets of numbers indicates

A) a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets.

B) that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set.

C) that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down.

D) a positive correlation between the two sets.

E) an indefinite relationship between the two sets.

29) What does a correlation of 0 mean?

A) a negative correlation

B) a positive correlation

C) a correlation where one number goes up and the other goes down

D) no correlation at all

E) an error in the correlation coefficients

30) Reliability answers the important question of

A) whether you are measuring something accurately.

B) whether you are measuring something that matters.

C) how you are measuring correlation coefficients.

D) how many errors something can achieve while still being considered useful.

E) intelligence in employees.

31) The ________ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to actual job performance.

A) reliability

B) validity

C) generalizability

D) utility

E) dependability

32) The HR department at Hufton Co. recently developed and employed a certain test in the selection process for managers. After observing trends within the organization, the HR department concluded that the test was not a valid selection criterion. What most likely led to the observation that the test was not valid?

A) Managers who were recruited without the tests performed well when promoted to other roles.

B) Managers who got low scores on the tests performed poorly when promoted to other roles.

C) Managers who fared well in the tests performed well in their roles.

D) Managers who performed well on the tests performed poorly in their roles.

E) Managers who were recruited without the tests performed poorly in their roles.

33) What is true of validity?

A) Validity cannot be explained using correlation coefficients.

B) Validity identifies how free a measurement is from random error.

C) Validity measures the level of cultural fit.

D) Validity can only be measured in one way.

E) Validity ensures the fairness of employment practices during selection procedures.

34) Which measure of validity is based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores?

A) criterion-related validity

B) diagnostic validity

C) content validity

D) convergent validity

E) construct validity

35) Sparkle Spin, a national appliance brand, recruited 15 people as brand managers. They all took a test as part of the recruitment process. Three months after the recruitment, their test scores were analyzed along with their performance on the job to find a substantial correlation between the two factors. Which method of research is exemplified in this scenario?

A) content validation

B) predictive validation

C) concurrent validation

D) construct validation

E) diagnostic validation

36) Identify the correct statement regarding predictive validation.

A) It is the least effective method of measuring validity.

B) It uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance.

C) It involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their scores to existing measures of their current job performance.

D) It is the quickest and easiest method compared to other ways of measuring validity.

E) Its scores are influenced by applicants' job experiences.

37) Kate is the HR manager of Gunther Corp., a software company located in Chicago. She wants to establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a predictive validation strategy. Accordingly, Kate must administer the test to

A) at least half the present computer technicians in Gunther Corp.

B) people doing similar jobs in other companies.

C) people applying for computer technician jobs in Gunther Corp.

D) only those computer technicians in Gunther Corp. who are performing at acceptable levels.

E) a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at Gunther Corp.

38) To test the validity of a selection test for advanced widget designers, Apptastic administers the test to its current widget designers. The test results are then compared with existing measures of job performance. In this instance, what type of validation is being used by Apptastic?

A) predictive validation

B) concurrent validation

C) content validation

D) construct validation

E) diagnostic validation

39) Identify an accurate difference between predictive validation and concurrent validation.

A) Predictive validation correlates current job roles and job performance; concurrent validation does not.

B) Predictive validation correlates future job performance and applicant test scores; concurrent validation does not.

C) Concurrent validation is very time-consuming; predictive validation is not.

D) Concurrent validation is difficult to employ; predictive validation is not.

E) Concurrent validation is utilized on new recruits; predictive validation is not.

40) The consistency between test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur in a job is known as

A) predictive validity.

B) content validity.

C) concurrent validity.

D) diagnostic validity.

E) construct validity.

41) Brick-n-Go, a construction firm, is in need of a construction superintendent whose primary responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several subcontractors. Brick-n-Go administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant has to enter a shed that has 25 construction errors and has to record as many of these errors as can be detected. What type of validity is being established in this case?

A) concurrent validity

B) construct validity

C) content validity

D) representative validity

E) predictive validity

42) Which statement is true about content validity?

A) It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.

B) It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.

C) It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.

D) A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.

E) It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.

43) For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best be established by ________ validation.

A) criterion-related

B) content

C) concurrent

D) construct

E) predictive

44) A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is known as a(n) ________ method.

