Chapter 11
Managing Successful Products, Services, and Brands
Multiple Choice Questions
1. | Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. | The name Gatorade was chosen because as an energy drink it "got you out the gate—fast." |
B. | The name Gatorade was coined by a team who lost to the University of Florida Gators, attributing the Gator win to the "aid" it got from the rehydrating beverage. |
C. | The green color of the original lemon-lime Gatorade was based on the University of Florida's alligator mascot. |
D. | Gatorade was developed by PepsiCo as a cause-marketing project to provide resources for women's sports at the University of Florida as a result of the passage of Title IX in 1972. |
E. | Gatorade is the only sports drink marketer that doesn't use sports celebrities to endorse its products. |
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2. | Gatorade is classified as a(n) __________ brand.
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3. | Products such as Gatorade Xtremo, Gatorade X-Factor, and Gatorade Endurance Formula were introduced to appeal to
A. | brand-conscious consumers. |
B. | PepsiCo, the new owner of Gatorade. |
C. | new groups of consumers. |
D. | consumer who were already loyal to the brand. |
E. | the trends for fads in the beverage category. |
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4. | Which of the following statements regarding Gatorade's branding is most accurate?
A. | Gatorade uses the same formula for all its products and simply changes the brand name when introducing new flavors. |
B. | Gatorade's success can be attributed to management's decision to find and then stick with one channel of distribution. |
C. | Gatorade changed its color, packaging, and size of items in the product line for the domestic market so that they would not conflict with those marketed to foreign markets. |
D. | Gatorade has used the same packaging since the product debuted in 1965. |
E. | Gatorade has changed its product formulation, packaging, and advertising over the years in response to changes in the marketplace. |
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5. | To ________________ of Gatorade offerings from the traditional Gatorade Thirst Quencher, newly enhanced beverages convey the attitude of a tough-love coach or personal trainer through in-your-face names on the label and nutrition benefits inside.
C. | create a pricing differential |
D. | differentiate the range |
E. | introduce a new product class |
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6. | Gatorade offers a range of product offerings. The firm uses one name for all its products in a product class. Gatorade is using a __________ strategy.
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7. | The launch by Gatorade of Gatorade Endurance Carb Energy Chews is evidence of
B. | discontinuous development. |
D. | symbiotic development. |
E. | simultaneous development. |
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8. | Gatorade's enhanced beverages and the creation of the G Series of products illustrate ___________________________ and masterful brand management in a dynamic marketplace.
A. | continuous product development |
B. | functional product development |
C. | communications development |
D. | physical product development |
E. | tangible product development |
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9. | A concept that describes the stages a product goes through in the marketplace—introduction, growth, maturity, and decline—is referred to as the
E. | diffusion of product innovation. |
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10. | Product life cycle refers to
A. | the average life span of a product. |
B. | a concept that describes the stages a new product goes through from product concept to commercialization. |
C. | a concept that describes the stages a product goes through in the marketplace—early growth, accelerated development, maturity, and decline. |
D. | a concept that describes the stages a product goes through in the marketplace—introduction, growth, maturity, and decline. |
E. | the amount of time it takes a product innovation to completely diffuse in the marketplace. |
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11. | There are four stages of the product life cycle. What does the first stage of the product life cycle represent?
D. | accelerated development |
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12. | There are four stages of the product life cycle. What does the second stage of the product life cycle represent?
D. | accelerated development |
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13. | There are four stages of the product life cycle. What does the third stage of the product life cycle represent?
D. | accelerated development |
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14. | There are four stages of the product life cycle. What does the fourth stage of the product life cycle represent?
D. | accelerated development |
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15. | Usually two curves are shown in a figure that represents the stages of the product life cycle. The two curves shown represent total industry sales revenue and total industry profit. Typically what does the higher of the two curves represent?
D. | total industry sales revenue |
E. | total research and development costs |
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16. | Usually two curves are shown in a figure that represents the stages of the product life cycle. The two curves shown represent total industry sales revenue and total industry profit. Typically what does the lower of the two curves represent?
D. | total industry sales revenue |
E. | total research and development costs |
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17. | What is the marketing objective for the introduction stage of the product life cycle?
C. | stress differentiation |
D. | maintain brand loyalty |
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18. | What is the marketing objective for the growth stage of the product life cycle?
C. | stress differentiation |
E. | maintain brand loyalty |
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19. | What is the marketing objective for the maturity stage of the product life cycle?
C. | stress differentiation |
E. | maintain brand loyalty |
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20. | What is the marketing objective for the decline stage of the product life cycle?
C. | stress differentiation |
E. | maintain brand loyalty |
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21. | The __________ stage of the product life cycle occurs when a product is launched to its intended target market.
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22. | The lack of profit in the introductory stage of the product life cycle is very often the result of
A. | pricing the product too low in an attempt to quickly gain market share. |
B. | targeting the wrong target market segment. |
C. | a lack of wholesaler support. |
D. | the large investment costs in product development. |
E. | ineffective execution of the marketing program. |
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23. | The marketing objective for a product in the __________ stage of the product life cycle is to create consumer awareness and stimulate trial.
E. | accelerated development |
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24. | A product in the introduction stage of its product life cycle should have which of the following marketing objective(s)?
A. | stress differentiation |
B. | gain awareness and stimulate trial |
D. | gain as much distribution as possible |
E. | target a marketing niche |
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25. | Millions of dollars were spent by Gillette to develop the Gillette Fusion razor shaving system. What was the marketing objective for the company at this stage of the product life cycle?
A. | stress differentiation from other saving products |
B. | maintain brand loyalty |
C. | allow users to spend time doing other things |
D. | create awareness and stimulate trial |
E. | target a whole new group of consumers |
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26. | Over a decade ago, Survivor premiered as a night-time reality TV show during the summer season when TV ratings are normally low and TV viewing options consisted primarily of reruns. The marketing goals for the first show included making television viewers aware of its existence and generating enough excitement about the show so that millions of viewers would watch the first episode. Based on this description, the TV show was in what stage of its product life cycle?
