Ch15 Managing Marketing Channels Test Questions & Answers - Answer Key + Test Bank | Marketing 13th Edition by Kerin and Hartley by Roger A. Kerin, Steven W. Hartley. DOCX document preview.

Ch15 Managing Marketing Channels Test Questions & Answers

Chapter 15

Managing Marketing Channels and Supply Chains

 


Multiple Choice Questions
 

1.

Callaway Golf markets its products through on- and off-course golf retailers and sporting goods retailers, and also has its own online store, which makes it a full-fledged 
 

A. 

cross-channel marketer.

B. 

multichannel marketer.

C. 

industrial marketer.

D. 

direct marketer.

E. 

remarketer.

 

2.

Providing Callaway's authorized golf retailers and sporting goods retailers with the right products, at the right place, at the right time, and in the right quantity and condition is the responsibility of the company's 
 

A. 

competitors.

B. 

retail partners.

C. 

supply chain.

D. 

retail outlets.

E. 

discounted merchandising arm.

 

3.

Individuals and firms involved in the process of making a product or service available for use or consumption by consumers or industrial users are referred to as a 
 

A. 

marketing channel.

B. 

parallel distribution.

C. 

retailer.

D. 

wholesaler.

E. 

distributor.

 

4.

You probably own several pairs of shoes. Further, it is likely you purchased those shoes at retail stores located in a shopping mall and not directly from the manufacturer. In fact, most products are brought to you from a series of other individuals or firms known as a 
 

A. 

marketing network.

B. 

distribution hierarchy.

C. 

marketing chain.

D. 

distribution matrix.

E. 

marketing channel.

 

5.

A __________ can be compared to a pipeline through which water flows—making possible the flow of products and services from a producer, through intermediaries, to a buyer. 
 

A. 

marketing chain

B. 

marketing hierarchy

C. 

marketing agent

D. 

marketing channel

E. 

marketing network

 

6.

Jay stops at the shopping mall to purchase a new pair of jeans from the Diesel store. He is the ultimate consumer in a pipeline from the producer through intermediaries, including the clothing store. This pipeline is actually a 
 

A. 

marketing tunnel.

B. 

consumer market.

C. 

marketing channel.

D. 

transactional conduit.

E. 

distribution matrix.

 

7.

A middleman is 
 

A. 

a person or firm whose sole responsibility is bringing a buyer to the last link in the distribution chain.

B. 

a person or firm whose sole responsibility is to find distributors for a manufacturer's products.

C. 

any intermediary between a manufacturer and end-user markets.

D. 

a person or firm that takes possession of a product and in some way alters it before passing it on to ultimate consumers.

E. 

an intermediary that sells to ultimate consumers.

 

8.

Any intermediary between a manufacturer and end-user markets is referred to as a 
 

A. 

retailer.

B. 

middleman.

C. 

wholesaler.

D. 

broker.

E. 

distributor.

 

9.

A(n) __________ is any intermediary between a manufacturer and end-user markets. 
 

A. 

agent

B. 

wholesaler

C. 

retailer

D. 

middleman

E. 

broker

 

10.

Jaffar (Jeff) Tabrizi is the owner and president of Tabrizi Oriental Rugs located in Toronto, Canada. He personally shops the world over, handpicks, and orders authentic and beautiful handmade rugs. He has them shipped to Canada, where he sells them through his brick-and-mortar stores and his www.tabrizi.com website. In terms of the marketing channel, Tabrizi is acting as 
 

A. 

a consumer.

B. 

an agent.

C. 

a wholesaler.

D. 

a brokerage firm.

E. 

a middleman.

 

11.

Any intermediary with legal authority to act on behalf of the manufacturer is referred to as 
 

A. 

a dealer.

B. 

an agent.

C. 

a retailer.

D. 

a wholesaler.

E. 

a distributor.

 

12.

Agent refers to 
 

A. 

any intermediary with legal authority to act on behalf of the manufacturer.

B. 

independent firms or individuals whose principal function is to transport goods.

C. 

any intermediary that takes ownership of a manufacturer's goods or services and then finds multiple buyers for them.

D. 

a manufacturer's paid representative and acting voice in initial sales transactions.

E. 

a manufacturing "matchmaker" that actively seeks out potential consumers and brings them to retailers.

 

13.

Several artists in Charleston, South Carolina, show and sell their work in an art gallery downtown. The gallery is owned by an art lover who does not buy the paintings but displays those from other artists. She only collects a percentage on each piece sold. In terms of the marketing channel, the gallery is 
 

A. 

an ultimate consumer.

B. 

a manufacturer.

C. 

a wholesaler.

D. 

an agent.

E. 

a dealer.

 

14.

Wholesaler refers to 
 

A. 

independent firms or individuals whose principal function is to bring buyers and sellers together.

B. 

any intermediary that takes ownership of a manufacturer's products or services and then finds multiple buyers for those products or services.

C. 

an intermediary that sells to other intermediaries, usually to retailers in consumer markets.

D. 

an intermediary that sells to consumers.

E. 

a manufacturing "matchmaker" that actively seeks out potential consumers and brings them to retailers.

 

15.

An intermediary that sells to other intermediaries, usually to retailers in consumer markets, is referred to as 
 

A. 

a broker.

B. 

an agent.

C. 

a retailer.

D. 

a distributor.

E. 

a wholesaler.

 

16.

A(n) __________ is an intermediary that sells to other intermediaries. 
 

A. 

agent

B. 

wholesaler

C. 

retailer

D. 

manufacturer

E. 

broker

 

17.

Establishments primarily engaged in selling grain and small farm products to retail feed stores would be classified as 
 

A. 

retailers.

B. 

brokers.

C. 

ultimate consumers.

D. 

wholesalers.

E. 

agents.

 

18.

An intermediary that sells to consumers is referred to as 
 

A. 

an agent.

B. 

a broker.

C. 

a retailer.

D. 

a wholesaler.

E. 

a distributor.

 

19.

Retailer refers to 
 

A. 

an intermediary that sells only to other intermediaries.

B. 

any intermediary between a manufacturer and industrial markets.

C. 

an intermediary that sells to other distributors.

D. 

an intermediary that takes possession of a product, alters it in some way, and then sells it to the ultimate consumer.

E. 

an intermediary that sells to consumers.

 

20.

A(n) __________ is an intermediary that sells to consumers. 
 

A. 

agent

B. 

retailer

C. 

wholesaler

D. 

distributor

E. 

broker

 

21.

Several artists in Charleston, South Carolina, have created an arrangement to sell their paintings. They have set up an art gallery in downtown Charleston so tourists and art lovers can look at their paintings and buy the ones they like. Each artist takes a turn acting as the salesclerk at the gallery. In terms of the marketing channel, the gallery is acting as 
 

A. 

an ultimate consumer.

B. 

a manufacturer.

C. 

a wholesaler.

D. 

a retailer.

E. 

a distributor.

 

22.

Your best friend just bought a longboard at BC Surf & Sport. In terms of the marketing channel, BC Surf & Sport is 
 

A. 

an ultimate consumer.

B. 

a manufacturer.

C. 

a wholesaler.

D. 

a retailer.

E. 

a distributor.

 

23.

Distributor is 
 

A. 

an imprecise term for intermediaries that perform a variety of distribution functions, including selling, maintaining inventories, extending credit, and so on.

B. 

the term for an intermediary that sells only to manufacturers.

C. 

the term for an intermediary that takes possession of a product, alters it in some way, and then sells it to the ultimate consumer.

D. 

the term for an intermediary that sells only to consumers.

E. 

the term for an intermediary that sells only to other intermediaries.

 

24.

An imprecise term for intermediaries that perform a variety of functions, including selling, maintaining inventories, extending credit, and so on, is 
 

A. 

agents.

B. 

brokers.

C. 

retailers.

D. 

wholesalers.

E. 

distributors.

 

25.

An even more imprecise term than distributor, __________ can mean the same as retailer, wholesaler, and more. 
 

A. 

broker

B. 

retailer

C. 

agent

D. 

dealer

E. 

wholesaler

 

26.

Automakers such as Chrysler, Ford, and General Motors utilize a __________ network. 
 

A. 

dealer

B. 

broker

C. 

retailer

D. 

distributor

E. 

wholesaler

 

27.

Intermediaries performing a transactional function in distribution are engaged in buying, selling, and 
 

A. 

storing.

B. 

financing.

C. 

transporting.

D. 

risk-taking.

E. 

merchandising.

 

28.

The risk in a transactional function refers to 
 

A. 

unpredictable costs of transportation because of fuel prices.

B. 

product liability from poorly produced products that become defective.

C. 

the need to stock merchandise in anticipation of sales.

D. 

trying new promotional campaigns.

E. 

investments in new-product development.

 

29.

In terms of distribution, when marketing channel members are engaged in buying, selling, and risk-taking, they are performing __________ functions. 
 

A. 

logistical

B. 

merchandising

C. 

facilitating

D. 

implementation

E. 

transactional

 

30.

A marketing channel intermediary that purchases merchandise for resale at retail outlets is engaging in __________ function. 
 

A. 

a transactional

B. 

a logistical

C. 

a facilitating

D. 

a risk-taking

E. 

an assorting

 

31.

Purchasing products for resale or as an agent for supply of a product would be an example of __________ function. 
 

A. 

a logistical

B. 

a facilitating

C. 

a risk-taking

D. 

a transactional

E. 

an assorting

 

32.

Logistical function activities include __________ products and services. 
 

A. 

buying and selling

B. 

assorting, storing, sorting, and transporting

C. 

financing and grading

D. 

risk-taking

E. 

marketing information and research

 

33.

When marketing channel members are engaged in assorting, storing, sorting, and transporting products and services, they are performing __________ functions. 
 

A. 

logistical

B. 

merchandising

C. 

facilitating

D. 

implementation

E. 

transactional

 

34.

Creating product assortments from several sources to serve customers is an example of a __________ function. 
 

A. 

transactional

B. 

facilitating

C. 

selling

D. 

logistical

E. 

risk-taking

 

35.

Assembling and protecting products at a convenient location to offer better customer service is an example of a __________ function. 
 

A. 

transactional

B. 

facilitating

C. 

grading

D. 

risk-taking

E. 

logistical

 

36.

Creating product assortments from several sources to serve customers is an example of a __________ function. 
 

A. 

logistical

B. 

transactional

C. 

facilitating

D. 

transporting

E. 

grading

 

37.

Physically moving a product to customers is an example of a __________ function. 
 

A. 

transactional

B. 

logistical

C. 

facilitating

D. 

selling

E. 

sorting

 

38.

When Hunter went to the hardware store looking for gloves to wear while refinishing a table, he bought one pair because that was all he needed. But when the hardware store purchased the gloves, it purchased a case containing 100 pairs of identical gloves. Which logistical function did the hardware store perform for Hunter and its other customers? 
 

A. 

marketing

B. 

buying

C. 

sorting

D. 

assorting

E. 

risk-taking

 

39.

Facilitating function activities include 
 

A. 

buying and selling.

B. 

assorting, sorting, and storing.

C. 

financing, grading, and marketing information and research.

D. 

risk-taking.

E. 

transportation.

 

40.

In terms of distribution, when marketing channel members are engaged in financing, grading, and marketing information and research, they are performing the __________ function. 
 

A. 

logistical

B. 

transformational

C. 

implementing

D. 

facilitating

E. 

transactional

 

41.

Intermediaries perform facilitating function activities, which assist producers in making products and services more attractive to buyers. These activities include 
 

A. 

producing, assembling, and distributing.

B. 

transportation and distribution.

C. 

buying, selling, and risk-taking.

D. 

assorting, sorting, and storing.

E. 

financing, grading, and marketing information and research.

 

42.

Extending credit to customers is an example of a __________ function. 
 

A. 

transactional

B. 

logistical

C. 

facilitating

D. 

buying

E. 

risk-taking

 

43.

Inspecting, testing, or judging products and assigning them quality grades is an example of a __________ function. 
 

A. 

transactional

B. 

logistical

C. 

storing

D. 

facilitating

E. 

risk-taking

 

44.

Before consumers see a movie, it is assigned a rating such as G or PG based on its language and content. This rating system is most closely related to which facilitating function activity performed by marketing intermediaries? 
 

A. 

grading

B. 

sorting

C. 

risk-taking

D. 

marketing

E. 

assorting

 

45.

Two students, Nick and Sean, were studying for an upcoming exam in their introduction to marketing course. While studying the chapter on marketing channels and wholesalers, Nick made the following statement: "If it weren't for wholesalers and other intermediaries in the channel of distribution, the products we buy would cost a lot less!" After contemplating Nick's statement, Sean said, "Wait a minute. We learned in class that channel intermediaries actually make marketing more efficient by making transactions easier." Sean's statement refers to 
 

A. 

channel intermediary development.

B. 

the relationships between channel intermediaries themselves.

C. 

the value created by channel intermediaries.

D. 

channel intermediary promotional efforts.

E. 

an inaccurate statement by Lee; Nick was correct.

 

46.

Marketing channels help create value for consumers through four utilities. These utilities are 
 

A. 

product, price, promotion, and place.

B. 

form, function, risk-taking, and selling.

C. 

time, place, form, and possession.

D. 

transactional, logistical, facilitating, and marketing.

E. 

buying, selling, storing, and transporting.

 

47.

A snack vending machine located in a university building creates both __________ utility. 
 

A. 

time and place

B. 

place and form

C. 

form and creation

D. 

possession and form

E. 

application and place

 

48.