A) practical

B) generalizable

C) reliable

D) invalid

E) concurrent

45) Christian is the HR manager of Pryor's Printing, a publishing company. He wants to know if a certain test of cognitive ability, used in the advertising industry, can be successfully used in his organization. This scenario suggests that he wants to know if this test is a(n) ________ method.

A) substitutable

B) evaluative

C) practical

D) generalizable

E) nondirective

46) Selection methods should accurately predict how well individuals perform, and they should

A) produce information that actually benefits the organization.

B) not cost the company a great deal of money.

C) all be applicable to many different roles in many different locations.

D) only be applicable to the company where they are being used.

E) only be used on current employees with leadership aspirations.

47) The extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost is called its

A) practicality.

B) utility.

C) validity.

D) accountability.

E) reliability.

48) Which of the following exemplifies the best use of utility for a selection procedure?

A) Tina's Treats, a suburban diner, spends a lot of time and money recruiting a server.

B) A local gas station has a recruitment procedure that spans four months for the position of a cashier.

C) Fritter Corp., an international investment firm, spends close to a million dollars to hire a renowned economist as its new CEO.

D) Car Care, a local car wash, employs a three-month-long selection procedure for hiring one of its operators.

E) Buffington High School conducts several rounds of interviews to recruit a maintenance worker.

49) Greater Grocers, an international retailer, opens a store in a town predominantly populated by a particular racial group. While recruiting employees for the store, it uses a test in the selection process that favors that same racial group. When questioned about the selection procedure, the management reasons that the customers are more comfortable with employees of their own race. In the context of the legal standards of selection, what is an accurate statement?

A) Greater Grocers' actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 or the equal employment opportunity law at all.

B) Though Greater Grocers' selection process violates the Civil Rights Act of 1991, it's justifiable under the equal employment opportunity law.

C) Greater Grocers' selection process is justifiable because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 requires employers to make reasonable accommodation according to the demographics of a locality.

D) Greater Grocers' actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991, but it violates the equal employment opportunity law.

E) Greater Grocers' actions during the selection process violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 because customer preference is not a justifiable reason for discriminatory practices.

50) Which action during the selection process would be illegal under the equal employment opportunity laws?

A) asking candidates whether they are able to perform the essential functions of a job

B) asking all candidates whether they have ever worked under a different name

C) asking candidates how close they are to retirement age

D) asking all candidates which schools they have attended

E) asking candidates whether they will need any reasonable accommodation to complete the selection process

51) Which question is permissible to ask in job applications and interviews?

A) How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?

B) Are you a citizen of the United States?

C) What religious holidays do you observe?

D) Where were you born?

E) Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process?

52) Barbara is interviewing for a paralegal position at one of the biggest law firms in the country. During the interview, she is asked a particular question that she refuses to answer. Frustrated by her behavior, the interviewer repeats the question. She refuses to answer it again and says that it violates her rights under equal employment opportunity law. Which question is she most likely being asked?

A) What is your complete name?

B) What is your ancestry?

C) Can you meet the requirements of strict work schedules?

D) Have you ever been convicted of a crime?

E) What organizations or groups do you belong to that you consider relevant to being able to perform this job?

53) Which law requires employers to make "reasonable accommodation" to incapacitated individuals?

A) The Civil Rights Act of 1991

B) The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1988

C) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991

D) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

E) The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938

54) Regal Inc., an investment bank, is in the final stage of its selection process for a business analyst. Donald is one of the desired candidates for the position. As part of background checks, the bank wants to look at his credit history. Which Act requires them to obtain Donald's consent before using a third party to check his credit history?

A) The Civil Rights Act of 1991

B) The Fair Credit Reporting Act

C) The Fair Labor Standards Act

D) The Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act

E) The Consumer Credit Protection Act

55) What is a requirement under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986?

A) Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States.

B) Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain the documents for at least ten years.

C) Employers must pay lower wages to immigrant workers.

D) Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.

E) Employers must ask a potential employee's religion.

56) Kelsey is filling out an application form for the position of an elementary school teacher. While she is filling it out, she comes across a section that asks for information about her high school and college courses and grades. Which section of the application form is being referred to here?

A) mailing address

B) work experience

C) racial details

D) educational background

E) declaration

57) Identify the detail that can be asked in an application form to gather information about suitable candidates.