E. | accelerated development |
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27. | The initial purchase of a product by a consumer is referred to as
E. | an examination period. |
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28. | The desire for a product class rather than for a specific brand is called __________ demand.
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29. | Gillette budgeted $200 million in advertising to introduce the Fusion razor to male shavers. Such expenditures are often made to stimulate __________, the desire for the product class, rather than for a specific brand, when there are few competitors with the same product.
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30. | Gillette budgeted $200 million in advertising to introduce the Fusion razor to male shavers. Such expenditures are often made to stimulate primary demand, or desire for the product __________, rather than for a specific brand, when there are few competitors with the same product.
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31. | Promotional expenditures at the introduction stage of the product life cycle are best spent on
A. | contests and sweepstakes to stimulate selective demand. |
B. | product samples to create secondary demand. |
C. | advertising to stimulate primary demand. |
D. | personal endorsements to generate word-of-mouth demand. |
E. | coupons to maintain brand loyalty or static demand. |
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32. | During the introduction stage of the product life cycle, promotional expenditures are made to stimulate consumer desire for an entire product class rather than for a specific brand. The consumer demand that is stimulated is referred to as __________ demand.
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33. | When the Egg Farmers of Canada implemented its "Get Cracking" advertising campaign, the organization was trying to stimulate __________ demand.
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34. | When the Floral Council, a trade association of flower shop retailers, advertises that giving flowers is a thoughtful and appreciated gift for any occasion, it is trying to stimulate __________ demand.
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35. | When the National Cattlemen's Beef Association developed the "Beef, It's What's for Dinner" advertising campaign, it was trying to stimulate __________ demand.
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36. | The preference for a specific brand is called __________ demand.
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37. | As more competitors launch their own products and the product progresses along its life cycle, company attention is focused on creating __________ demand, or the preference for a specific brand.
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38. | For years, when most consumers thought of cranberries, they thought of the Ocean Spray brand. Then Northland-branded cranberry juice came on the market, claiming that it was superior to the Ocean Spray brand. Northland was creating __________ demand.
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39. | During the introduction stage of the product life cycle, the place (distribution) element of the marketing mix is highly involved with
A. | increasing inventory levels at warehouses and distribution centers to meet potential demand. |
B. | gaining as many retail distribution outlets as possible, even though many will be reluctant to carry the new product. |
C. | using an intermodal logistics system to get the products through the marketing channel as quickly as possible. |
D. | building storage warehouses and distribution centers to establish an efficient infrastructure for the new product. |
E. | obtaining contracts with independent sales agents and brokers instead of using the firm's salesforce. |
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40. | The two most common pricing alternatives for products in the introduction stage of the product life cycle are
A. | skimming pricing and penetration pricing. |
B. | price lining and product line pricing. |
C. | markdown pricing and quantity discount pricing. |
D. | skimming pricing and bundle pricing. |
E. | penetration pricing and experience curve pricing. |
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41. | During the introduction stage of the product life cycle, __________ pricing strategy may be used. This pricing strategy charges a high initial price to recoup the costs of product development.
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42. | A company may choose a skimming strategy during the introduction stage of its product to help recover costs of development and/or to
A. | capitalize on the price insensitivity of early buyers. |
B. | discourage competition from other manufacturers. |
C. | ease the product into its maturity stage. |
D. | gain the largest unit sales possible. |
E. | gain more distribution outlets. |
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43. | The 3M Co. is a master of the __________ pricing strategy. According to a 3M manager, "We hit fast, price high, and get the heck out when the me-too products pour in."
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44. | All of the following are true about a skimming pricing strategy when used during the introduction stage of the product life cycle except
A. | it capitalizes on the price insensitivity of early buyers. |
B. | its profit margins may be high. |
C. | it encourages "me too" entrants into the market. |
D. | it recovers the R&D costs of the new offering. |
E. | it helps build unit volume. |
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45. | Xerox pioneered the first portable fax machine. In 1980, the price was $12,700. Xerox used __________ pricing strategy to help recover its research and development costs.
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46. | During the introduction stage of the product life cycle, the strategy that discourages competitive entry by charging a low price for a new product is referred to as __________ pricing.
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47. | Xunrui Communications is an upstart maker of inexpensive smartphones for the Chinese market. Xunrui purchases the components for the items, which are then sent to small assembly factories in Shenzhen, located in southern China. These smartphones retail for about $65, significantly less than the $250 to $600 for smartphones marketed by Apple or Samsung, the top two marketers of these items. Xunrui Communications most likely is using which pricing strategy in this example?
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48. | Which of the following statements about the introduction stage of the product life cycle is most accurate?
A. | If a firm's product is especially good, efforts should be made to create selective demand rather than primary demand to allow the firm to distinguish itself from competitors. |
B. | During the introduction stage, it is best to avoid a skimming pricing strategy. |
C. | During the introduction stage, it is best to avoid a penetration pricing strategy. |
D. | A firm should introduce the identical product at several different price points in order to gauge customer price sensitivity. |
E. | Because of large initial investment costs, industry profits often go from negative to positive. |
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49. | All electric-powered automobiles such as the Chevy Spark are in which stage of their product life cycle?
D. | accelerated development |
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50. | All electric-powered automobiles such as the Tesla Motors Model S are in which stage of its product life cycle?
E. | accelerated development |
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51. | The 3D OLED (organic light-emitting diode) HDTVs, such as the 55-inch model from LG Electronics that in 2015 cost about $10,000, were in which stage of their product life cycle?
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52. | LED (light-emitting diode) bulbs, such as the Cree LED bulb, have been available for only a few years in low lighting levels (lumens). They are designed to replace incandescent and compact fluorescent lightbulbs, in part because of a federal law that phases out incandescent lightbulbs in favor of more energy-efficient ones. LED bulbs will last up to 20 years. In what stage of the product life cycle is this product?
C. | accelerated development stage |
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53. | Imagine that Eveready has developed solar rechargeable batteries that cost only slightly more to produce than the rechargeable batteries currently available. These solar batteries can be recharged by sunlight up to five times, after which they must be discarded. Unfortunately, the production process cannot be patented, so competitors could enter the market within a year. Which of the following would be the least sound marketing program decision?