Having a product or service where consumers want it is __________ utility. 
 

A. 

form

B. 

place

C. 

time

D. 

possession

E. 

location

 

49.

Enhancing a product or service to make it more appealing to buyers is __________ utility. 
 

A. 

time

B. 

place

C. 

possession

D. 

form

E. 

transactional

 

50.

A textile artist can buy fabric, thread, and batting, create an heirloom quilt, and then sell the finished work to customers in a kiosk decorated with some of the quilts produced to entice customers who shop at the local mall. By designing the quilts and kiosk with aesthetic value, the artist creates __________ utility. 
 

A. 

application

B. 

possession

C. 

time

D. 

place

E. 

form

 

51.

An example of __________ utility involves intermediaries shipping goods to buyers of a product. 
 

A. 

time

B. 

form

C. 

place

D. 

possession

E. 

transactional

 

52.

As the number of intermediaries between a producer and buyer increases, the channel is viewed as increasing in 
 

A. 

variety.

B. 

scope.

C. 

depth.

D. 

scale.

E. 

length.

 

53.

A(n) __________ exists when producers and ultimate consumers deal one-on-one with each other. 
 

A. 

strategic channel alliance

B. 

direct channel

C. 

horizontal marketing exchange

D. 

indirect channel

E. 

dual distribution channel

 

54.

When producers and ultimate consumers deal with each other one-on-one, it is referred to as 
 

A. 

a strategic channel alliance.

B. 

a horizontal marketing exchange.

C. 

a direct channel.

D. 

an indirect channel.

E. 

a dual distribution channel.

 

55.

A direct channel exists when 
 

A. 

producers and end users deal with each other on a one-on-one basis.

B. 

the producer and consumer perform numerous channel functions.

C. 

a firm reaches different buyers by employing two or more different types of channels for the same basic product.

D. 

an intermediary sells to other intermediaries, usually to retailers in consumer markets.

E. 

an agent or broker brings ultimate consumers to manufacturers.

 

56.

In a direct channel, all channel functions are performed by 
 

A. 

retailers.

B. 

wholesalers.

C. 

producers.

D. 

brokers and agents.

E. 

middlemen.

 

57.

When Dell Computer sells made-to-order PCs to customers online via its website, it is an example of which type of marketing channel? 
 

A. 

indirect channel

B. 

strategic channel alliance

C. 

consumer channel

D. 

dual distributive channel

E. 

direct channel

 

58.

Schwan's Sales Enterprises of Marshall, Minnesota, markets a full line of frozen foods in 49 states and parts of Canada using door-to-door salespeople who sell from its refrigerated trucks. This particular method of distribution is referred to as 
 

A. 

an indirect channel.

B. 

a direct channel.

C. 

a facilitated channel.

D. 

a customer-service channel.

E. 

a truck-jobber channel.

 

59.

In an episode of the Glee television series, members of the glee club sold home-baked cupcakes at school to raise money. The students selling their cupcakes without any intermediary would be an example of 
 

A. 

a personalized distribution.

B. 

a nonpermanent distribution.

C. 

an informal channel of distribution.

D. 

a direct channel of distribution.

E. 

an indirect channel of distribution.

 

60.

A channel that includes intermediaries that are between the producer and consumers and perform numerous channel functions is referred to as 
 

A. 

an indirect channel.

B. 

a direct channel.

C. 

a multilevel channel.

D. 

a full-service channel.

E. 

a limited-service channel.

 

61.

Indirect channels for consumer products 
 

A. 

occur when one firm's marketing channels are used to sell another firm's products.

B. 

include producers and end users dealing directly with each other.

C. 

include intermediaries that are between the producer and consumer and perform numerous channel functions.

D. 

are arrangements whereby a firm reaches different buyers by employing two or more different types of channels for the same basic product.

E. 

occurs when a retailer sells its product in a store and on the Internet.

 

62.

A commonly used indirect channel moves product from producer to retailer to consumer. This channel is used when 
 

A. 

the retail outlets are regionally located.

B. 

the cost of maintaining inventory is low.

C. 

there is little if any seasonal demand.

D. 

the risk lies solely with the manufacturer.

E. 

the retailer is large and can buy in large quantities from a producer.

 

63.

A commonly used indirect channel moves product from producer to retailer to consumer. This channel is used when 
 

A. 

the cost of maintaining inventory is low.

B. 

the cost of inventory makes it too expensive to use a wholesaler.

C. 

there is little if any seasonal demand.

D. 

the risk lies solely with the manufacturer.

E. 

the retail outlets are regionally located.

 

64.

The most indirect channel for consumer products incorporates agents, wholesalers, and retailers and is most commonly used when there 
 

A. 

are only a few large manufacturers but many small retailers.

B. 

are low-cost, low unit volume goods.

C. 

is too large an inventory to be carried by wholesalers.

D. 

are many small manufacturers and many small retailers.

E. 

are many manufacturers with a limited inventory competing for a small group of retailers.

 

65.

The most indirect marketing channel is employed where many intermediaries are used to help coordinate the distribution of the product. Which of the following products would most likely be marketed using this kind of channel? 
 

A. 

Aspen dental services

B. 

Toyota automobiles

C. 

Leslie pool supplies

D. 

Jaipur rugs made in India

E. 

Hershey's candy bars

 

66.

A small electronics company has begun production of a small line of high-quality, professional studio-model components targeted at audiophiles who shop at thousands of specialty stores across the United States. How should the small electronics company best distribute its new products? 
 

A. 

Use its established indirect marketing channel.

B. 

Distribute directly to mass market consumers.

C. 

Distribute through agents that sell to specialty electronics stores that will feature the new line.

D. 

Sell directly to specialty electronics stores that will feature the new line.

E. 

Establish its own chain of electronics retail stores.

 

67.

In marketing channels for business products, an intermediary that performs a variety of marketing channel functions including selling, stocking, delivering a full product assortment, and financing is referred to as 
 

A. 

an agent.

B. 

an industrial distributor.

C. 

a wholesaler.

D. 

a retailer.

E. 

a channel captain.

 

68.

An industrial distributor is 
 

A. 

an intermediary that performs a variety of marketing channel functions involving selling, stocking, delivering a full product assortment, and financing.

B. 

an intermediary that maintains its own sales force and performs all channel functions.

C. 

an intermediary that deals exclusively with the selling, stocking, and delivery of raw materials used by manufacturers in the production of its products.

D. 

an intermediary that deals with a single product line within a single industry.

E. 

an intermediary that performs functions involving selling, stocking, and delivery of industrial goods but is unable to provide financing due to the normally large expenditures.

 

69.

Industrial distributors perform functions that are most like which intermediary in the consumer products marketing channel? 
 

A. 

manufacturers

B. 

retailers

C. 

agents

D. 

wholesalers

E. 

brokers

 

70.

International Products, a Burlington, New Jersey, firm that sells industrial cleansers and lubricants, wanted to sell its product to factories, hospitals, and labs in China, but it did not have the necessary expertise. As a result, International Products hired Asia Marketing & Management to sell, stock, and deliver a full assortment of products to the Chinese market. Asia Marketing & Management is an example of 
 

A. 

an agent.

B. 

a wholesaler.

C. 

a global agent.

D. 

a retailer.

E. 

an industrial distributor.

 

71.

Internet marketing channels refers to 
 

A. 

the use of the Internet to make products and services available for consumption or use by consumers or organizational buyers.

B. 

a firm's computer-driven inventory management through an entirely mechanized warehousing system.

C. 

intranet systems linking all aspects of production within a single firm.

D. 

the information- and communication-based electronic exchange environment mostly occupied by sophisticated computer and telecommunication technologies and digitized offerings.

E. 

the name given to all Internet addresses that end in ".com" to indicate that these websites are commercial entities that distribute goods and services.

 

72.

Using the Internet to make products and services available for consumption or use by consumers or organizational buyers is referred to as 
 

A. 

electronic distribution channels.

B. 

virtual marketing channels.

C. 

World Wide Web networks.

D. 

Internet marketing channels.

E. 

Web 3.0 marketing channels.

 

73.

Which of the following products or services must typically be provided by traditional and not by Internet marketing channels? 
 

A. 

car rental reservations

B. 

software

C. 

medical surgery

D. 

music

E. 

education

 

74.

MachineTools.com sells grinders, boring mills, and engine lathes. Its website lists products from over 700 machinery manufacturers, 2,500 distributors of new equipment, and 650 dealers of used inventory for sale. MachineTools.com relies on a well-established channel of manufacturers, distributors, and machinery dealers to provide the merchandise that is sold through this 
 

A. 

electronic government channel.

B. 

virtual marketing channel.

C. 

World Wide Web network.

D. 

mediated channel.

E. 

Internet marketing channel.

 

75.

Allowing consumers to buy products by interacting with various advertising media without a face-to-face meeting with a salesperson is referred to as 
 

A. 

an indirect marketing channel.

B. 

a direct marketing channel.

C. 

a multimarketing channel.

D. 

a channel bypass marketing.

E. 

personal selling.

 

76.

Direct marketing channel refers to 
 

A. 

the distribution of products and services directly from the manufacturer's production site to end users.

B. 

the traditional chain of distribution from manufacturer to retailer to consumer.

C. 

the use of agents that represent a single producer and are responsible for the entire marketing function of that producer.

D. 

a method of distribution that allows consumers to buy products by interacting with various advertising media without a face-to-face meeting with a salesperson.

E. 

a method of distribution that allows consumers to buy products through direct personal interaction with the manufacturer's representatives in order to provide more personalized service.

 

77.

Mail order selling, catalog sales, telemarketing, interactive media, and televised home shopping are all examples of 
 

A. 

direct marketing channels.

B. 

indirect marketing channels.

C. 

multimedia marketing channels.

D. 

virtual marketing channels.

E. 

personal selling.

 

78.

When you order a sweater from an L.L. Bean mail-order catalog, what type of marketing channel are you and the company using? 
 

A. 

cash and carry marketing channel

B. 

intensive distribution channel

C. 

selective distribution channel

D. 

indirect marketing channel

E. 

direct marketing channel

 

79.

The blending of different communication and delivery channels that are mutually reinforcing in attracting, retaining, and building relationships with consumers who shop and buy in traditional intermediaries and online is referred to as 
 

A. 

direct marketing.

B. 

indirect marketing.

C. 

intensive marketing.

D. 

multichannel marketing.

E. 

electronic marketing.

 

80.

Multichannel marketing is the blending of different __________ that are mutually reinforcing in attracting, retaining, and building relationships with consumers who shop and buy in traditional intermediaries and online. 
 

A. 

pricing channels

B. 

distribution channels

C. 

communication and delivery channels

D. 

direct and indirect channels

E. 

communication channels

 

81.

Multichannel marketing seeks to integrate a firm's electronic and delivery channels. Catalogs can serve as shopping tools for online purchasing, and websites can help consumers do their homework before visiting a store. By blending different communication and delivery channels, multichannel marketing 
 

A. 

can leverage the value-adding capabilities of different channels.

B. 

creates greater elasticity of demand for a firm's products.

C. 

creates greater inelasticity of demand for a firm's products.

D. 

allows a firm to legally circumvent paying taxes on revenue generated by online sales.

E. 

allows customers to avoid shipping and handling charges.

 

82.

Multichannel marketing 
 

A. 

creates greater elasticity of demand for its products.

B. 

can leverage the value-adding capabilities of different channels.

C. 

creates greater inelasticity of demand for its product.

D. 

allows firms to legally circumvent paying taxes on revenue generated by online sales.

E. 

allow customers to avoid shipping and handling charges.

 

83.

An arrangement whereby a firm reaches different buyers by employing two or more different types of channels for the same basic product is referred to as 
 

A. 

a strategic channel alliance.

B. 

multiple level selling.

C. 

parallel distribution.

D. 

dual distribution.

E. 

recursive distribution.

 

84.

Dual distribution refers to 
 

A. 

a level of distribution density whereby a firm selects a few retailers in a specific geographical area to carry its products.

B. 

an arrangement whereby a firm reaches different buyers by employing two or more different types of channels for the same basic product.

C. 

the blending of different communication and delivery channels that are mutually reinforcing in attracting, retaining, and building relationships with consumers who shop and buy in traditional intermediaries and online.

D. 

professionally managed and centrally coordinated marketing channels designed to achieve channel economies and maximum marketing impact.

E. 

a practice whereby one firm's marketing channel is used to sell another firm's products.

 

85.

In some instances, firms pair multiple channels with a multibrand strategy. The purpose of this strategy is to __________ of the firm's family brand and differentiate its marketing channels. 
 

A. 

create greater perceived value

B. 

maximize channel profits

C. 

minimize cannibalization

D. 

generate awareness

E. 

create a "backup" channel

 

86.

Pharmaceutical companies sell some of their products to hospitals and clinics directly. They also market other products to large retail chains such as Walgreens that distribute them to their stores across the nation. In addition, they sell products to drug wholesalers that sell to the remaining independent drugstores in the United States. What method of distribution best describes the method used by pharmaceutical companies in this example? 
 

A. 

dual distribution

B. 

vertical distribution

C. 

horizontal distribution

D. 

direct distribution

E. 

exclusive distribution

 

87.

Rather than compete with large greeting card companies for shelf space in supermarkets, several smaller card companies place their cards in pack-and-ship stores where the customer can mail a card on the spur of the moment, and in racks in car washes where customers who are waiting for their cars can browse and purchase cards. This is an example of which type of marketing channel strategy? 
 