A) marital status

B) history of disabilities

C) number of children

D) educational background

E) applicant's race

58) What is a disadvantage of using résumés as a source of information about job applicants?

A) It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.

B) It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.

C) Review of résumés is least valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.

D) A résumé is biased in favor of the employer.

E) The content of the résumé is controlled by the applicant.

59) For what purpose do organizations typically review applicant résumés?

A) as a substitute for interviews

B) as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further

C) as a way to avoid the cost of administering tests related to job performance

D) as a way to control the content of the information and the way it is presented

E) as a way to obtain an objective source of information

60) Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in

A) terms of the elements of a job description.

B) comparison with other applicants' qualifications.

C) terms of the incumbent's competencies.

D) terms of the industrial benchmarks.

E) comparison with other employees in an organization.

61) While applying for the position of administrative assistant, Monica was asked to provide the name and phone number of her previous supervisor. She was also provided the alternative of presenting a letter from her previous supervisor vouching for her performance on the job. Which tool used in the initial selection process is illustrated in this case?

A) application form

B) résumé

C) background checks

D) aptitude tests

E) references

62) Generally, an organization checks references

A) only if it believes the information provided by an applicant is incorrect.

B) immediately after an applicant submits a résumé.

C) after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist for a job.

D) because it is a legal requirement under equal employment opportunity laws.

E) because it is an unbiased source of information.

63) If a person who is a reference gives negative information about a job candidate, there is a chance the candidate will claim ________, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful.

A) defamation

B) misappropriation

C) fraud

D) misrepresentation

E) negligence

64) Robin is a human resource manager at Techtronic, a software company. She receives a call from an HR manager at another software company asking about Megan, a software engineer who used to work at Techtronic and has applied for a job at the caller's company. Robin checks the company's records and sees that a coworker had accused Megan of racial discrimination, but an investigation did not turn up any evidence to support the charge. Megan left the company two months later, saying she was no longer comfortable there. Robin is concerned about sharing the details of this situation with the caller. If telling the information to the caller leads to the other company not hiring Megan, what potentially unlawful behavior could Megan accuse Techtronic of engaging in?

A) misappropriation

B) fraud

C) misrepresentation

D) defamation

E) negligence

65) If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learns of misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the new employer may sue the former for

A) negligence.

B) misrepresentation.

C) defamation.

D) misappropriation.

E) libel.

66) Kevin had a great résumé and a glowing recommendation from his previous employer. Impressed by his qualifications and expertise, Electron Co. hired him for the position of quality analyst. However, he engaged in blatant sexual harassment at Electron after a couple of weeks on the job. During its investigation of the harassment, Electron learned that Kevin had been fired for sexual harassment at his previous employer. If the management of Electron wanted to hold Kevin's previous employer accountable, they could sue the company for

A) misrepresentation.

B) fraud.

C) defamation.

D) negligence.

E) embezzlement.

67) How can individuals acting as references for job applicants minimize the risk of being sued for defamation or misrepresentation?

A) by giving as much information as possible

B) by exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate

C) by only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors

D) by giving only broad opinions

E) by excluding employment dates and the employee's final salary

68) In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if employers

A) contact many references.

B) rely exclusively on the list provided by applicants.

C) avoid direct contact with references.

D) restrict contact with references through e-mails.

E) receive positive opinions about the applicants from their references.

69) Gretchen applies for a data systems operator position in one of the federal governmental agencies. As part of the selection process, she takes a civil services exam that measures her existing knowledge and skills. This scenario exemplifies a(n)

A) psychometric test.

B) critical thinking test.

C) judgment test.

D) aptitude test.

E) achievement test.

70) Julian applies for the position of an emergency direct care worker at San Jose Medical Center. In the last round of the selection process, he has to take part in a testing procedure that simulates an emergency situation. He has to run a half-mile on the treadmill, followed by a step test, a posture test, a squat test, and a weight-lifting test. His performance is timed and his heart rate is monitored throughout the tests. Which test is exemplified in this case?

A) cognitive ability test

B) critical thinking test

C) psychometric test

D) physical ability test

E) achievement test

71) Tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability are referred to as ________ tests.