A. | Select a skimming pricing strategy to position the product as "premium." |
B. | Seek widespread distribution to gain a foothold in what might be a potentially huge market. |
C. | Limit production capacity until you are certain consumers will actually want the product. |
D. | Avoid a connection to the Eveready brand until the product has proven itself. |
E. | Use multiple brand names to discourage other competitors from entering the market. |
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54. | The __________ stage of the product life cycle is characterized by rapid increases in sales.
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55. | The __________ stage of the product life cycle is characterized by the appearance of competitors.
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56. | Which stage in the product life cycle is characterized by a rapid increase in sales and the appearance of competitors?
D. | accelerated development |
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57. | At which stage in the product life cycle do industry profits usually peak?
E. | accelerated development |
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58. | Which of the following is a characteristic of the growth stage of the product life cycle?
A. | Advertising emphasis switches to selective demand. |
B. | A growing proportion of trial purchases come from brand loyal users. |
C. | Product features remain unchanged. |
D. | Profit margins increase as sales increase. |
E. | The product is sold in a narrowly selected number of retail outlets. |
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59. | People who tried a product, were satisfied, and bought it again are called __________ purchasers.
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60. | For the Gillette Fusion razor, over 60 percent of men who tried the razor adopted the product permanently. These men are known as __________ purchasers.
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61. | During the __________ stage of the product life cycle, product proliferation occurs to help differentiate a company's brand from competitors.
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62. | Changes in the product characteristically take place in the __________ stage of the product life cycle.
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63. | To help differentiate a company's brand from competitors, an improved version is created or new features are added to the original design, and product proliferation occurs in the __________ stage of the product life cycle.
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64. | In which stage of the product life cycle is it important to broaden distribution of the product?
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65. | Which of the following is a characteristic of the growth stage of the product life cycle?
A. | Advertising emphasis switches to primary demand. |
B. | The proportion of repeat purchasers to initial purchasers grows. |
C. | The number of distribution outlets shrinks due to growing inefficiencies. |
D. | Profit margins increase as sales increase. |
E. | No new product features are added to maximize profits. |
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66. | Which of the following is a characteristic of the growth stage of the product life cycle?
A. | Advertising emphasis switches to primary demand. |
B. | The proportion of initial purchasers to repeat purchasers grows. |
C. | New or modified product features are added. |
D. | Profit margins increase as sales increase. |
E. | There are a limited number of retail outlets for greater quality control. |
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67. | Which of the following is an example of a product in the growth stage of the product life cycle?
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68. | Electric automobiles like the Chevrolet Spark made by General Motors are in the introductory stage of the product life cycle. By comparison, smartphones such as the Apple iPhone 6 are in the _____________ of the product life cycle.
B. | commercialization stage |
C. | accelerated development stage |
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69. | The __________ stage of the product life cycle is characterized by the slowing of total industry sales or product class revenue, causing marginal competitors to begin leaving the market.
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70. | Which stage in the product life cycle is characterized by a slowing of total industry sales or product class revenue?
E. | decelerated implementation |
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71. | In which stage of the product life cycle do marginal competitors begin to leave the market?
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72. | When most consumers who would buy a product are either repeat purchasers of the item or have tried and abandoned it, what stage of the product life cycle is the product in?
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73. | During the maturity stage of the product life cycle, profit declines primarily because
A. | there are fewer and fewer competitors in the market. |
B. | promotional expenditures increase. |
C. | production costs increase the more a firm has to manufacture the same product. |
D. | there is fierce price competition among sellers. |
E. | more consumers enter the market seeking bargains. |
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74. | Promotional expenses at the maturity stage of the product life cycle are often designed to
A. | convince those who have abandoned the brand to try it again. |
B. | maintain market share. |
C. | create a sense of nostalgia. |
D. | attract more price-conscious consumers. |
E. | thwart the growing number of competitors that have entered the market. |
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75. | Which of the following statements regarding the maturity stage of the product life cycle is most accurate?
A. | Technological forces often push a product from the introduction stage to the maturity stage. |
B. | During the maturity stage, companies add more distribution outlets to maximize target market coverage. |
C. | Sales increase at a decreasing rate as fewer new buyers enter the market. |
D. | Industry profits peak because production and distribution costs are declining. |
E. | Total industry profits exceed total industry sales. |
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76. | Which of the following statements regarding the maturity stage of the product life cycle is most accurate?
A. | Marketing emphasis is directed toward generating more consumer awareness. |
B. | Marketing emphasis switches to finding more channel intermediaries to carry the product. |
C. | Marketing emphasis aims at stimulating primary demand for the product. |
D. | Marketing attention is directed toward holding market share through further product differentiation and finding new buyers. |
E. | Marketing emphasis is directed toward having salespeople allocate less time to selling the product. |
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77. | At which stage of the product life cycle is a company likely to have its most complete product line?
E. | accelerated development |
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78. | Which of the following is an example of a product in the maturity stage of the product life cycle?
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79. | Sales exhibit a downward trend throughout which stage of the product life cycle?
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80. | Which of the following occurs during the decline stage of the product life cycle?
B. | Flanking product lines are added. |
C. | The product becomes less vulnerable to changes in the marketing environment. |
D. | Promotional support is increased. |
E. | Competition becomes intense as more competitors enter the market. |
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81. | Which of the following statements about the decline stage of the product life cycle is most accurate?
A. | Ironically, in the decline stage, sales decline even though profits increase. |
B. | A product always enters the decline stage as the result of a major product flaw or marketing misstep. |
C. | A major reason that a firm's product enters the decline stage is as a result of changes in the marketing environment. |
D. | The only real step that can be taken to avoid the decline stage and ultimately extinction is to increase marketing expenditures as soon as the product enters its maturity stage. |
E. | Service industries are exempt from the decline stage because of their intangible nature. |
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82. | Industry analysts estimate that the number of e-mail mailboxes worldwide will grow to __________ by 2018.