A. 

a strategic channel alliance

B. 

multichannel distribution

C. 

parallel distribution

D. 

dual distribution

E. 

direct distribution

 

88.

A practice whereby one firm's marketing channel is used to sell another firm's products is referred to as 
 

A. 

dual distribution.

B. 

cooperative distribution.

C. 

an integrated channel alliance.

D. 

a multichannel venture.

E. 

a strategic channel alliance.

 

89.

Strategic channel alliance refers to 
 

A. 

an arrangement whereby a firm reaches different buyers by employing two or more different types of channels for the same basic product.

B. 

a practice whereby one firm's marketing channel is used to sell another firm's products.

C. 

the blending of different communication and delivery channels that are mutually reinforcing in attracting, retaining, and building relationships with consumers who shop and buy in traditional intermediaries and online.

D. 

an arrangement whereby companies reduce distribution costs by sharing facilities, equipment, and transportation.

E. 

a practice whereby consumers can interact with various advertising media to buy products without a face-to-face meeting with a salesperson.

 

90.

Which type of marketing channel arrangement is especially good for a firm to use in global marketing where the creation of marketing channel relationships is expensive and time-consuming? 
 

A. 

dual distribution

B. 

cooperative distribution

C. 

strategic channel alliance

D. 

global distribution alliance

E. 

multichannel distribution

 

91.

Nestlé and General Mills have __________ to distribute General Mills products like Cheerios in about 140 markets worldwide. 
 

A. 

multichannel distribution

B. 

a direct marketing channel

C. 

a cooperative distribution channel

D. 

a strategic channel alliance

E. 

a dual distribution agreement

 

92.

Kraft Foods distributes Starbucks coffee in U.S. supermarkets and internationally. These firms are most likely using __________ strategy. 
 

A. 

multichannel distribution

B. 

a direct marketing channel

C. 

a cooperative distribution channel

D. 

a strategic channel alliance

E. 

a dual distribution agreement

 

93.

An example of __________ is when Kraft Foods uses the distribution system of Ajinomoto, a major Japanese food company, to market its Maxwell House coffee in Japan. 
 

A. 

a direct marketing channel

B. 

an industrial distribution system

C. 

a dual distribution system

D. 

a franchising operation

E. 

a strategic channel alliance

 

94.

CPW (Cereals Partners Worldwide) is a __________ designed from the start to be a global business. It joined the cereal manufacturing and marketing capability of General Mills with the distribution clout of Nestlé. 
 

A. 

dual distribution partnership

B. 

multichannel distribution system

C. 

cooperative distribution channel

D. 

strategic channel alliance

E. 

bilateral trade cooperative

 

95.

The General Mills-Nestlé strategic channel alliance 
 

A. 

increased the ready-to-eat cereal worldwide market share of these companies.

B. 

decreased the ready-to-eat cereal worldwide market share of these companies.

C. 

increased the ready-to-eat cereal market abroad and decreased General Mills' ready-to-eat cereal market in the United States.

D. 

served as a model for Post Cereal and Weetabix, a British firm.

E. 

resulted in a lawsuit from Kellogg's, the global leader in the ready-to-eat cereal market, which cited unfair trade practices.

 

96.

Professionally managed and centrally coordinated marketing channels designed to achieve channel economies and maximum marketing impact are referred to as 
 

A. 

integrated marketing systems.

B. 

horizontal marketing systems.

C. 

vertical marketing systems.

D. 

functional marketing systems.

E. 

cooperative marketing systems.

 

97.

Vertical marketing system refers to 
 

A. 

professionally managed geographically dispersed marketing channels designed to achieve channel economies and maximize marketing impact.

B. 

professionally managed and centrally coordinated marketing channels designed to achieve channel economies and maximum marketing impact.

C. 

retailer-sponsored cooperatives where small, independent retailers form an organization that operates a wholesale facility cooperatively.

D. 

professionally managed geographically dispersed marketing channels that are controlled through strategic channel alliances.

E. 

channel partnerships that share responsibility for ordering and physically distributing each other's products.

 

98.

The three major types of vertical marketing systems are administered, corporate, and 
 

A. 

integrated.

B. 

cooperative.

C. 

delegated.

D. 

manufacturer-dominated.

E. 

contractual.

 

99.

The three major types of vertical marketing systems are corporate, contractual, and 
 

A. 

administered.

B. 

integrated.

C. 

cooperative.

D. 

delegated.

E. 

manufacturer-dominated.

 

100.

Corporate vertical marketing system refers to 
 

A. 

small, independent retailers that form an organization that operates a wholesale facility cooperatively.

B. 

professionally managed geographically dispersed marketing channels that are controlled through strategic channel alliances.

C. 

the combination of successive stages of production and distribution under a single ownership.

D. 

professionally managed and centrally coordinated marketing channels designed to achieve channel economies and maximum marketing impact.

E. 

a contractual arrangement between a parent company and an individual or firm that allows the individual or firm to operate a certain type of business under an established name and according to specific rules.

 

101.

The combination of successive stages of production and distribution under a single ownership is referred to as 
 

A. 

a contractual vertical marketing system.

B. 

a corporate vertical marketing system.

C. 

an integrated marketing system.

D. 

a corporate horizontal marketing system.

E. 

a contractual horizontal marketing system.

 

102.

Which of the following statements regarding corporate vertical marketing systems is most accurate
 

A. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems can use either forward integration or backward integration but not both.

B. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems increase distribution costs.

C. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems increase investment but decrease fixed costs.

D. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems are only effective with low-end consumer products.

E. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems offer more control over supply sources or resale of products.

 

103.

Which of the following statements regarding corporate vertical marketing systems is most accurate
 

A. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems combine successive stages of production and distribution under shared ownership with all links in the marketing chain sharing title to the goods.

B. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems can incorporate both forward and backward integration.

C. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems increase distribution costs.

D. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems increase investment increases but decrease fixed costs.

E. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems are only effective with low-end consumer products.

 

104.

Which of the following statements regarding corporate vertical marketing systems is most accurate
 

A. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems combine successive stages of production and distribution under shared ownership with all links in the marketing chain sharing title to the goods.

B. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems can use forward integration or backward integration but not both.

C. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems increase distribution costs.

D. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems result in increased capital investments and fixed costs.

E. 

Corporate vertical marketing systems are only effective with low-end consumer products.

 

105.

A large company produces paint and other home decorating products. Its goal is to choose the best marketing channel arrangement that will give it the most control over supply sources. Which marketing channel system should this company choose? 
 

A. 

a contractual vertical marketing system

B. 

an administered vertical marketing system

C. 

a corporate vertical marketing system

D. 

an integrated marketing system

E. 

a corporate horizontal marketing system

 

106.

Cessna is considered the volume leader in the executive jet market. It has been described as "almost totally vertically integrated." This quote means that Cessna 
 

A. 

does not fall under the jurisdiction of any federal regulatory agency.

B. 

owns several of the entities that would make up the traditional marketing channel.

C. 

has eliminated economies of scale.

D. 

has achieved a high level of social responsibility.

E. 

uses outsourcing for all component parts and materials.

 

107.

A producer might own the intermediary at the next level down in a channel. This practice, called forward integration, is exemplified by Ralph Lauren, which manufactures clothing and also owns apparel shops. This is an example of  
 

A. 

a corporate vertical marketing system.

B. 

an integrated marketing system.

C. 

a contractual vertical marketing system.

D. 

a corporate horizontal marketing system.

E. 

a contractual horizontal marketing system.

 

108.

A new company produces paint and other home decorating products. Its goal is to choose the best marketing channel arrangement that would give it the most control. Which marketing channel system should this company choose? 
 

A. 

a contractual vertical marketing system

B. 

an administered vertical marketing system

C. 

a corporate vertical marketing system

D. 

an integrated marketing system

E. 

a corporate horizontal marketing system

 

109.

When a producer owns an intermediary at the next level down in the marketing channel, it is referred to as 
 

A. 

horizontal integration.

B. 

forward integration.

C. 

parallel integration.

D. 

lateral integration.

E. 

backward integration.

 

110.

Forward integration means 
 

A. 

a retailer owns a manufacturing operation.

B. 

a wholesaler owns a manufacturing operation.

C. 

retailers form a strategic channel alliance with manufacturers to purchase products at better prices since they are able to place much larger orders.

D. 

a producer owns an intermediary at the next level down in the marketing channel.

E. 

all links in the distribution chain own stock in the manufacturer's company.

 

111.

Apple now operates over 400 Apple Retail Stores around the world to sell its innovative products such as the iPhone and iPad. Apple uses 
 

A. 

dual distribution.

B. 

backward integration.

C. 

forward integration.

D. 

horizontal integration.

E. 

strategic channel alliances.

 

112.

When a retailer owns a manufacturing operation, it is referred to as 
 

A. 

forward integration.

B. 

lateral integration.

C. 

a joint venture.

D. 

horizontal integration.

E. 

backward integration.

 

113.

Tiffany & Co. manufactures about half of the fine jewelry items for sale in its stores and boutiques worldwide. Tiffany & Co. practices 
 

A. 

backward integration.

B. 

forward integration.

C. 

vertical integration.

D. 

joint venturing.

E. 

horizontal integration.

 

114.

A contractual vertical marketing system is an arrangement whereby 
 

A. 

privately owned distributors and retailers integrate their efforts, on a contractual basis, to obtain greater functional economies and marketing impact than they could achieve alone.

B. 

independent production and distribution firms integrate their efforts, on a contractual basis, to obtain greater functional economies and marketing impact than they could achieve alone.

C. 

a manufacturer offers a limited number of franchise licenses to restrict the number of franchisees within a given geographical region.

D. 

a firm reaches different buyers by employing two or more different types of channels for the same basic product.

E. 

a firm formally designates by contract one channel member—whether producer, wholesaler, or retailer—to coordinate, direct, and support all other channel members.

 

115.

There are three variations of contractual systems: wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains, retailer-sponsored cooperatives, and 
 

A. 

franchising.

B. 

service-oriented voluntary chains.

C. 

channel-dominated voluntary chains.

D. 

distributorship cooperatives.

E. 

reseller franchising.

 

116.

There are three variations of contractual systems: wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains, franchising, and 
 

A. 

service-oriented voluntary chains.

B. 

channel-dominated voluntary chains.

C. 

distributorship cooperatives.

D. 

retailer-sponsored cooperatives.

E. 

reseller franchising.

 

117.

There are three variations of contractual systems: retailer-sponsored cooperatives, franchising, and 
 

A. 

service-oriented voluntary chains.

B. 

channel-dominated voluntary chains.

C. 

wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains.

D. 

distributorship cooperatives.

E. 

reseller franchising.

 

118.

A vertical marketing system that involves a contractual relationship between a wholesaler and small independent retailers to standardize and coordinate buying practices, merchandising programs, and inventory management efforts is referred to as 
 

A. 

a service-sponsored retail franchise system.

B. 

a retailer-sponsored cooperative.

C. 

an administered vertical marketing system.

D. 

a manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise system.

E. 

a wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chain.

 

119.

IGA and Ben Franklin variety and craft stores are examples of 
 

A. 

service-sponsored retail systems.

B. 

wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains.

C. 

retailer-sponsored cooperatives.

D. 

administered cooperative systems.

E. 

manufacturer-sponsored cooperatives.

 

120.

Which type of contractual vertical marketing system involves small independent retailers forming an organization that operates a wholesale facility cooperatively? 
 

A. 

retailer-sponsored cooperative

B. 

service-sponsored retail system

C. 

administered cooperative system

D. 

manufacturer-sponsored cooperative

E. 

wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chain

 

121.

The arrangement in which small, independent retailers form an organization that operates a wholesale facility cooperatively is referred to as 
 

A. 

a service-sponsored retail system.

B. 

an administered cooperative system.

C. 

a manufacturer-sponsored cooperative.

D. 

a retailer-sponsored cooperative.

E. 

a wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chain.

 

122.

Retailer-sponsored cooperative refers to 
 

A. 

small, independent retailers forming an organization that operates a wholesale facility cooperatively.

B. 

a vertical marketing system that involves a contractual relationship between a wholesaler and small independent retailers to standardize and coordinate buying practices, merchandising programs, and inventory management.

C. 

an agreement among small, privately owned manufacturers to pool their resources by sharing installations, heavy equipment, and warehousing they would be unable to afford on their own.

D. 

an agreement among retailers to pool their resources by purchasing services such as signage, snow removal, and trash removal that affects the physical space (strip mall, etc.) they all share.

E. 

small, independent retailers that pool their resources to finance store expansion programs.

 

123.

Ace Hardware is a national __________ that allows its members, retailers of paint and hardware products, to concentrate their buying power through wholesalers and more importantly plan collaborative promotional and pricing activities. 
 

A. 

service-sponsored retail system

B. 

administered cooperative system

C. 

retailer-sponsored cooperative

D. 

manufacturer-sponsored cooperative

E. 

wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chain

 

124.

A contractual arrangement between a parent company and an individual or firm that allows the latter to operate a certain type of business under an established name and according to specific rules is referred to as 
 

A. 

a corporate vertical marketing system.

B. 

a wholesaler sponsored voluntary chain.

C. 

a retailer-sponsored cooperative.

D. 

franchising.

E. 

an administered vertical marketing system.

 

125.

Franchising refers to 
 

A. 

a contractual agreement between multiple retailers sharing the same business mission to operate with a consistent business model to not only achieve enhanced buying power but also increase customer loyalty.

B. 

a contractual arrangement between a parent company and an individual or firm that allows the latter to operate a certain type of business under an established name and according to specific rules.