A) job performance

B) honesty

C) personality inventories

D) cognitive ability

E) physical ability

72) Which statement is true about cognitive ability tests?

A) They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.

B) They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.

C) They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.

D) They are free from legal complications.

E) They are especially valid for simple jobs.

73) Identify the limitation of cognitive ability tests.

A) lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs

B) lack of reliable and commercially available tests

C) legal issues related to administering the tests

D) lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability

E) relatively high cost of the tests

74) The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows employers to give preference to underrepresented groups within these similar scores is known as

A) banding.

B) generalizing.

C) affirmative action.

D) sensitizing.

E) race norming.

75) In-basket tests are examples of ________ tests.

A) job performance

B) physical ability

C) honesty

D) personality

E) cognitive ability

76) Which statement is true of an assessment center?

A) It is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.

B) It conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.

C) It uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.

D) It is a selection method generally used for unskilled applicants.

E) It has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.

77) Identify the correct statement regarding job performance tests.

A) They provide fair evaluations for applicants.

B) They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.

C) These tests are highly generalizable.

D) Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.

E) They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.

78) Which of the following is a "Big Five" personality trait?

A) physical ability

B) cognitive ability

C) aptitude

D) extroversion

E) honesty

79) Identify the traits that are found in a conscientious person.

A) sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative

B) dependable, organized, persevering, and achievement-oriented

C) courteous, trusting, good-natured, and tolerant

D) emotionally stable, non-depressed, secure, and content

E) curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, and broad-minded

80) Moose Tech, a software start-up, is putting together a new team to work on the marketing strategies for their expansion project. In the context of using the "Big Five" personality traits for effective team building, which employees would be good additions to a team that encourages a strong and harmonious culture and is most likely to give the best results?

A) Kelly is very organized; Allison is very cooperative.

B) Liz is not achievement-oriented; Connor is laid-back.

C) Both Nick and Drew are domineering.

D) Both Rebecca and Leann are aggressive and unforgiving.

E) Ryan is emotionally unstable; Tabitha is constantly depressed.

81) Which test is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences with theft?

A) polygraph test

B) paper-and-pencil honesty test

C) cognitive ability test

D) personality inventory test

E) in-basket test

82) Sarah, a manager at Energy Inc., conducts an interview with Matthew for a job as regional sales manager. During the course of the interview, she has Matthew take a test that assesses Matthew's integrity by asking him about his attitude toward shoplifting and his own experiences with shoplifting, if any. Which test is Sarah conducting?

A) exit test

B) paper-and-pencil honesty test

C) cognitive ability test

D) work sample test

E) in-basket test

83) The human resource department at an accounting firm is preparing a policy for the drug testing of job applicants. Jim makes a list of statements to include in the policy and shows the list to his supervisor, Peggy. Which statement would Peggy direct Jim to change?

A) Drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants who have applied for the same job.

B) Drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.

C) Drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards.

D) Drug testing should not be conducted in an intrusive environment.

E) Drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.

84) What is true about medical examinations of job candidates?

A) Medical examinations may not be related to job requirements.

B) Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of a candidate's résumé.

C) Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.

D) Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.

E) Medical examinations are conducted after a candidate has been given a job offer.

85) A ________ interview allows interviewer discretion in choosing the questions to be asked and generally includes open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and work experience.

A) behavioral

B) situational

C) nondirective

D) structured

E) computerized

86) Lexie, a marketing manager, regularly interviews candidates for her team. Because Lexie is a people person, and her department is built on teamwork, when she interviews candidates for a job, she tries to get to know the candidates as people. She always begins by saying, "Tell me about yourself," and based on what the candidate says, she lets the conversation unfold for 30 to 60 minutes. How does this approach limit Lexie's effectiveness as an interviewer?

A) By always starting with the same question, she limits the creativity of the candidates.

B) By using this structured approach, she avoids asking the wrong questions.

C) This type of behavior description interview is too focused on behaviors, rather than teamwork.

D) Her method is a panel interview, which has a low validity for a department built on teamwork.

E) The wide latitude of these nondirective interviews can result in low reliability and often poor validity.