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83. | In terms of its effect on faxing, e-mail has
A. | led to a significant number of improvements in fax machine technology to keep the product class competitive. |
B. | led to a significant decrease in fax machine sales because e-mail better suits the needs of the business community. |
C. | led to a significant increase in fax machine purchases due to distrust of e-mail spam. |
D. | a minimal impact since the two technologies do not directly compete with each other. |
E. | caused most fax machine manufacturers to incorporate new Internet technology to send, receive, and print e-mails through a wireless connection to a personal computer. |
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84. | Products tend to consume a disproportionate share of management and financial resources relative to their future worth throughout which stage of the product life cycle?
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85. | Which of the following is an example of a product in the decline stage of the product life cycle?
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86. | Analog televisions are in which stage of their product life cycle according to the textbook?
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87. | In the late 1950s and 1960s, television westerns were extremely popular. These adventure shows had settings and costumes that were very unlike other shows of that time (comedy, variety, crime, etc.). Popular programs included Gunsmoke, Bonanza, Wagon Train, The Big Valley, etc. When ratings declined as viewers gradually stopped watching this TV genre, production companies found the networks no longer wanted to produce and televise such shows. The television western was a product category that had entered the __________ stage of its product life cycle.
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88. | Your product has been suffering from steadily eroding sales. You have tried a number of options to revitalize the product's sales and profits, but after seven changes in your strategy, you have yet to find success. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate next step?
A. | Delete the product from the line. |
B. | Retain the product, but reduce its marketing costs. |
C. | Stimulate primary demand. |
D. | Stimulate selective demand. |
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89. | To handle products in the decline stage of the product life cycle, companies often use either a __________ strategy or a __________ strategy.
B. | diversification; contraction |
D. | deletion; diversification |
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90. | A strategy of dropping a product from the product line during the decline stage of the product life cycle is referred to as
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91. | Even though Liquid Paper correction fluid is in the __________ stage of its product life cycle, Sanford, its manufacturer, has not deleted it from its line because there is still a residual core of consumers who use the product.
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92. | In the late 1950s and 1960s, television westerns were extremely popular. These adventure shows had settings and costumes that were very unlike other shows of that time (comedy, variety, crime, etc.). Popular programs included Gunsmoke, Bonanza, Wagon Train, The Big Valley etc. When ratings declined as viewers gradually stopped watching this TV genre, production companies found the networks no longer wanted to buy and televise such shows. The production companies used a(n) __________ strategy and stopped production on all television westerns when the networks stopped showing them.
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93. | When a company retains a product but reduces marketing costs, it is referred to as
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94. | When a product reaches the decline stage of the product life cycle, a firm has two choices. One choice involves product deletion—dropping it from a firm's product line. The other is called __________, which retains the product in the product line but reduces marketing costs.
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95. | A strategy of harvesting may be employed in the decline stage of a product life to
A. | maintain primary demand for a product category. |
B. | acquire as many new customers as possible. |
C. | maintain the ability to meet ongoing customers' requests. |
D. | eliminate all production costs. |
E. | reposition the product. |
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96. | Three important aspects of product life cycles are: (1) their length, (2) the shape of their sales curves, and (3) the rate at which
A. | consumers recognize products. |
B. | consumers adopt products. |
C. | consumers abandon products. |
D. | competitors create "me too" products. |
E. | environmental forces affect products. |
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97. | Generally, the average length of time it takes for a product category to move from the introduction stage to the decline stage of its product life cycle is
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98. | There is no set time that a product takes to move through its life cycle. But, as a rule,
A. | services do not have a life cycle like products do. |
B. | consumer products have shorter life cycles than business products. |
C. | business products have shorter life cycles than consumer products. |
D. | technological change tends to lengthen product life cycles. |
E. | product life cycles are longer for ideas than for services. |
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99. | All of the following are true about the length of product life cycles except
A. | the length of service life cycles is typically longer than those for products. |
B. | there is no set time that a product takes to move through its life cycle. |
C. | technological change shortens product life cycles as new products replace existing ones. |
D. | the use of mass media tends to shorten product life cycles. |
E. | consumer products have shorter life cycles than business products. |
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100. | A product life cycle for which significant customer education is required and there is an extended introductory period is an example of a __________ product.
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101. | A product life cycle for which little customer education is required and there is a very short introductory period is an example of a __________ product.
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102. | A ____________ product is a style of the times.
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103. | A product life cycle for which the product experiences rapid sales on introduction and then an equally rapid decline is an example of a __________ product.
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104. | A __________ product is one for which significant customer education is required and there is an extended introductory period.
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105. | Which of the following products would have a high-learning product life cycle curve?
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106. | Interactive television with video-on-demand capabilities changes how people watch television and how consumers access the Internet. This technology requires significant customer education for most people. What type of product life cycle curve would be associated with this product?
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107. | A __________ product requires little learning by the consumer, and the benefits of the purchase are readily understood.
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108. | Which of the following products would have a low-learning product life cycle curve?
C. | interactive television |
D. | software for learning a foreign language |
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109. | A product life cycle that results from products that are easily imitated by competitors, whose benefits are readily understood by consumers, and for which the appropriate marketing strategy is to broaden distribution quickly is typical for __________ products.
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110. | A __________ product is a style of the times.
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111. | Which of the following products would have a fashion product life cycle curve?
C. | personal flotation devices |
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112. | Products that are introduced, decline, and seem to return are characteristic of the __________ type of product life cycle.
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113. | Products that experience rapid sales on introduction and then an equally rapid decline are called __________ products.
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114. | Which type of product has equally rapid introduction and decline stages of the product life cycle?
A. | high-learning products |
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115. | Which of the following products would have a fad product life-cycle curve?
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116. | Some singers sing a great song that shoots to the top of the charts. The singers then go on tour and have sold-out concerts everywhere they appear. Just as quickly (particularly if they are unable to follow their first hit song with a second one), they are singing in half-filled concert halls, then smaller clubs, and eventually no one wants to hear them perform. Such "one-hit wonder" singers are best categorized as being __________ products (or services).