C. 

purchasing the name, branding, and raw materials from one organization and transferring it to another.

D. 

a practice whereby one firm's marketing channel is used to sell another firm's product.

E. 

selling an idea to a larger company and letting it do all the manufacturing, distribution, and marketing.

 

126.

Franchising is one form of 
 

A. 

a corporate vertical marketing system.

B. 

a horizontal marketing system.

C. 

an administered vertical marketing system.

D. 

a wholesaler-sponsored voluntary system.

E. 

a contractual vertical marketing system.

 

127.

There are four popular types of franchising: (1) __________, (2) manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise systems, (3) service-sponsored retail franchise systems, and (4) service-sponsored franchise systems. 
 

A. 

contractual-sponsored franchise systems

B. 

wholesaler-sponsored franchise systems

C. 

manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise systems

D. 

horizontal-marketing franchise systems

E. 

customer-oriented franchise systems

 

128.

There are four popular types of franchising: (1) manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise systems, (2) __________, (3) service-sponsored retail franchise systems, and (4) service-sponsored franchise systems. 
 

A. 

service-sponsored retail franchise systems

B. 

manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise systems

C. 

horizontal-marketing franchise systems

D. 

contractual-sponsored franchise systems

E. 

customer-oriented franchise systems

 

129.

There are four popular types of franchising: (1) manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise systems, (2) manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise systems, (3) service-sponsored franchise systems, and (4) __________. 
 

A. 

service-sponsored retail franchise systems

B. 

wholesaler-sponsored franchise systems

C. 

horizontal-marketing franchise systems

D. 

contractual-sponsored franchise systems

E. 

customer-generated franchise systems

 

130.

The four most popular types of franchise arrangements are 
 

A. 

service-sponsored franchise systems, service-sponsored retail franchise systems, manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise systems, and manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise systems.

B. 

service-sponsored retail franchise systems, corporate vertical marketing systems, wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains, and service-sponsored franchise systems.

C. 

manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise systems, service-sponsored retail franchise systems, corporate vertical marketing systems, and wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains.

D. 

manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise systems, service-sponsored retail franchise systems, corporate vertical marketing systems, and wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains.

E. 

administered vertical marketing systems, service-sponsored retail franchise systems, corporate vertical marketing systems, and wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains.

 

131.

Ford uses __________, whereby the company licenses dealers in North America to sell Ford automobiles subject to various sales and service conditions. 
 

A. 

a service-sponsored producer franchise system

B. 

a service-sponsored retail franchise system

C. 

a manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise system

D. 

a manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise system

E. 

an administered vertical marketing system

 

132.

Jacob has developed a lawn care service that will revolutionize the lawn care industry. However, Jacob has limited operating capital and yet he still wants a wide distribution of his new product. Which of the following options would be the best choice for Jacob? 
 

A. 

He should develop an administered vertical marketing system.

B. 

He should establish a corporate vertical marketing system.

C. 

He should open branch offices around the country to provide the exposure he needs.

D. 

He should establish a wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chain.

E. 

He should establish a service-sponsored retail franchise system.

 

133.

In the automobile industry, many companies use a __________, whereby a manufacturer licenses dealers to sell its cars subject to various sales and service conditions. 
 

A. 

service-sponsored producer franchise system

B. 

service-sponsored retail franchise system

C. 

manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise system

D. 

manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise system

E. 

administered vertical marketing system

 

134.

A(n) __________ is common in the soft drink industry where the manufacturer sells its concentrate to wholesalers, that carbonate it and market the finished product to retailers. 
 

A. 

service-sponsored franchise system

B. 

service-sponsored retail franchise system

C. 

manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise system

D. 

manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise system

E. 

administered vertical marketing system

 

135.

Firms that have designed a unique approach for performing a service and wish to profit by selling the franchise to others employ 
 

A. 

a customer-generated franchising system.

B. 

a service-sponsored retail franchise system.

C. 

a manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise system.

D. 

a manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise system.

E. 

an administered vertical marketing systems.

 

136.

A(n) __________ exists when a franchisor licenses individuals or firms to dispense a service under a trade name and specific guidelines. 
 

A. 

service-sponsored retail franchise system

B. 

manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise system

C. 

manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise system

D. 

administered vertical marketing system

E. 

service-sponsored franchise system

 

137.

A(n) __________ is common in the employment services and tax services industries where franchisors license individuals or firms to dispense a service under a trade name and specific guidelines. 
 

A. 

service-sponsored franchise system

B. 

service-sponsored retail franchise system

C. 

manufacturer-sponsored wholesale franchise system

D. 

manufacturer-sponsored retail franchise system

E. 

administered vertical marketing system

 

138.

The type of vertical marketing system that achieves coordination at successive stages of production and distribution by the size and influence of one channel member rather than through ownership is referred to as 
 

A. 

a corporate vertical marketing system.

B. 

an integrated vertical marketing system.

C. 

a contractual vertical marketing system.

D. 

an administered vertical marketing system.

E. 

an interactive vertical marketing system.

 

139.

An administered vertical marketing system is a marketing system 
 

A. 

that achieves coordination at successive stages of production and distribution by contractual agreements between channel members.

B. 

that achieves coordination at successive stages of production and distribution by cooperation and consensus among all members of the marketing chain.

C. 

that achieves coordination at successive stages of production and distribution by the size and influence of one channel member rather than through ownership.

D. 

where a channel member (producer, wholesaler, or retailer) is elected to coordinate, direct, and support all other channel members.

E. 

that is run and coordinated completely outside the traditional chain of distribution by a firm that specializes in that industry's specific logistics needs.

 

140.

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a corporate vertical marketing system and an administered vertical marketing system? 
 

A. 

Administered vertical marketing systems gain power through ownership while corporate vertical marketing systems gain power through contractual agreement.

B. 

Administered vertical marketing systems gain power through the size and influence of one channel member and through ownership, rather than through contractual arrangement.

C. 

Administered vertical marketing systems gain power through contractual agreements and ownership rather than through size.

D. 

Administered vertical marketing systems are usually larger and more profitable than corporate vertical marketing systems.

E. 

Administered vertical marketing systems achieve coordination at successive stages of production and distribution by the size and influence of one channel member rather than through ownership.

 

141.

Procter & Gamble can obtain cooperation from supermarkets in terms of displaying, promoting, and pricing its products, given its broad assortment of brand-name products. Which type of vertical marketing system does Procter & Gamble represent? 
 

A. 

corporate vertical marketing system

B. 

integrated vertical marketing system

C. 

contractual vertical marketing system

D. 

administered vertical marketing system

E. 

forward integration vertical marketing system

 

142.

Walmart can obtain cooperation from manufacturers in terms of product specifications, price levels, and promotional support, given its position as the world's largest retailer. Walmart is an example of 
 

A. 

a service-sponsored retail system.

B. 

an administered vertical marketing system.

C. 

a retailer-sponsored cooperative.

D. 

an administered cooperative system.

E. 

a manufacturer-sponsored cooperative.

 

143.

When choosing a marketing channel or intermediary, it is important to ask three key questions: (1) Which channel and intermediaries will provide the best coverage of the target market? (2) Which channel and intermediaries will best satisfy the buying requirements of the target market? and (3) __________ 
 

A. 

How many of the firm's competitors will be using the same channels?

B. 

Which channels have strategic channel alliances with other resellers?

C. 

How long have the channel members and intermediaries been in business?

D. 

Who is responsible for negotiating the channel or intermediary contracts?

E. 

Which channel and intermediaries will be the most profitable?

 

144.

In terms of target market coverage, density refers to the number of __________ in a geographical area. 
 

A. 

target market customers

B. 

competitors

C. 

wholesalers

D. 

retail stores

E. 

stakeholders

 

145.

In marketing, the term __________ is used to describe the number of stores in a geographical area. 
 

A. 

density

B. 

breadth

C. 

depth

D. 

mass

E. 

concentration

 

146.

The three degrees of distribution density are 
 

A. 

intensive, extensive, and selective.

B. 

extensive, concentrated, and selective.

C. 

intensive, exclusive, and selective.

D. 

extensive, pervasive, and concentrated.

E. 

concentrated, exclusive, and intensive.

 

147.

When a firm tries to place its products or services in as many outlets as possible, the density of distribution is referred to as 
 

A. 

intensive distribution.

B. 

extensive distribution.

C. 

selective distribution.

D. 

exclusive distribution.

E. 

concentrated distribution.

 

148.

Intensive distribution refers to 
 

A. 

the distribution of products or services in markets where there are currently no other competitors.

B. 

the distribution of products or services where the producer owns the entire channel of distribution.

C. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services with only one retail outlet in a specified geographical area.

D. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services in as many outlets as possible.

E. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services in a few retail outlets in a specific area.

 

149.

Candy bars most likely should be sold using which type of target market coverage? 
 

A. 

exclusive distribution

B. 

direct distribution

C. 

intensive distribution

D. 

dual distribution

E. 

selective distribution

 

150.

Breath mints, bottled water, and newspapers most likely would use which type of distribution density? 
 

A. 

extensive distribution

B. 

intensive distribution

C. 

selective distribution

D. 

exclusive distribution

E. 

concentrated distribution

 

151.

When only one retailer in a geographical area carries a firm's products, the density of distribution is referred to as 
 

A. 

intensive distribution.

B. 

extensive distribution.

C. 

selective distribution.

D. 

concentrated distribution.

E. 

exclusive distribution.

 

152.

Exclusive distribution refers to 
 

A. 

the distribution of products or services in markets where there are currently no other competitors.

B. 

the distribution of products or services where the producer owns the entire channel of distribution.

C. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services with only one retail outlet in a specified geographical area.

D. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services in as many outlets as possible.

E. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services in a few retail outlets in a specific area.

 

153.

There are three degrees of distribution density—one of these is intensive distribution. What is the extreme opposite of this degree of distribution density? 
 

A. 

exhaustive distribution

B. 

thorough distribution

C. 

selective distribution

D. 

concentrated distribution

E. 

exclusive distribution

 

154.

Retailers and industrial distributors prefer exclusive distribution for two reasons. One is that 
 

A. 

it is the most common form of distribution intensity.

B. 

it eliminates channel conflict.

C. 

it is usually chosen for convenience.

D. 

it has market coverage benefits.

E. 

it limits head-to-head competition for an identical product.

 

155.

Retailers and industrial distributors prefer exclusive distribution for two reasons. One is that 
 

A. 

it provides a point of difference for a retailer or distributor.

B. 

it eliminates channel conflict.

C. 

it is usually chosen for convenience.

D. 

it has market coverage benefits.

E. 

it is the most common form of distribution intensity.

 

156.

John Deere manufactures and distributes industrial and farm equipment. This type of equipment is considered to be a specialty product. Which type of market coverage does John Deere most likely use? 
 

A. 

intensive distribution

B. 

exclusive distribution

C. 

extensive distribution

D. 

selective distribution

E. 

private label distribution

 

157.

Bentley Motors makes one of the world's most prestigious automobile brands, targeting the ultra-luxury segment. Which type of market coverage does Bentley most likely use? 
 

A. 

intensive distribution

B. 

extensive distribution

C. 

selective distribution

D. 

exclusive distribution

E. 

private label distribution

 

158.

Which type of distribution density does Rolls-Royce use when the car manufacturer maintains only one dealership in any large metropolitan area? 
 

A. 

exclusive distribution

B. 

intensive distribution

C. 

extensive distribution

D. 

selective distribution

E. 

private label distribution

 

159.

Which type of distribution density does Piaget use when the maker of fine jewelry and watches distributes its products through a single retailer in select cities in the United States? 
 

A. 

intensive distribution

B. 

extensive distribution

C. 

selective distribution

D. 

exclusive distribution

E. 

private label distribution

 

160.

Manufacturers most likely would use exclusive distribution for which of the following products? 
 

A. 

Timex watches, Hanes underwear, and Nike shoes

B. 

Chanel perfume, Steinway pianos, and Baccarat crystal

C. 

Oreos, Teddy Grahams, and Nilla Wafers

D. 

paper clips, light bulbs, and file folders

E. 

Lean Cuisine meals, Breyer's Ice Cream, and Coca-Cola

 

161.

A level of distribution density whereby a firm tries to place its products in a few retail outlets in a specific geographical area is referred to as 
 

A. 

intensive distribution.

B. 

extensive distribution.

C. 

selective distribution.

D. 

exclusive distribution.

E. 

concentrated distribution.

 

162.

Selective distribution refers to 
 

A. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services in as many outlets as possible.

B. 

the distribution of products or services in markets where there are currently no other competitors.

C. 

the distribution of products or services where the producer owns the entire channel of distribution.

D. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services with only one retail outlet in a specified geographical area.

E. 

the density of distribution whereby a firm tries to place its products or services in a few retail outlets in a specific area.

 

163.

Which type of distribution lies between the two distribution extremes and means that a firm selects a few retail outlets in a specific geographical area to carry its products? 
 

A. 

intensive distribution

B. 

extensive distribution

C. 

exclusive distribution

D. 

selective distribution

E. 

concentrated distribution

 

164.

The distribution intensity associated with products such as Dell's personal computers is referred to as 
 

A. 

intensive distribution.

B. 

selective distribution.

C. 

extensive distribution.

D. 

exclusive distribution.

E. 

concentrated distribution.

 

165.

Which is the most common form of distribution intensity used today? 
 