87) Ross is being interviewed for an entry-level financial analyst position at a well-known asset management company. Ross is asked questions about the current state of the U.S. stock market, the current net worth of certain financial firms, and concepts such as IPOs and mergers from a set of predetermined questions that the interviewer has prepared. This is an example of a(n) ________ interview.

A) structured

B) in-basket

C) work-sample

D) exit

E) nondirective

88) During interviews for a sales position at Greggor Corp., the interviewer asks each candidate to imagine a situation where a customer e-mails to report that products were damaged during delivery from Greggor Corp. The interviewer then asks each candidate what he or she would do to handle this situation. This is an example of a(n) ________ interview.

A) behavior description

B) situational

C) computerized

D) exit

E) in-basket

89) During interviews for medical assistants at the Fairview Medical Center, all the candidates are asked to talk about a situation in the past when they had to empathize with an emotionally unstable person and help that person make rational decisions. This was to test whether the candidates would be able to assist a frantic patient and help him or her make informed decisions. This is known as a(n) ________ interview.

A) unstructured

B) nondirective

C) behavior description

D) physical ability

E) exit

90) Parton Co. is a car manufacturing company that wants to hire a new product manager. Senior management decides to have the department heads for production, sales, and human resources interview the candidates on a variety of topics. This is an example of a(n) ________ interview.

A) behavior description

B) in-basket

C) situational

D) exit

E) panel

91) Chad wants to build a start-up company with a small number of people working for him. He decides to do all the hiring himself. Lucas, a friend of Chad's who is a lawyer, warns Chad about the risk of discrimination complaints he could receive from applicants who are not hired. Which statement best expresses the basis of Lucas's concern about avoiding discrimination?

A) Interviews are narrow and standardized, so they do not allow interviewers to test the integrity of interviewees with ease.

B) Interviews are subjective, so they have the potential of assessing candidates based on questions not related to the job.

C) Interviews are situational, so they provide a means to check the accuracy of information provided by the candidate.

D) Interviews are expensive, so their validity and reliability are always in question.

E) Interviews require polygraph tests, which give the interviewer an opportunity to ask questions that can violate the privacy rights of the interviewee.

92) Which statement is true of selection decisions?

A) They should be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best.

B) They should be based on the amount of confidence observed in job candidates.

C) They should be based on which candidate best meets the requirements of the position.

D) They should be a simple matter of which candidate will take the lowest offer.

E) They should be based on motivation, not abilities.

93) Which statement best describes the multiple-hurdle model of personnel selection?

A) It is a process of selecting employees in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low score on another.

B) It is a process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process.

C) It is a selection process in which several members of an organization form a panel and interview each candidate.

D) It is a testing program that establishes different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.

E) It is a selection process that treats a range of scores as being similar and divides candidates into groups based on the range into which they fall.

94) Leggy High School has three open positions for teachers. The school's HR personnel review résumés to identify the candidates who meet the school's minimum requirements. Next, potential candidates are then invited for interviews. After this, interviewers discuss the results with HR personnel and select a short list of candidates, who then appear before a panel of teachers and HR personnel for the final interview. Leggy's new teachers are then selected from among these finalists. Which terms describes Leggy's method of selection?

A) compensatory model

B) multiple-hurdle model

C) leadership model

D) behavior description model

E) nondirective model

95) Ashley, a purchasing manager, tells Franklin, the human resource manager, that she has selected a candidate to be her purchasing assistant. She shows him a draft of an e-mail message offering the candidate the job at the agreed-on starting wage. She asks Franklin if there is anything else she should mention in the message. Franklin replies that Ashley should add information about

A) the work schedule, starting date, and drug test results.

B) the job responsibilities, work schedule, and starting date.

C) the work schedule, starting date, and results of the candidate's medical exam.

D) the job responsibilities and results of the candidate's medical exam.

E) the starting date.

96) Describe the steps involved in a selection process.

97) Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.

98) Briefly describe how concurrent and predictive validation research is conducted, and identify at least two potential advantages of predictive validation.

99) Discuss how the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Americans with Disabilities Act impact personnel selection processes.

100) Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job candidates. How do organizations cope with this burden?

101) What are the two broad categories of employment tests?

102) Why are drug tests a controversial component of the personnel selection process?

103) What are the different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection?

104) List three advantages and disadvantages of interviewing.

105) What is the multiple-hurdle model?