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117. | Imagine that Eveready has developed solar rechargeable batteries that cost only slightly more to produce than the rechargeable batteries currently available. These solar batteries can be recharged by sunlight up to five times, after which they are to be discarded. Unfortunately, the production process cannot be patented, so competitors could enter the market within a year. Which of the following is the best description of the product life cycle of this product?
A. | rapid growth followed by rapid decline |
B. | long, level beginning, and rapid ascent |
C. | moderately slow introduction, followed by modest growth, gradually leveling off |
D. | high introductory sales followed by rapid decline |
E. | high initial sales followed by slow decline |
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118. | The entire product category or industry is referred to as
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119. | Product form refers to
A. | the legal description of an individual item including all its salient characteristics. |
B. | the SKU designation assigned to a product item. |
C. | a series of product items that share similar characteristics in terms of usage. |
D. | variations within the product class. |
E. | a group of product items that comprise an industry. |
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120. | Product form refers to
A. | a distinctive shape of a product life cycle. |
B. | similarities within the product category. |
C. | variations within the product class. |
D. | variations from product lines in a product mix. |
E. | shared characteristics within the product class. |
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121. | Prerecorded music an example of a __________, and digital music downloading and streaming are an example of a __________.
A. | product line; product class |
B. | product class; product form |
C. | product family; product line |
D. | product brand; product line |
E. | product form; product class |
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122. | Greeting cards are an example of a __________ while Valentine cards are an example of a __________.
A. | product line; product class |
B. | product family; product line |
C. | product class; product form |
D. | product brand; product line |
E. | product form; product class |
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123. | Vinyl records, cassette tapes, CDs, and music downloads (MP3 files) are all members of the same
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124. | If a figure that depicts years and retail sales of digital music shows from 2007 to 2015 the sales were rising rapidly, this indicates that in 2007 digital music was in which stage of the product life cycle?
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125. | The life cycle of a product depends on sales to
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126. | When a product spreads through the population, it is called the
B. | proliferation of innovation. |
D. | dispersal of innovation. |
E. | diffusion of innovation. |
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127. | The key idea behind diffusion of innovation is that
A. | not all consumers accept a new product at the same time; adoption of a product spreads slowly throughout the population. |
B. | once a product enters the market, the time span between awareness and purchase is incredibly short. |
C. | the introduction of an entire new product class almost always diffuses the importance of its predecessor within a matter of months. |
D. | adoption of a new product line does not change the diffusion rate of older lines in the market. |
E. | the rate of adoption is independent of other product form innovations or competitive products in the marketplace. |
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128. | The classifications of innovators, early adopters, early majority, late majority, and laggards are all based upon
A. | how frequently a consumer uses a product. |
B. | the number and strength of competitors. |
C. | when consumers begin buying a new product. |
D. | the time it takes to educate a consumer in the use of a new technology. |
E. | how quickly consumers respond to an advertising message or campaign. |
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129. | The largest numbers of product adopters with respect to the diffusion of innovation are found among
A. | innovators and laggards. |
B. | early majority and late majority. |
C. | late majority and laggards. |
D. | innovators and early majority. |
E. | innovators and early adopters. |
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130. | The consumers represented in the early stage of a product life cycle are called
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131. | For any product to be successful, it must be purchased by
A. | early adopters and laggards. |
B. | early majority and late majority. |
C. | late majority and laggards. |
D. | innovators and early majority. |
E. | innovators and early adopters. |
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132. | In terms of the diffusion of innovation, innovators account for __________ percent of product adopters.
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133. | As product adopters, innovators
A. | have a fear of debt and use neighbors and friends as information sources. |
B. | are skeptical and have below average social status. |
C. | are deliberate and use many informal social contacts. |
D. | are leaders in social settings and have a slightly above average education. |
E. | are venturesome, higher educated, and use multiple information sources. |
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134. | The concept of the diffusion of innovation shows how a product "diffuses" or spreads through the population over time. The consumer population is divided into five categories of product adopters based on when they adopt (i.e., first buy) a new product. Each product adopter category has a unique profile. Consumers who are venturesome, higher educated, and use multiple information sources are called __________ product adopters.
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135. | When Apple introduced the Apple II personal computer in 1977, industry analysts predicted that very few would be sold. However, a short time after the product was made available, consumers who were young, highly educated, adventuresome, and well-informed began buying them. While those buyers were relatively few in number, marketers such as IBM and Compaq were encouraged because other, less adventuresome consumers, like businesspeople, would likely adopt personal computers later. Based on the diffusion of innovation concept, those first buyers of personal computers were
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136. | In terms of the diffusion of innovation, early adopters account for __________ percent of product adopters.
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137. | In terms of new product purchases, early adopters
A. | have a fear of debt and use neighbors and friends as information sources. |
B. | are skeptical and have below average social status. |
C. | are deliberate and use many informal social contacts. |
D. | are leaders in social settings and have a slightly above average education. |
E. | are venturesome, highly educated, and use multiple information sources. |
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138. | The concept of the diffusion of innovation shows how a product "diffuses" or spreads through the population over time. The consumer population is divided into five categories of product adopters based on when they adopt (i.e., first buy) a new product. Each product adopter category has a unique profile. Consumers who are leaders in social settings and have slightly above average education are called
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139. | In terms of the diffusion of innovation, early majority accounts for __________ percent of product adopters.
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140. | As product adopters, members of the early majority
A. | have a fear of debt and use neighbors and friends as information sources. |
B. | are skeptical and have below average social status. |
C. | are deliberate and use many informal social contacts. |
D. | are leaders in social settings and have a slightly above average education. |
E. | are venturesome, highly educated, and use multiple information sources. |
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141. | The concept of the diffusion of innovation shows how a product "diffuses" or spreads through the population over time. The consumer population is divided into five categories of product adopters based on when they adopt (i.e., first buy) a new product. Each product adopter category has a unique profile. Consumers who are deliberate adopters with many informal social contacts are called
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142. | In terms of the diffusion of innovation, late majority accounts for __________ percent of product adopters.