A. 

selective distribution

B. 

intensive distribution

C. 

extensive distribution

D. 

exclusive distribution

E. 

concentrated distribution

 

166.

In choosing the appropriate marketing channel, a firm should consider the interests that buyers might want fulfilled. These interests fall into four broad categories: (1) __________, (2) convenience, (3) variety, and (4) pre- or postsale services. 
 

A. 

profitability

B. 

information

C. 

quality

D. 

brand name recognition

E. 

availability

 

167.

In choosing the appropriate marketing channel, a firm should consider the interests that buyers might want fulfilled. These interests fall into four broad categories: (1) information, (2) convenience, (3) __________, and (4) pre- or postsale services. 
 

A. 

availability

B. 

quality

C. 

variety

D. 

brand name recognition

E. 

adaptability

 

168.

In choosing the appropriate marketing channel, a firm should consider the interests that buyers might want fulfilled. These interests fall into four broad categories: (1) information, (2) convenience, (3) variety, and (4) __________. 
 

A. 

availability

B. 

quality

C. 

brand name recognition

D. 

price

E. 

pre- or postsale services

 

169.

All of the following are buyer requirements for choosing a marketing channel except 
 

A. 

pre- or postsale services.

B. 

convenience.

C. 

variety.

D. 

profitability.

E. 

information.

 

170.

The most important consideration in choosing a marketing channel when buyers have limited knowledge or desire specific data about a product or service is to provide 
 

A. 

postsale services.

B. 

seller adaptability.

C. 

information.

D. 

convenience.

E. 

presale services.

 

171.

Which buyer requirement would be most important in choosing a channel for a financial service for a consumer who is interested in setting up a retirement account? 
 

A. 

information

B. 

context

C. 

variety

D. 

pre- and postsale services

E. 

adaptation

 

172.

Most Apple retail stores have a Genius Bar staffed with highly trained personnel who can help customers with their purchases of iPads, iPhones, and other Apple products and services. Which buying requirement is Apple satisfying with its Genius Bar? 
 

A. 

context

B. 

information

C. 

variety

D. 

pre- and postsale services

E. 

adaptation

 

173.

Driving time, proximity, and hours of operation for stores, and the usability of a website are all examples of which buyer requirement? 
 

A. 

information

B. 

variety

C. 

pre- or postsale services

D. 

adaptability

E. 

convenience

 

174.

By promising to change engine oil and filters quickly, Jiffy Lube is appealing to which buyer requirement? 
 

A. 

information

B. 

convenience

C. 

variety

D. 

pre- or postsale services

E. 

adaptability

 

175.

Customer convenience is an important consideration when choosing a marketing channel. A commonly held view among website developers is the "__________" where consumers will abandon their efforts to enter or navigate a website if download time exceeds this amount of time. 
 

A. 

five-second rule

B. 

six-second rule

C. 

seven-second rule

D. 

eight-second rule

E. 

10-second rule

 

176.

Channels are typically designed to satisfy one or more of four consumer buying requirements. When a membership book club allows its members to use the Internet to notify the company that they want to receive the next month's issue, the book club is appealing to which buyer requirement? 
 

A. 

information

B. 

convenience

C. 

variety

D. 

pre- or post-sale services

E. 

adaptability

 

177.

Buyers are interested in having numerous competing and complementary items from which to choose. The buyer requirement for __________ is satisfied through the breadth and depth of products and brands that intermediaries carry. 
 

A. 

information

B. 

convenience

C. 

variety

D. 

pre- or postsale services

E. 

adaptability

 

178.

Tylenol and Advil are two manufacturers of over-the-counter products for ailments such as colds, headaches, sore throats, arthritis aches, fever, and general pain. Both manufacturers seek distribution of their products through pharmacies such as Walgreens and CVS. These companies seek channels and intermediaries that will satisfy a buyer's desire for 
 

A. 

variety.

B. 

information.

C. 

pre-or postsale service.

D. 

convenience.

E. 

adaptability.

 

179.

Items such as large household appliances that require installation, delivery, and credit demonstrate the buyer requirement of 
 

A. 

information.

B. 

convenience.

C. 

variety.

D. 

pre- or postsale services.

E. 

adaptability.

 

180.

One consideration in choosing a marketing channel is profitability, which is determined by the margins earned for each channel member and for the channel as a whole. Based on this information, which of the following statements would be most accurate
 

A. 

The more responsibilities a channel member takes in terms of distribution, advertising, and selling expenses, the greater the potential for manufacturer profitability.

B. 

The more responsibilities the manufacturer assumes relative to its channel members, the greater the potential for profitability.

C. 

The extent to which channel members share costs determines the margins received by each member and by the channel as a whole.

D. 

While channel members can increase profitability by taking on distribution and selling expenses, advertising expenses should always remain with the manufacturer if a firm is looking for the greatest profitability.

E. 

Profitability is not related to the length or nature of the distribution chain but determined by the manufacturer.

 

181.

When one channel member believes another channel member is engaged in behavior that prevents it from achieving its goals, it is referred to as 
 

A. 

distributor dissension.

B. 

marketing channel discord.

C. 

partnership divergence.

D. 

channel conflict.

E. 

channel dissonance.

 

182.

Channel conflict refers to 
 

A. 

disagreements over the trade discounts allotted to each level of the distribution chain by the Federal Trade Commission.

B. 

regulatory restrictions limiting the number of distributors that can sell a producer's products.

C. 

when one channel member believes another channel member is engaged in behavior that prevents it from achieving its goals.

D. 

when one distributor carries two competing brands.

E. 

when the producer doesn't allow other channel members to have input regarding product specifications or benefits.

 

183.

The two types of channel conflict are 
 

A. 

wholesaler and retailer.

B. 

horizontal and vertical.

C. 

transactional and promotional.

D. 

external and internal.

E. 

producer and consumer.

 

184.

Which of the following types of vertical marketing systems is least likely to experience channel conflict? 
 

A. 

corporate vertical marketing system

B. 

wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chain

C. 

retailer-sponsored cooperative

D. 

franchise system

E. 

administered vertical marketing system

 

185.

Conflict that occurs between two different levels in a marketing channel is referred to as 
 

A. 

lateral conflict.

B. 

horizontal conflict.

C. 

vertical conflict.

D. 

distributor conflict.

E. 

contractual conflict.

 

186.

Vertical conflict is conflict that occurs between 
 

A. 

two members in the same level of a marketing channel.

B. 

two different levels in a marketing channel.

C. 

members of upper management who make the marketing channel decisions and lower management who must implement these decisions.

D. 

a firm's and its customers' goals.

E. 

two producers of the same product vying for the same distribution channel members.

 

187.

Which of the following would be a source of vertical conflict? 
 

A. 

Foot Locker decides to open a retail outlet next to a Nike store in a shopping mall.

B. 

A restaurant serves both Coke and Pepsi to its patrons.

C. 

Ansible Technologies Ltd. sells its portable planetariums to both colleges and high schools.

D. 

Microsoft provides HP laptops more prominent point-of-purchase locations in its retail stores than comparable laptops from Sony.

E. 

Long John Silver's decides to serve grilled burgers in addition to seafood.

 

188.

Channel conflict that arises when one member bypasses another member and sells or buys products directly is referred to as 
 

A. 

horizontal conflict.

B. 

channel circumvention.

C. 

lateral conflict.

D. 

disintermediation.

E. 

dual distribution.

 

189.

Disintermediation refers to channel conflict that arises when 
 

A. 

a channel member severs relationships with other channel members to work for or with a competing manufacturer.

B. 

channel conflicts are resolved by a third party.

C. 

a channel member bypasses another member and sells or buys products directly.

D. 

channel conflicts are resolved through a binding arbitration from a panel of representatives from all channel members involved.

E. 

the entire distribution chain is eliminated, when a company sets up its own wholesaler and retailer network.

 

190.

While Maytag appliances have the leading brand name, its sales are third in the industry. One of the things the company has done to spur sales is to create a website where potential customers can find the answers to the questions they ask during the appliance purchase process. Although Maytag considered using a __________ strategy by directing customers to Maytag appliance stores it owns, the firm decided against it and simply chose to provide the names and addresses of all the retailers (Sears, Home Depot, etc.) that carry Maytag appliances. 
 

A. 

horizontal channel

B. 

strategic channel alliance

C. 

dual distribution

D. 

cross-docking

E. 

disintermediation

 

191.

Conflict occurring between intermediaries at the same level in a marketing channel, such as between two or more retailers that carry the same manufacturer's brands, is referred to as 
 

A. 

horizontal conflict.

B. 

corporate conflict.

C. 

vertical conflict.

D. 

lateral conflict.

E. 

contractual conflict.

 

192.

Horizontal conflict refers to conflict that occurs between 
 

A. 

two different levels in a marketing channel.

B. 

members of upper management who make the marketing channel decisions and lower management who must implement these decisions.

C. 

two producers of the same product vying for the same distribution channel members.

D. 

two members in the same level of a marketing channel.

E. 

a firm's and its customers' goals.

 

193.

Two sources of horizontal conflict are common, including when 
 

A. 

a manufacturer increases its distribution coverage in a geographical area.

B. 

disagreements arise over how profit margins are distributed among channel members.

C. 

manufacturers believe wholesalers or retailers are not giving their products adequate attention.

D. 

a channel member bypasses another member and sells or buys products direct.

E. 

dual distribution causes conflict when similar types of retailers carry different brands.

 

194.

Two sources of horizontal conflict are common, including when 
 

A. 

a manufacturer decreases its distribution coverage in a geographical area from intensive to selective.

B. 

disagreements arise over how profit margins are distributed among channel members.

C. 

manufacturers believe wholesalers or retailers are not giving their products adequate attention.

D. 

a channel member bypasses another member and sells or buys products direct.

E. 

dual distribution causes conflict when different types of retailers carry the same brands.

 

195.

Goodyear Tire dealers became irate when Goodyear Tire Co. decided to sell its brands through Sears, Walmart, and Sam's Club. Many switched to competing tire makers. This is an example of 
 

A. 

corporate conflict.

B. 

vertical conflict.

C. 

horizontal conflict.

D. 

administered conflict.

E. 

contractual conflict.

 

196.

All the following sources produce channel conflict except 
 

A. 

a manufacturer increases its distribution coverage in a geographical area.

B. 

a channel member bypasses another member and sells or buys products directly.

C. 

disagreements over how profit margins are distributed among channel members.

D. 

manufacturers believe wholesalers or retailers are not giving their products adequate attention.

E. 

a channel member wants to use vendor-managed inventory.

 

197.

A channel member (producer, wholesaler, or retailer) who coordinates, directs, and supports other channel members is referred to as a 
 

A. 

channel champion.

B. 

channel general.

C. 

channel captain.

D. 

channel director.

E. 

channel coordinator.

 

198.

A channel captain is 
 

A. 

a member of a distribution channel that takes control through hegemony (power is not assigned, but assumed).

B. 

a channel member (producer, wholesaler, or retailer) that coordinates, directs, and supports other channel members.

C. 

a channel team member known for expertise in cutting through red tape.

D. 

a person responsible for implementing a firm's mission statement, linking all members of the marketing channel through a common goal.

E. 

the person with greatest authority who represents his or her channel in the distribution chain.

 

199.

A firm becomes a channel captain because it is the channel member with the ability to influence the behavior of other members. Influence can take four forms, one of which is 
 

A. 

economic influence.

B. 

stakeholder position.

C. 

familial ties to other channel members.

D. 

longevity in the industry.

E. 

geographic proximity to the manufacturing plant.

 

200.

A firm becomes a channel captain because it is the channel member with the ability to influence the behavior of other members. Influence can take four forms, one of which is 
 

A. 

stakeholder position.

B. 

familial ties to other channel members.

C. 

expertise.

D. 

longevity in the industry.

E. 

geographic proximity to the manufacturing plant.

 

201.

A firm becomes a channel captain because it is the channel member with the ability to influence the behavior of other members. Influence can take four forms, one of which is 
 

A. 

stakeholder position.

B. 

familial ties to other channel members.

C. 

longevity in the industry.

D. 

identification with a particular channel member.

E. 

geographic proximity to the manufacturing plant.

 

202.

Walmart is a channel captain because of its strong image, number of outlets, and purchasing volume. The source of Walmart's power is its 
 

A. 

economic influence.

B. 

expertise.

C. 

identification with a particular channel member.

D. 

legitimate rights through contracts.

E. 

political connections.

 

203.

American Hospital Supply helps its customers (hospitals) manage inventory and streamline order processing for hundreds of medical supplies. The source of American Hospital Supply's power is its 
 

A. 

economic influence.

B. 

expertise.

C. 

identification with a particular channel member.

D. 

legitimate rights through contracts.

E. 

governmental contracts.

 

204.

Neiman Marcus is a retailer with which many small manufacturers would like to be associated. A product placement in Neiman Marcus will increase the prestige of a smaller brand. The source of Neiman Marcus' power is its 
 

A. 

economic influence.

B. 

expertise.

C. 

identification with a particular channel member.

D. 

legitimate rights through contracts.

E. 

longevity as an upscale retailer.

 

205.

Bombardier is the leading marketer of corporate jets. Its brand name is well known and respected in the corporate jet market. The aircraft company relies on outside suppliers for design support and to share development costs and market risks, but Bombardier is considered the leader in determining design and marketing of its planes. For its newest plane, Bombardier has about 30 prime suppliers, and about 10 of those have been involved since the initial design phase. Bombardier is an example of a 
 

A. 

product champion.

B. 

channel general.

C. 

channel director.