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143. | As product adopters, members of the late majority
A. | have a fear of debt and use neighbors and friends as information sources. |
B. | are skeptical and have below average social status. |
C. | are deliberate and use many informal social contacts. |
D. | are leaders in social settings and have a slightly above average education. |
E. | are venturesome, highly educated, and use multiple information sources. |
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144. | The concept of the diffusion of innovation shows how a product "diffuses" or spreads through the population over time. The consumer population is divided into five categories of product adopters based on when they adopt (i.e., first buy) a new product. Each product adopter category has a unique profile. Consumers who are skeptical and with below average social status are called
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145. | In terms of the diffusion of innovation, laggards account for __________ percent of product adopters.
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146. | As product adopters, laggards
A. | have a fear of debt and use neighbors and friends as information sources. |
B. | are skeptical and have below average social status. |
C. | are deliberate and use many informal social contacts. |
D. | are leaders in social settings and have a slightly above average education. |
E. | are venturesome, highly educated, and use multiple information sources. |
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147. | The concept of the diffusion of innovation shows how a product "diffuses" or spreads through the population over time. The consumer population is divided into five categories of product adopters based on when they adopt (i.e., first buy) a new product. Each product adopter category has a unique profile. Consumers who have a fear of debt and depend on neighbors and friends as their information sources are called __________ product adopters.
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148. | All of the following are barriers to the adoption of new products except
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149. | There are several reasons a consumer might be reluctant to adopt a new product. For example, a consumer might be reluctant to adopt a new product because of a usage barrier, which occurs when
A. | there is no incentive to change. |
B. | there are physical, economic, or social risks. |
C. | there are cultural differences. |
D. | the financial commitment is too great. |
E. | the product is not compatible with existing habits. |
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150. | If a customer is reluctant to try a new product because he'd have to change his normal everyday behaviors, the company is most likely facing a __________ barrier.
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151. | Which of the following quotes from a new-product adopter would signal the need for a firm to counteract a usage barrier?
A. | "But it might make me fat." |
B. | "What if I can't make the monthly payments?" |
C. | "I don't want to try this if it means I have to swallow it with milk." |
D. | "Big deal, the only difference is the shape of the package." |
E. | "Sure I'll try it; why not!" |
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152. | A new exercise video contends that with one day of fasting and a one-hour period of intense cardiovascular exercise, the average individual can lose five pounds a week and be in peak health within six months of starting the program. __________ barriers could doom the new product to failure because the product's claims are not consistent with how consumers think and behave.
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153. | Several factors explain why a consumer would be reluctant to adopt a new product. For example, a consumer might be reluctant to adopt a new product because of a value barrier, which occurs when
A. | there are physical, economic, or social risks. |
B. | there are cultural differences. |
C. | the financial commitment is too great. |
D. | there is no incentive to change. |
E. | the product is not consistent with existing habits. |
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154. | Imagine that Post Foods introduces a cereal bar—Trail Mix Crunch—just like those Kellogg's and General Mills already have on the market. Post has decided to promote the bars using ads without coupons and to price the bars at about the same price as these other brands. Post Trail Mix Crunch cereal bars will also be distributed to the same stores as the products from Kellogg's and General Mills. Which of the following barriers to new-product adoption will most likely prevent the Post Trail Mix Crunch cereal bars from being a successful product?
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155. | Which of the following quotes from a new-product adopter would signal the need for a firm to counteract a value barrier?
A. | "But it might make me fat." |
B. | "What if I can't make the monthly payments?" |
C. | "I don't want to try this if it means I have to swallow it with milk." |
D. | "Big deal, the only difference is the shape of the package." |
E. | "Sure I'll try it; why not!" |
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156. | If a customer is reluctant to try a new product because she's afraid it might make her ill, the company is most likely facing __________ barrier.
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157. | There are several reasons a consumer would be reluctant to adopt a new product. For example, a consumer might be reluctant to adopt a new product because of a risk barrier, which occurs when
A. | there is no incentive to change. |
B. | there are physical, economic, or social fears. |
C. | there are cultural differences. |
D. | the financial commitment is too great. |
E. | the product is not consistent with existing habits. |
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158. | Which of the following quotes from a new-product adopter would signal the need for a firm to counteract a risk barrier?
A. | "It is against my religion." |
B. | "What if I can't make the monthly payments?" |
C. | "I don't want to try this if it means I have to swallow it with milk." |
D. | "Big deal, the only difference is the shape of the package." |
E. | "Sure I'll try it; why not!" |
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159. | There are several reasons a consumer would be reluctant to adopt a new product. For example, a consumer might be reluctant to adopt a new product because of a psychological barrier, which occurs when
A. | there is no incentive to change. |
B. | there are physical, economic, or social risks. |
C. | there are cultural differences. |
D. | the financial commitment is too great. |
E. | the product is not consistent with existing habits. |
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160. | There are several reasons a consumer would be reluctant to purchase a new product. For example, a consumer might be reluctant to adopt a new product because of a psychological barrier, which occurs when
A. | there is no incentive to change. |
B. | there are physical, economic, or social risks. |
C. | the product is not consistent with existing habits. |
D. | the financial commitment is too great. |
E. | it affects one's image. |
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161. | Which of the following quotes from a new-product adopter would signal the need for a firm to counteract a psychological barrier?
A. | "But it might make me fat." |
B. | "What if I can't make the monthly payments?" |
C. | "I don't want to try this if it means I have to swallow it with milk." |
D. | "Big deal, the only difference is the shape of the package." |
E. | "Sure I'll try it; why not!" |
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162. | All of the following marketing actions can be used by a firm to counteract barriers to product adoption except
A. | offering money-back guarantees. |
B. | targeting new consumers. |
C. | conducting demonstrations. |
D. | offering free samples. |
E. | providing extensive usage instructions. |
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163. | Warranties, money-back guarantees, extensive usage instructions, demonstrations, and free samples are all ways in which companies attempt to overcome barriers to product adoption during the __________ stage of a product's life cycle.
A. | accelerated development |
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164. | Warranties, money-back guarantees, extensive usage instructions, demonstrations, and free samples are all ways in which companies
A. | lose money during the introductory stage of a product's life cycle. |
B. | convince laggards to try a new product. |
C. | recoup research and development costs. |
D. | influence the product life cycle of fashion products. |
E. | attempt to overcome barriers to adoption. |
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165. | Seventy-one percent of consumers consider __________ to be the best way to evaluate a new product.
D. | celebrity endorsements |
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166. | One of the most popular means to gain consumer trial is through
D. | celebrity endorsements. |
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167. | Free samples are one of the most popular means to gain consumer trial. In fact, most consumers consider a sample to
A. | simulate laggard usage of the product. |
B. | be the best way to evaluate a new product. |
C. | be faster than purchasing a product. |
D. | be safer than purchasing a product. |
E. | circumvent the typical adoption cycle. |
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168. | A manufacturer of a new all-natural-ingredient shampoo and conditioner puts free samples of the product in Sunday newspapers to
A. | stimulate laggard usage of the product. |
B. | inhibit the innovation diffusion process. |
C. | encourage product trial and adoption. |
D. | erect product adoption barriers against its competitors. |
E. | circumvent the typical adoption cycle. |
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169. | A product manager is sometimes called a
A. | chief marketing officer (CMO). |
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170. | Consumer packaged goods firms such as General Mills and PepsiCo as well as industrial firms such as Intel and Hewlett-Packard employ a product manager to manage
A. | all of an organization's product items or brands. |
B. | all of an organization's product classes. |
C. | all of an organization's existing products through the stages of their life cycles. |
D. | all products or brands that require close fiscal scrutiny. |
E. | a close-knit family of products or brands. |
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171. | All of the following are responsibilities of a product or brand manager except
A. | engaging in extensive data analysis related to their products and brands. |
B. | developing new products. |
C. | managing existing products through the stages of their life cycles. |
D. | developing and implementing strategies at the corporate level. |
E. | developing and executing a marketing program described in an annual marketing plan for the product line. |
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172. | Managers often use two special indexes to help identify strong and weak market segments in order to provide direction for marketing efforts. One of these indexes is the CDI, or
A. | category development index. |
B. | consumer development index. |
C. | competitive development index. |
D. | channel development index. |
E. | customization development index. |
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173. | Managers often use two special indexes to help identify strong and weak market segments in order to provide direction for marketing efforts. One of these indexes is the BDI, or
A. | business development index. |
B. | brand development index. |
C. | business-portfolio development index. |
D. | buyers development index. |
E. | benchmark development index. |
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174. | Managers often use two special indexes to help identify strong and weak market segments in order to provide direction for marketing efforts. The two indexes, CDI and BDI, stand for
A. | comprehensive demographic inventory and brand designation information. |
B. | consumer demographic index and buyer demographic inventory. |
C. | category development index and brand development index. |
D. | consumer development index and brand development inventory. |
E. | category development index and buyer development inventory. |
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175. | Managers often use two special indexes to help identify strong and weak market segments in order to provide direction for marketing efforts. The two indexes focus on
A. | marketing efficiency and production efficiency. |
B. | dollar market share and unit market share. |
C. | monthly dollar sales by channel and monthly number of units sold by channel. |
D. | sales per square foot and same-store sales growth. |
E. | category development and brand development. |
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176. | If a firm's marketing dashboard displays a CDI over 100 for a consumer packaged good, such as General Mills' Warm Delights Minis, this indicates which of the following?
A. | a weak brand position in a segment |
B. | a strong brand position in a segment |
C. | above-average product category purchases by a market segment |
D. | below-average product category purchases by a market segment |
E. | There is not enough information to make any conclusions. |
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177. | If a firm's marketing dashboard displays a CDI under 100 for a consumer packaged good, such as General Mills' Warm Delights Minis, this indicates which of the following?
A. | a weak brand position in a segment |
B. | a strong brand position in a segment |
C. | above-average product category purchases by a market segment |
D. | below-average product category purchases by a market segment |
E. | There is not enough information to make any conclusions. |
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178. | If a firm's marketing dashboard displays a BDI over 100 for a consumer packaged good, such as General Mills' Warm Delights Minis, this indicates which of the following?
A. | a weak brand position in a segment |
B. | a strong brand position in a segment |
C. | above-average product category purchases by a market segment |
D. | below-average product category purchases by a market segment |
E. | There is not enough information to make any conclusions. |
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179. | If a firm's marketing dashboard displays a BDI under 100 for a consumer packaged good, such as General Mills' Warm Delights Minis, this indicates which of the following?
A. | a weak brand position in a segment |
B. | a strong brand position in a segment |
C. | above-average product category purchases by a market segment |
D. | below-average product category purchases by a market segment |
E. | There is not enough information to make any conclusions. |
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180. | The formula __________ is used to calculate CDI.
A. | (Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment ÷ Percent of a brand's total U.S. sales in a market segment) × 100 |
B. | (Percent of a product category's total U.S. sales in a market segment ÷ Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment) × 100 |
C. | (Percent of a brand's total U.S. sales in a market segment ÷ Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment) × 100 |
D. | (Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment ÷ Percent of a product category's total U.S. sales in a market segment) × 100 |
E. | of the ratio of sales revenue of the firm to the total sales revenue of all firms in the industry, including the firm itself. |
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181. | The formula __________ is used to calculate BDI.
A. | (Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment ÷ Percent of a brand's total U.S. sales in a market segment) × 100 |
B. | (Percent of a product category's total U.S. sales in a market segment ÷ Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment) × 100 |
C. | (Percent of a brand's total U.S. sales in a market segment ÷ Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment) × 100 |
D. | (Percent of the total U.S. population in a market segment ÷ Percent of a product category's total U.S. sales in a market segment) × 100 |
E. | of the ratio of sales revenue of the firm to the total sales revenue of all firms in the industry, including the firm itself. |
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182. | A marketing strategy that alters a product's characteristic, such as its quality, performance, or appearance, to increase its value and sales to customers is referred to as
C. | product repositioning. |
D. | market-product synergy. |
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183. | Product modification refers to a marketing strategy that
A. | alters a product's characteristic, such as its quality, performance, or appearance, to increase its value to customers and to increase sales. |
B. | manages a product's life cycle to increase its use among existing customers, create new use situations, or find new customers. |
C. | tries to find new customers and convince users who abandoned it to purchase again. |
D. | drops the lowest producing market segment and replaces it with an entirely new one. |
E. | combines the lowest producing market segment into others to achieve marketing economies of scale. |
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184. | Which of the following is a product modification strategy?