D. 

channel coordinator.

E. 

channel captain.

 

206.

Sports Port, a motorcycle and fishing boat retailer located in a small northern Minnesota town, was the world's largest dealer for Crestliner fishing boats. To meet the demand of his many customers, the owner of Sports Port works with a wide variety of channel members, ranging from the manufacturer of the boats to trucking firms, other retailers, and even detailers (firms that clean, polish, and wax boats). Such a diverse channel of distribution often resulted in channel conflict. However, due to his strong consumer following, the owner of Sports Port had the power to resolve disputes between channel members. The owner of Sports Port serves as the __________ in the channel of distribution. 
 

A. 

wholesaler

B. 

producer

C. 

channel spokesperson

D. 

channel captain

E. 

channel arbitrator

 

207.

The __________ and the Justice Department monitor channel practices that restrain competition, create monopolies, or otherwise represent unfair methods of competition under the provisions of the Clayton Act or the Sherman Act. 
 

A. 

Consumer Product Safety Commission

B. 

Better Business Bureau

C. 

Federal Trade Commission

D. 

American Marketing Association

E. 

Department of Commerce

 

208.

The Federal Trade Commission and the Justice Department monitor channel practices that __________, create monopolies, or otherwise represent unfair methods of competition under the Sherman Act (1890) and the Clayton Act (1914). 
 

A. 

suggest patent infringement

B. 

restrain competition

C. 

connect channel members

D. 

use coercive or suggestive advertising

E. 

manipulate public opinion

 

209.

The __________ specifically prohibits exclusive dealing and tying arrangements when they lessen competition or create monopolies. 
 

A. 

Sherman Act

B. 

Robinson-Patman Act

C. 

Federal Trade Commission Act

D. 

Clayton Act

E. 

Consumer Goods Pricing Act

 

210.

The __________ has been used to prosecute resale restrictions, which are a supplier's attempt to stipulate to whom distributors may resell the supplier's products and in what specific geographical areas or territories they may be sold. 
 

A. 

Sherman Act

B. 

Robinson-Patman Act

C. 

Federal Trade Commission Act

D. 

Clayton Act

E. 

Consumer Goods Pricing Act

 

211.

The Clayton Act prohibits, restricts, or influences all of the following channel strategies and practices except 
 

A. 

exclusive dealing.

B. 

refusal to deal.

C. 

resale restrictions.

D. 

vertical integration.

E. 

full-line forcing.

 

212.

Dual distribution is considered illegal if 
 

A. 

both channels are corporately owned.

B. 

one channel is a direct channel and the other is not.

C. 

channels are operated from two different states.

D. 

there is an attempt by a manufacturer to lessen competition by eliminating wholesalers or retailers.

E. 

the prices charged consumers differ as a result of the channel in which they were making their purchases.

 

213.

When developing a distribution strategy, marketers should avoid the anticompetitive attempts to eliminate wholesalers or retailers if they want to avoid the possibility of violating the __________ provisions of the Clayton Act or the Sherman Act. 
 

A. 

resale restrictions

B. 

tying arrangements

C. 

exclusive dealing

D. 

refusal to deal

E. 

dual distribution

 

214.

Dual distribution can violate the Sherman Act and the Clayton Act if the 
 

A. 

prices charged for items sold through one channel are different from the prices charged for the same items in another channel.

B. 

manufacturer's behavior is viewed as lessening competition by eliminating wholesalers or retailers.

C. 

manufacturer has a corporate vertical marketing system with one channel and an administered vertical system with the other.

D. 

manufacturer uses both a direct and indirect marketing channel.

E. 

product is not available through more than one marketing channel.

 

215.

Vertical integration can lead to legal prosecution if 
 

A. 

there is potential to lessen competition or create a monopoly.

B. 

mergers create too much competition.

C. 

a corporate vertical system attempts to become a contractual vertical marketing system.

D. 

an administered vertical system attempts to become a corporate vertical marketing system.

E. 

one member of the channel attempts to take the position of channel captain away from another.

 

216.

Some manufacturers have tried to use the brand loyalty of their consumers to force retailers to carry only their products and none from their competitors. These manufacturers were trying to force retailers to participate in a practice known as 
 

A. 

a resale restriction.

B. 

a vertical integration.

C. 

an exclusive dealing.

D. 

a refusal to deal.

E. 

a tying arrangement.

 

217.

A tying arrangement exists if a supplier requires 
 

A. 

a distributor purchasing some products to buy others from the supplier.

B. 

channel members to sell only its products or restricts distributors from selling directly competitive products.

C. 

distributors to resell the supplier's products and specifies geographical areas or territories.

D. 

a channel member to sell only its products.

E. 

a channel member to finance all loans through the supplier's bank.

 

218.

Full-line forcing is a special kind of __________. This practice involves a supplier requiring that a channel member carry its full line of products in order to sell a specific item in the supplier's line. 
 

A. 

resale restriction

B. 

vertical integration

C. 

exclusive dealing

D. 

refusal to deal

E. 

tying arrangement

 

219.

__________ is a special kind of tying arrangement. This practice involves a supplier requiring that a channel member carry its full line of products in order to sell a specific item in the supplier's line. 
 

A. 

Resale restriction

B. 

Full-line forcing

C. 

Vertical integration

D. 

Exclusive dealing

E. 

Refusal to deal

 

220.

A fast-food franchisee is required by its franchisor to buy unmarked plastic eating utensils from the franchisor if the franchisee wants to use the cups, napkins, and other paper products with the franchise logo. The franchisee can buy the identical utensils from a local supplier for half the price. This requirement would be an example of 
 

A. 

a dual distribution network.

B. 

a refusal to deal.

C. 

an exclusive dealing.

D. 

a tying arrangement.

E. 

a resale restriction.

 

221.

Questions of legality regarding tying arrangements and exclusive dealing would most likely occur in 
 

A. 

corporate vertical marketing systems.

B. 

administered vertical marketing systems.

C. 

franchises.

D. 

horizontal marketing systems.

E. 

retail-sponsored cooperatives.

 

222.

A refusal to deal with existing channel members may be illegal under the 
 

A. 

Robinson-Patman Act.

B. 

Sherman Act.

C. 

Federal Trade Commission Act.

D. 

Consumer Goods Pricing Act.

E. 

Clayton Act.

 

223.

Under the Clayton Act, __________ with existing channel members may be illegal. 
 

A. 

a refusal to cooperate

B. 

a refusal to deal

C. 

sharing proprietary information

D. 

horizontal integration

E. 

disintermediation

 

224.

A(n) __________ is a supplier's attempt to stipulate to whom distributors may resell the supplier's products and in what specific geographical areas or territories they may sell. 
 

A. 

oligopolistic practice

B. 

monopolistic practice

C. 

refusal to deal

D. 

tying arrangement

E. 

resale restriction

 

225.

A supplier's attempt to stipulate to whom distributors may resell the supplier's products and in what specific geographical areas or territories they may sell is referred to as 
 

A. 

full-line forcing.

B. 

exclusive dealing.

C. 

a refusal to deal.

D. 

a resale restriction.

E. 

a tying arrangement.

 

226.

Resale restrictions exist if a supplier 
 

A. 

requires a channel member to sell only its products.

B. 

requires a channel member to finance all loans through the supplier's bank.

C. 

attempts to stipulate to whom distributors may resell the supplier's products and in what specific geographical areas or territories they may be sold.

D. 

attempts to sell used or pre-owned products as new.

E. 

attempts to sell used products that have expired or will soon become obsolete without informing the buyer.

 

227.

Resale restrictions have been prosecuted under the 
 

A. 

Robinson-Patman Act.

B. 

Sherman Act.

C. 

Federal Trade Commission Act.

D. 

Consumer Goods Pricing Act.

E. 

Clayton Act.

 

228.

Resale restrictions have been prosecuted under the Sherman Act. Today, however, the courts apply the __________ in such cases and consider whether such restrictions have a "demonstrable economic effect." 
 

A. 

laissez-faire rule

B. 

caveat emptor principle

C. 

rule of reason

D. 

invisible hand standard

E. 

FTC Act provision

 

229.

A marketing channel relies on __________ to make products available to consumers and industrial users. 
 

A. 

logistics

B. 

strategic distribution

C. 

strategic marketing planning

D. 

supply chains

E. 

value chain optimization

 

230.

Those activities that focus on getting the right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time at the lowest possible cost are referred to as 
 

A. 

strategic distribution.

B. 

distribution management.

C. 

tactical marketing planning.

D. 

value chain optimization.

E. 

logistics.

 

231.

Activities that focus on getting the right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time at the lowest possible cost are referred to as 
 

A. 

sensitivity.

B. 

distribution.

C. 

logistics.

D. 

direct selling.

E. 

warehousing.

 

232.

Logistics refers to 
 

A. 

an inventory management system where the supplier determines the product amount and assortment a retailer needs and automatically delivers the appropriate items.

B. 

mathematical formulas and calculations used in determining product volume and demand in order to generate the greatest revenue at the lowest cost.

C. 

the sequence of firms that performs activities required to create and deliver a product or service to ultimate consumers or industrial users.

D. 

activities that focus on getting the right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time at the lowest possible cost.

E. 

a specialized intermediary in the distribution chain responsible for the coordination of all production schedules.

 

233.

Logistics is most closely related to which element of the marketing mix? 
 

A. 

product

B. 

place

C. 

production

D. 

promotion

E. 

price

 

234.

Johnson Controls can receive an order for automobile seats from Ford and deliver the order four hours later, beginning with raw materials and ending with delivery of the finished seats to Ford. As used by Johnson Controls, logistics 
 

A. 

creates utilities for Ford.

B. 

provides Ford with a cost-effective dual distribution system.

C. 

increases the number of steps in the value proposition creation process.

D. 

includes the role of Johnson Controls as a channel captain.

E. 

does not influence Ford's supply chain.

 

235.

Reductions in delivery times in both the marketplace and the supply chain have earned firms such as Toyota and Xerox a reputation as "time-based competitors." For Toyota and Xerox, logistics 
 

A. 

increases their customers' inventory levels.

B. 

increases the number of steps in their manufacturing processes.

C. 

includes the role of Toyota and Xerox as channel captains.

D. 

creates time and place utility for their customers.

E. 

does not influence their suppliers' supply chains.

 

236.

A few years ago, Benetton delivered new styles to its worldwide stores once a month. Today, it replenishes its racks once a week. Getting the fashions to its retailers more quickly means that effectively using logistics has increased Benetton's market share by providing 
 

A. 

larger lots of available inventory for its retailers.

B. 

time and place utility for its customers.

C. 

increased steps in the value proposition creation process.

D. 

technological advances leading to greater customer information.

E. 

increased customer traffic.

 

237.

The practice of organizing the cost-effective flow of raw materials, in-process inventory, finished goods, and related information from point of origin to point of consumption to satisfy customer requirements is referred to as 
 

A. 

the inventory management process.

B. 

logistics management.

C. 

production management.

D. 

manufacturer distribution logistics.

E. 

supply-chain management.

 

238.

Logistics management refers to 
 

A. 

the practice of organizing the cost-effective flow of raw materials, in-process inventory, finished goods, and related information from point of origin to point of consumption to satisfy customer requirements.

B. 

the integration and organization of information and logistics activities across firms in a supply chain for the purpose of creating and delivering products and services that provide value to ultimate consumers.

C. 

the integration and organization of information and logistical activities that actively bring consumers together with sellers through the express use of agents and brokers.

D. 

systems that are designed to reduce a retailer's lead time for receiving merchandise, which then lowers a retailer's inventory investment, improves customer service levels, and reduces logistics expense.

E. 

proprietary computer and telecommunication technologies used to exchange electronic invoices, payments, and information among suppliers, manufacturers, wholesalers, and retailers.

 

239.

The word flow as it relates to the definition of logistics management refers to decisions needed to move 
 

A. 

raw materials to the producer.

B. 

semi-finished materials to a merchant wholesaler.

C. 

finished products to the distributor.

D. 

finished products directly from the producer to the retailer.

E. 

a product from the source of raw materials to consumption.

 

240.

The word cost-effective as it relates to the definition of logistics management implies that 
 

A. 

while it is important to drive down logistics costs, all channel members must equally benefit financially or the chain will not function effectively.

B. 

speed of delivery must be measured against increased savings.

C. 

while it is important to drive down logistics costs, customer buying requirements must be a part of the equation.

D. 

the need for multiple carriers always results in lower profit margins and therefore should be avoided.

E. 

the choice of intermediaries should be made on their ability to perform their tasks efficiently even if additional costs must be passed on to the consumer.

 

241.

A firm needs to drive down logistics costs as long as it can deliver expected 
 

A. 

balance sheet results.

B. 

customer service.

C. 

low levels of expenses.

D. 

product-market synergies.

E. 

target market goals.

 

242.

The various firms involved in performing the activities required to create and deliver a product or service to ultimate consumers or industrial users are referred to as 
 

A. 

strategic distribution.

B. 

distribution management.

C. 

a supply chain.

D. 

value chain optimization.

E. 

logistics.

 

243.

Supply chain refers to 
 

A. 

the various firms involved in performing the activities required to create and deliver a product or service to ultimate consumers or industrial users.

B. 

an inventory management system where the supplier determines the product amount and assortment a retailer needs and automatically delivers the appropriate items.

C. 

mathematical formulas and calculations used in determining product volume and demand in order to generate the greatest revenue at the lowest cost.

D. 

activities that focus on getting the right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time at the lowest possible cost.

E. 

a specialized intermediary in the distribution chain responsible for the coordination of all production schedules.

 

244.

Which of the following statements best describes how a supply chain differs from a marketing channel? 
 

A. 

Communication is more important in the marketing channel than in the supply chain.

B. 

The marketing channel places more emphasis on cost-effectiveness than the supply chain.

C. 

A marketing channel includes suppliers that provide raw material inputs to a manufacturer.

D. 

A supply network moves materials from producer to consumer while a marketing channel moves materials from the supplier to the producer.

E. 

A supply chain includes suppliers; marketing channels do not.

 

245.

A __________ is essentially a sequence of linked suppliers and customers in which every customer is, in turn, a supplier to another customer until a finished product reaches the ultimate consumer or industrial user. 
 

A. 

logistical flow

B. 

demand chain

C. 

supplier-customer alliance

D. 

supply chain

E. 

supply pipeline

 

246.

Customers currently link to Cisco's website to configure, price, and order its networking equipment. Cisco then sends orders back out across the Internet to producers and assemblers including Celestica, Flextronics, Jabil, and Solectron. Products are built and tested to Cisco's standards, sometimes with procedures run remotely by Cisco. Most items are then drop-shipped to buyers, untouched by Cisco's employees. This is a description of Cisco's 
 

A. 

virtual logistics.

B. 

supply chain.

C. 

electronic data interchange.

D. 

strategic information alliance.

E. 

product-specific delivery system.

 

247.

Supply chain management refers to 
 

A. 

the integration and organization of information and logistic activities across firms for the purpose of creating and delivering products and services that provide value to ultimate consumers.

B. 

organizing the cost-effective flow of raw materials, in-process inventory, finished goods, and related information from point-of-origin to point-of-consumption to satisfy customer requirements.

C. 

the integration and organization of information and logistical activities that actively bring consumers together with sellers through the express use of agents and brokers.

D. 

an inventory management system that is designed to reduce the retailer's lead time for receiving merchandise, which then lowers a retailer's inventory investment, improves customer service levels, and reduces logistic expenses.

E. 

a highly organized system that facilitates minute-to-minute communication between all members of a supply chain and ensures the producer is aware of any changes in delivery or demand for a product or service.

 

248.

An important feature of supply chain management is its application of __________ that allows companies to share and operate systems for order processing, transportation scheduling, and inventory and facility management. 
 

A. 

wholesaler cooperatives

B. 

mathematical and statistical models

C. 

sophisticated information technology

D. 

continuous inventory management

E. 

standardized distribution protocols

 

249.

In the automobile industry, the __________ manager is responsible for translating customer requirements into actual orders and arranging for delivery dates. 
 

A. 

marketing

B. 

information technology

C. 

intermodal

D. 

supply chain

E. 

financial

 

250.

In the automobile industry, the supply chain manager is responsible for translating __________ into actual orders and arranging for delivery dates. 
 

A. 

marketing goals

B. 

customer requirements

C. 

marketing information

D. 

production requirements

E. 

company goals

 

251.

Supply chain and logistics managers play a large part in the manufacture of automobiles. It is estimated that logistics costs account for __________ percent of the retail price you pay for a new car. 
 

A. 

1 to 2

B. 

4 to 5

C. 

8 to 10

D. 

12 to 15

E. 

25 to 30

 

252.

The choice of a supply chain follows from a clearly defined marketing strategy and involves three steps: (1) __________, (2) understand the supply chain, and (3) harmonize the supply chain with the marketing strategy. 
 

A. 

understand the environment

B. 

consider the legal consequences of partnering

C. 

understand the marketing strategy

D. 

understand the customer

E. 

understand the company's goals

 

253.

The choice of a supply chain involves three steps: (1) understand the customer, (2) __________, and (3) harmonize the supply chain with the marketing strategy. 
 

A. 

understand the environment

B. 

consider the legal consequences

C. 

understand the supply chain

D. 

understand the marketing strategy

E. 

understand the company's goals

 

254.

The three steps used in choosing a supply chain are (1) understand the customer, (2) understand the supply chain, and (3) __________. 
 

A. 

understand the environment

B. 

harmonize the supply chain with the marketing strategy

C. 

understand the marketing mix

D. 

understand the logistics

E. 

understand the company's goals

 

255.

What is the first step in choosing the right supply chain? 
 

A. 

Understand the supply chain.

B. 

Develop a list of qualified channel members.

C. 

Enumerate logistics specifications.

D. 

Compare multiple-channel alternatives.

E. 

Understand the customer.

 

256.

IBM is one of the world's great business success stories because of its ability to reinvent itself to satisfy shifting customer needs in __________ global marketplace. 
 

A. 

a stagnant

B. 

a dynamic

C. 

an inert

D. 

a transparent

E. 

a diverse

 

257.

IBM has adopted __________ supply chain strategy to better serve its customers. 
 

A. 

an efficient

B. 

a responsive

C. 

a harmonized

D. 

an integrated

E. 

a multitiered

 

258.

IBM built a single __________ that would handle raw material procurement, manufacturing, logistics, customer support, order entry, and customer fulfillment across all of IBM—something that had never been done before. 
 

A. 

integrated supply chain

B. 

extranet computer system

C. 

customer service department

D. 

intranet supply network system

E. 

global procurement network

 

259.

Often companies must choose between a responsive supply chain and an efficient supply chain. This decision is based on 
 

A. 

the specific needs of customer segments.

B. 

monetary considerations.

C. 

supplier alternatives.

D. 

the business mission.

E. 

a lack of an appropriate channel captain.

 

260.

The goals to be achieved by a firm's marketing strategy determine whether its supply chain needs to be more __________ in meeting customer requirements. 
 

A. 

cost effective

B. 

broadly expanded

C. 

responsive or efficient

D. 

centrally located

E. 

geographically distributed

 

261.

Dell has adopted __________ supply chain strategy to better serve its customers. 
 

A. 

a responsive

B. 

a reactionary

C. 

an efficient

D. 

a proficient

E. 

an economical

 

262.

Because its customers desire rapid delivery and a wide variety of customizable products, Dell made a conscious decision to use __________ supply chain to meet these requirements. 
 

A. 

an integrated

B. 

an efficient

C. 

a harmonized

D. 

a responsive

E. 

a multitiered

 

263.

Which statement regarding responsive supply chains is most accurate
 

A. 

Responsive supply chains use slower modes of transportation but faster order processing.

B. 

Responsive supply chains always use the least expensive mode of transportation possible.

C. 

Responsive supply chains rely on large inventory warehouses.

D. 

Responsive supply chains achieve economies of scale by having all inventory stored and sorted at a central location.

E. 

Responsive supply chains rely heavily on information technology.

 

264.

Which statement regarding responsive supply chains is most accurate
 

A. 

Responsive supply chains use slower modes of transportation but faster order processing.

B. 

Responsive supply chains often rely on more expensive express transportation.

C. 

Responsive supply chains always use the least expensive mode of transportation possible.

D. 

Responsive supply chains rely on large inventory warehouses.

E. 

Responsive supply chains achieve economies of scale by having all inventory stored and sorted at a central location.

 

265.

Walmart made a conscious decision to use __________ supply chain in order to best meet the needs of its consumers. 
 

A. 

an integrated

B. 

a responsive

C. 

a harmonized

D. 

an efficient

E. 

a multitiered

 

266.

Walmart's marketing strategy is to be a reliable, lower-price retailer for a wide variety of mass consumption consumer goods. This strategy favors __________ designed to deliver products to consumers at the lowest possible cost. 
 

A. 

an integrated supply chain

B. 

a global supply chain

C. 

an efficient supply chain

D. 

a responsive supply chain

E. 

a customer service supply chain

 

267.

Which statement regarding efficient supply chains is most accurate
 

A. 

Efficient supply chains often operate with relatively low inventory levels.

B. 

Efficient supply chains use common platforms and common components across several products.

C. 

Efficient supply chains rely on maintaining large geographically dispersed inventory warehouses.

D. 

Efficient supply chains traditionally use expensive, but faster, modes of transportation.

E. 

Efficient supply chains emphasize economies of scale by increasing the variety of system configurations offered.

 

268.

Which statement regarding efficient supply chains is most accurate
 

A. 

Efficient supply chains use common platforms and common components across several products.

B. 

Efficient supply chains rely on large geographically dispersed inventory warehouses.

C. 

Efficient supply chains traditionally use expensive, but faster, modes of transportation.

D. 

Efficient supply chains may utilize cross-docking.

E. 

Efficient supply chains emphasize economies of scale by increasing the variety of system configurations offered.

 

269.

The practice that involves unloading products from suppliers, sorting products for individual stores, and quickly reloading products on trucks that will deliver the products to specific stores is referred to as 
 

A. 

just-in-time (JIT) delivery.

B. 

intermodal distribution.

C. 

immediate response system (ERS).

D. 

piggy-backing.

E. 

cross-docking.

 

270.

Cross-docking refers to 
 

A. 

the practice of organizing the cost-effective flow of raw materials, in-process inventory, finished goods, and related information from point of origin to point of consumption to satisfy customer requirements.

B. 

the practice of storing finished goods in the same trucks from which they will be dispensed and sold to consumers.

C. 

using large cargo containers that will be loaded onto trucks and then barges or ships that sail from port to port and then unloaded back onto trucks for final transport and delivery.

D. 

a practice that involves unloading products from suppliers, sorting products for individual stores, and quickly reloading products onto trucks for a particular store.

E. 

the practice of transporting retail goods from a centralized warehouse to the loading docks of regionally located satellite warehouses.

 

271.

Cross-docking is most closely related to 
 

A. 

efficient supply chains.

B. 

intermodal transportation.

C. 

responsive supply chains.

D. 

reverse logistics.

E. 

exclusive distribution.

 

272.

Which of the following statements regarding supply chains is most accurate
 

A. 

The most common form of supply chain is the collaborative-response efficiency strategy.

B. 

In order for a supply chain to work effectively, key decisions should be made by a third-party logistics provider.

C. 

There is no one best supply chain for every company.

D. 

The longer the supply chain, the greater the economies of scale and the better the profit margins.

E. 

Supply chains should consider the needs of suppliers, provided those needs are consistent with marketing strategies.

 

273.

Which of the following statements regarding supply chains is most accurate
 

A. 

The best supply chain is the one that is consistent with the needs of the customer segment being served and complements a company's marketing strategy.

B. 

The most common form of supply chain is the collaborative-response efficiency strategy.

C. 

In order for a supply chain to work effectively, key decisions should be made by a third-party logistics provider.

D. 

The longer the supply chain, the greater the economies of scale and the better the profit margin.

E. 

Supply chains should consider the needs of suppliers, provided those needs are consistent with marketing strategies.

 

274.

Which of the following statements regarding supply chains is most accurate
 

A. 

The most common form of supply chain is the collaborative-response efficiency strategy.

B. 

In order for a supply chain to work effectively, key decisions should be made by a third-party logistics provider.

C. 

The longer the supply chain, the greater the economies of scale and the better the profit margin.

D. 

Supply chains should consider the needs of suppliers, provided those needs are consistent with marketing strategies.

E. 

Supply chain managers often need to make trade-offs between efficiency and responsiveness.

 

275.

The objective of information and logistics management in a customer-driven supply chain is to minimize logistics costs while 
 

A. 

satisfying suppliers.

B. 

maximizing profits.

C. 

maximizing supply chain membership.

D. 

delivering the appropriate level of customer service.

E. 

maximizing supply chain inefficiency.

 

276.

The objective of information and logistics management in a supply chain is to deliver the appropriate level of customer service while 
 

A. 

minimizing logistics costs.

B. 

maximizing distribution outlets.

C. 

maximizing profits.

D. 

maximizing supply chain membership.

E. 

maximizing supply chain cooperation.

 

277.

Expenses associated with transportation, materials handling and warehousing, inventory, stockouts (being out of inventory), order processing, and return products handling are referred to as 
 

A. 

supplier service cost.

B. 

manufacturing cost.

C. 

total logistics cost.

D. 

social responsibility cost.

E. 

total supply chain cost.

 

278.

Total logistics cost refers to 
 

A. 

the design, installation, and maintenance of in-store displays, cabinets, and freestanding promotional materials for retail outlets.

B. 

expenses associated with activities performed by brokers and agents to bring buyers and sellers together.

C. 

expenditures associated with the clerical or bookkeeping side of the procurement process, which include purchase, design, and maintenance of the EDI system.

D. 

expenses associated with product adaptations that are made by the manufacturer in response to the needs of a channel member closest to the consumer.

E. 

expenses associated with transportation, materials handling and warehousing, inventory, stockouts, order processing, and return products handling.

 

279.

Which of the following is an element of total logistics cost? 
 

A. 

new-product development

B. 

inventory

C. 

advertising

D. 

personal selling

E. 

market research

 

280.

Which of the following best describes the goal for a firm's inventory and transportation costs? 
 

A. 

Focus more on minimizing required inventory costs.

B. 

Focus more on minimizing required transportation costs.

C. 

Minimize the sum of inventory and transportation costs.

D. 

Maximize the difference between required inventory and transportation costs.

E. 

Set a level of transportation costs and minimize the required inventory costs.

 

281.

For logistics, the customer service concept suggests that firms should 
 

A. 

automate customer service.

B. 

maximize customer service levels.

C. 

minimize customer service levels.

D. 

minimize total logistics costs and let customer service follow.

E. 

satisfy users in terms of time, dependability, communication, and convenience.

 

282.

In the context of a supply chain, customer service refers to 
 

A. 

adhering to the belief that the customer is always right.

B. 

satisfying the customers' needs no matter what the price.

C. 

accepting full liability if a product fails to meet a customer's expectations.

D. 

the ability of logistics management to satisfy users in terms of time, dependability, communication, and convenience.

E. 

the ability of logistics management to satisfy users in terms of product, price, promotion, and place.

 

283.

Within the context of a supply chain, __________ is the ability of a logistics system to satisfy users in terms of time, dependability, communication, and convenience. 
 

A. 

quick response

B. 

customer service

C. 

distribution management

D. 

efficient consumer response

E. 

lead time

 

284.

The importance of time, dependability, communication, and convenience are all important concepts of __________, within the context of the supply chain. 
 

A. 

customer service

B. 

supplier service

C. 

wholesaler service

D. 

retailer service

E. 

stakeholder service

 

285.

Supply chain managers balance total logistics cost factors against customer service factors. Customer service factors include 
 

A. 

reliability, flexibility, consistency, and dependability.

B. 

time, dependability, communication, and convenience.

C. 

consistency, responsiveness, durability, and communication.

D. 

time, assurance, responsiveness, and dependability.

E. 

convenience, flexibility, time, and value.

 

286.

The output of a supply chain is the 
 

A. 

units of products delivered.

B. 

total generated revenue.

C. 

service delivered to customers.

D. 

total number of customers served.

E. 

total profits realized.

 

287.

Which of the following statements regarding supply chain customer service is most accurate
 

A. 

The output of a supply chain is measured in total units sold.

B. 

Customer service must be balanced against total logistics cost factors.

C. 

The output of a supply chain is measured either in total units sold or total number of customers served.

D. 

A firm's goal should be to provide superior customer service regardless of costs.

E. 

Customer service is the responsibility of marketing channel members and not the supplier network.

 

288.

The lag from ordering an item until it is received and ready for use or sale is referred to as 
 

A. 

order cycle time.

B. 

order handling time.

C. 

order-to-ship duration.

D. 

purchase cycle.

E. 

logistics cycle.

 

289.

Order cycle time refers to 
 

A. 

the time between when an order is placed and when payment is received.

B. 

the time between the sale of the first production batch to the sale of the next production batch.

C. 

the cycle between one full warehouse shipment to the next full warehouse shipment.

D. 

the time between the ordering of an item and when it is received and ready for use or sale.

E. 

the average time between reorders by a given wholesaler or retailer in the marketing channel.

 

290.

Another name for order cycle time is 
 

A. 

physical distribution sequence.

B. 

total logistics cycle.

C. 

replenishment time.

D. 

logistical support time.

E. 

billing cycle.

 

291.

In a supply chain setting, replenishment time refers to lead time for an item, which means the time between the ordering of an item and when it is 
 

A. 

billed to the customer.

B. 

acknowledged by the customer.

C. 

billed and paid for by the customer.

D. 

promised for delivery.

E. 

received and ready for use or sale.

 

292.

Replenishment time refers to 
 

A. 

the time lag from the inception of an idea until its initial commercialization.

B. 

the time between the ordering of an item and when it is received and ready for use or sale.

C. 

the time between the commercialization of a product and general acceptance of the product as no longer "new."

D. 

the time lag between a new product entering the market and the market entry of the product's first competitor.

E. 

the time between initial new-product promotion and product launch.

 

293.

The typical order cycle includes all of the following elements except 
 

A. 

order processing.

B. 

transportation.

C. 

stockout reports.

D. 

documentation.

E. 

order transmittal.

 

294.

The Limited employs a quick response system to order fast-moving fashion items. The Limited's point-of-sale scanner records each sale. When inventory falls below a minimum level, the system automatically sends an electronic order to the manufacturer, which processes the order immediately. This system has effectively reduced 
 

A. 

dependability.

B. 

product flow.

C. 

replenishment time.

D. 

supply lag.

E. 

logistical lag.

 

295.

Inventory management systems that are designed to make the process of reordering and receiving products as simple as possible are referred to as 
 

A. 

order replenishment systems.

B. 

quick response systems.

C. 

customer logistics factors.

D. 

minimum-inventory systems.

E. 

web-based response systems.

 

296.

An efficient consumer response system refers to 
 

A. 

an order replenishment system that maintains a 10 percent inventory rate at all times in order to guarantee there will never be stockouts.

B. 

an online virtual inventory storage program that allows firms to enter in minute-by-minute information in order to avoid stockouts due to unforeseen environmental forces.

C. 

a computer program that allows even the smallest manufacturer to manage its inventory system.

D. 

an inventory management system that is designed to make the process of reordering and receiving products as simple as possible.

E. 

an exclusive contractual agreement between delivery services such as FedEx or UPS to deliver expedited orders at a special low rate, regardless of the day and time.

 

297.

Inventory management systems that are designed to make the process of reordering and receiving products as simple as possible are referred to as 
 

A. 

efficient consumer response systems.

B. 

order replenishment systems.

C. 

customer logistics factors.

D. 

minimum-inventory systems.

E. 

web-based response systems.

 

298.

Another name for quick response systems is 
 

A. 

order replenishment systems.

B. 

customer logistics factors.

C. 

minimum-inventory systems.

D. 

web-based response systems.

E. 

efficient consumer response systems.

 

299.

Another name for efficient consumer response systems is 
 

A. 

customer logistics factors.

B. 

order replenishment systems.

C. 

minimum-inventory systems.

D. 

quick response systems.

E. 

web-based response systems.

 

300.

Dependability is the consistency of replenishment. This is important to all firms in a supply chain and to consumers. It can be broken into three elements: safe delivery, complete delivery, and 
 

A. 

honest and accurate pricing.

B. 

quality products.

C. 

consistent lead time.

D. 

a well-informed delivery staff.

E. 

product warranties.

 

301.

Dependability is the consistency of replenishment. This is important to all firms in a supply chain and to consumers. It can be broken into three elements: consistent lead time, complete delivery, and 
 

A. 

honest and accurate pricing.

B. 

quality products.

C. 

a well-informed delivery staff.

D. 

product warranties.

E. 

safe delivery.

 

302.

Dependability is the consistency of replenishment. This is important to all firms in a supply chain and to consumers. It can be broken into three elements: consistent lead time, safe delivery, and 
 

A. 

complete delivery.

B. 

honest and accurate pricing.

C. 

quality products.

D. 

product warranties.

E. 

a well-informed delivery staff.

 

303.

In logistics, a two-way link between buyer and supplier that helps in monitoring service and anticipating future needs is referred to as 
 

A. 

inventory management.

B. 

dependability.

C. 

communication.

D. 

reverse logistics.

E. 

accountability.

 

304.

Which of the following is an example of good communication between buyer and supplier? 
 

A. 

disintermediation

B. 

selective distribution

C. 

reverse logistics

D. 

forward integration

E. 

order status reports

 

305.

Convenience refers to the concept that 
 

A. 

there should be a minimum of effort on the part of the buyer in doing business with the supplier.

B. 

all products or services should be available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, and 365 days a year.

C. 

all tasks required to make an exchange are the sole responsibility of the supplier.

D. 

an exchange requires equal effort by both the buyer and supplier.

E. 

all logistical services are provided by a supplier network.

 

306.

An inventory-management system whereby the supplier determines the product amount and assortment a retailer needs and automatically delivers the appropriate items is referred to as 
 

A. 

supplier-managed inventory.

B. 

supply chain inventory.

C. 

logistics-managed inventory.

D. 

just-in-time inventory management.

E. 

vendor-managed inventory.

 

307.

A vendor-managed inventory system is an 
 

A. 

inventory supply system that operates with very low inventories and requires fast on-time delivery.

B. 

inventory management system whereby the supplier determines the product amount and assortment a retailer needs and automatically delivers the appropriate items.

C. 

inventory management system that is designed to reduce the retailer's lead time for receiving merchandise, which then lowers its inventory investment, improves customer service levels, and reduces logistic expenses.

D. 

inventory supply system that relies on the judgment of individual warehouse managers based on daily reports from its retailer customers.

E. 

inventory system that guarantees delivery within 48 hours, granting price reductions of 1 percent per hour if a shipment is delayed.

 

308.

Many retailers who sell Campbell Soup products make purchases from Campbell under vendor-managed inventory programs. These retailers 
 

A. 

have Campbell perform all materials handing activities.

B. 

authorize Campbell Soup to eliminate as many wholesaling functions as possible from the supply chain.

C. 

use a system in which Campbell Soup determines the product amount and assortment that should be in stock.

D. 

authorize the use of distribution centers to provide quicker customer response times.

E. 

balance their total logistics cost by eliminating the convenience service factor.

 

309.

The process of reclaiming recyclable and reusable materials, returns, and reworks from the point of consumption or use for repair, remanufacturing, redistribution, or disposal is referred to as 
 

A. 

salvage marketing.

B. 

materials transformation.

C. 

reverse materials handling.

D. 

reverse logistics.

E. 

cause-related marketing.

 

310.

Reverse logistics refers to 
 

A. 

the collection of used goods donated to nonprofit organizations by ultimate consumers to be restored, cleaned, repaired, and resold back to ultimate consumers.

B. 

deconstructing products that failed to pass quality inspection standards on the production line and reusing workable parts instead of throwing out the entire unit.

C. 

the process of reclaiming recyclable and reusable materials, returns, and reworks from the point of consumption or use for repair, remanufacturing, redistribution, or disposal.

D. 

organizing a cost-effective flow of raw materials, in-process inventory, finished goods, and related information from point of origin to point of consumption to satisfy customer requirements.

E. 

the donation of old or broken automobiles to nonprofit organizations that can be recycled or turned into scrap with the profits applied to the organization's operating expenses.

 

311.

Butler-McDonald, an Indianapolis firm, recycles outdated computers to reclaim reusable materials such as plastics, copper, zinc, silver, and gold. Butler-McDonald is implementing 
 

A. 

salvage marketing.

B. 

materials transformation.

C. 

cyclical materials handling.

D. 

reverse logistics.

E. 

cause-related marketing.

 

312.

Hewlett-Packard is taking a proactive role in reducing the amount of electronic merchandise dumped in landfills by using __________ to reclaim recyclable and reusable materials. 
 

A. 

reverse materials handling

B. 

reverse logistics

C. 

cause-related marketing

D. 

vendor-managed inventory

E. 

materials transformation

 

313.

Amazon.com was started with a simple idea: Use the Internet to ______________ into the fastest, easiest, and most enjoyable shopping experience possible. 
 

A. 

transform book buying

B. 

build web-buying services

C. 

change purchases of consumer goods

D. 

change Amazon's web page

E. 

ensure Amazon was transformed

 

314.

Amazon uses supply chain and logistics management to 
 

A. 

make sure that it maintains the authority that comes with being the channel captain.

B. 

avoid having to use quick response replenishment.

C. 

lessen the amount of communication that is necessary between it and its suppliers.

D. 

manage the flow of products from its suppliers to its distribution centers.

E. 

implement its market divestment strategies.

 

315.

Amazon uses supply chain and logistics management to 
 

A. 

make sure that it maintains the authority that comes with being the channel captain.

B. 

avoid having to use quick response replenishment.

C. 

manage the flow of customer orders from the distribution centers to individual's homes.

D. 

lessen the amount of communication that is necessary between it and its suppliers.

E. 

implement its market divestment strategies.

 

 


Short Answer Questions
 

316.

What is a marketing channel? Define each of the four types of marketing channels. 
 


 


 


 

 

317.

What are the functions performed by intermediaries? 
 


 


 


 

 

318.

What are the utilities created by marketing intermediaries? Describe each one. 
 


 


 


 

 

319.

With respect to consumer product and service marketing channels, what are the key differences between a direct and an indirect channel? 
 


 


 


 

 

320.

Define and describe at least one similarity and one difference between dual distribution and a strategic channel alliance. 
 


 


 


 

 

321.

In some countries, the packaging of the well-known Cheerios brand of cereal carries the Nestlé name rather than the familiar General Mills brand name. Explain the channel that is being used and the importance of Cereal Partners Worldwide (CPW). 
 


 


 


 

 

322.

List and define the three major types of vertical marketing systems. 
 


 


 


 

 

323.

There are three types of contractual vertical marketing systems. List the systems and provide a brief description of each. 
 


 


 


 

 

324.

There are four types of franchising arrangements. List the arrangements and provide a brief description of each. 
 


 


 


 

 

325.

What are the three questions marketing executives consider when choosing a marketing channel and intermediaries? 
 


 


 


 

 

326.

Channels are typically designed to satisfy one or more of four consumer interests. What are they and why are they important? 
 


 


 


 

 

327.

What is a channel captain? What is its function and how does it accomplish this? 
 


 


 


 

 

328.

Briefly explain the differences between the terms supply chain management and marketing channel
 


 


 


 

 

329.

What are the three steps involved in choosing a supply chain that aligns with an organization's marketing strategy? 
 


 


 


 

 

330.

What specific decision areas are associated with the flow of goods and together make up total logistics cost? 
 


 


 


 

 

331.

What are some specific cost trade-offs that can be made in a logistics system? 
 


 


 


 

 

332.

List and briefly describe the four customer service factors that must be balanced in a logistics system. 
 


 


 


 

 

Document Information

Document Type:
DOCX
Chapter Number:
15
Created Date:
Aug 21, 2025
Chapter Name:
Chapter 15 Managing Marketing Channels And Supply Chains
Author:
Roger A. Kerin, Steven W. Hartley

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