A. | creating new advertising for a product |
B. | improving a product's quality |
C. | finding a new target market for a product |
D. | creating a new use situation for a product |
E. | altering a product's distribution |
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185. | All of the following are product modification strategies except
B. | improving a product's quality. |
C. | changing a product's appearance. |
D. | creating a new use situation. |
E. | altering a product's performance. |
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186. | When Proctor & Gamble revamped Pantene shampoo and conditioner with a new vitamin formula and relaunched the brand with a multimillion-dollar advertising and promotion campaign, what strategy did it use to manage the product through its life cycle?
C. | market-product synergy |
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187. | Twenty years ago, the Mississippi Gulf Coast was a nice place to vacation with a white sandy beach, golfing opportunities, resort hotels, and good seafood restaurants. With the addition of casinos, the Gulf Coast improved its odds of being a tourist destination for more travelers. This is an example of a __________ strategy.
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188. | Alka-Seltzer was originally made as a hangover remedy that cured a headache and settled the stomach. Today, you can purchase Original Alka-Seltzer, Extra Strength Alka-Seltzer, Alka-Seltzer Morning Relief (for morning headaches and fatigue), and Alka-Seltzer Heartburn Relief, each of which has slightly different ingredients to solve the inherent problem identified in its respective brand names. To broaden the product line to increase sales to new target market segments, the makers of Alka-Seltzer used a __________ strategy.
E. | product class extension |
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189. | DiGiorno rising crust pizza has been available in the freezer sections of supermarkets for quite a while. The product's recent introduction of a DiGiorno cheese-stuffed crust to its line of pizzas is an example of
A. | a market-product grid. |
D. | product class extension. |
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190. | The sale of two or more separate products in one package is referred to as
C. | product repositioning. |
E. | product differentiation. |
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191. | When Wendy's wants to increase the value of its Dave's Hot 'N Juicy cheeseburger to its customers, it combines complementary items (French fries and a soft drink—a medium-sized Coke with the burger) to expedite the ordering process, given the myriad of menu order options available. This product modification approach is called
C. | product repositioning. |
D. | product differentiation. |
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192. | If Procter & Gamble (P&G) were to package a Gillette Fusion ProGlide Razor with its Old Spice Pure Sport Anti-Perspirant & Deodorant, P&G would be engaged in
D. | product repositioning. |
E. | product differentiation. |
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193. | A strategy for managing a product's life cycle that attempts to find new customers, increase a product's use among existing customers, or create new use situations is referred to as
C. | product repositioning. |
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194. | Market modification refers to a marketing strategy that
A. | alters a product's characteristic, such as its quality, performance, or appearance, to increase its value to customers and to increase sales. |
B. | manages a product's life cycle to find new customers, increase a product's use among existing customers, or create new use situations. |
C. | tries to find new customers and convince users who abandoned the product to purchase again. |
D. | drops the lowest producing market segment and replaces it with an entirely new one. |
E. | combines the two lowest producing market segments to achieve marketing economies of scale. |
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195. | All of the following are market modification strategies except
A. | creating a new use situation. |
B. | finding new customers. |
C. | changing a product's appearance. |
D. | targeting new market segments. |
E. | increasing a product's use among existing customers. |
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196. | When Coca-Cola promoted Coke as a morning beverage for those consumers who don't drink coffee, it used a __________ strategy.
C. | market-product extension |
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197. | Major American car manufacturers are offering buying incentives to newly graduated college students who traditionally have little or no credit. Car manufacturers are using which of the following market modification strategies?
B. | creating new use situations |
C. | increasing a product's use by existing customers |
E. | reacting to competitors' positions |
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198. | Mott's applesauce promotes itself as a low-fat alternative to cooking oil for baked goods. Mott's is
A. | finding new users through a product modification strategy. |
B. | increasing use by existing customers through a product modification strategy. |
C. | modifying the product characteristics. |
D. | creating new use situations through a market modification strategy. |
E. | demarketing the product. |
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199. | Changing the place a product occupies in a consumer's mind relative to competitive products is referred to as
C. | product repositioning. |
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200. | All of the following are factors triggering the need for product repositioning except
A. | creating a new use situation. |
B. | reaching a new market. |
C. | catching a rising trend. |
D. | changing the value offered. |
E. | reacting to a competitor's position. |
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201. | Sealy, the self-proclaimed largest manufacturer of mattresses in the United States, recently set out to redefine its place in the bedrooms of America. No longer was it going to be known as simply a mattress company. Now the name Sealy was going to be known as the world's leading "sleep wellness provider." This is an example of
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202. | For many years, Kellogg's Frosted Flakes, a ready-to-eat breakfast cereal, was perceived as a cereal for children. Tony the Tiger, a cartoon character, extolled Frosted Flakes, and advertisements depicted children enjoying the product with Tony in competitive situations. Recently, in response to declining sales of Frosted Flakes, the cereal maker has adopted a new series of advertisements that show adults admitting that they enjoy Frosted Flakes, too. Kellogg's is attempting to
A. | develop a perceptual map for Frosted Flakes. |
B. | reposition Frosted Flakes. |
C. | complete the Frosted Flakes product life cycle. |
D. | introduce a new product line extension for Frosted Flakes. |
E. | position Frosted Flakes. |
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203. | New Balance, Inc., successfully repositioned its athletic shoes to focus on fit, durability, and comfort rather than on going head-on against Nike and Adidas on fashion and professional sports. This product repositioning strategy was designed to
A. | react to a competitor's position. |
B. | reach a new target market segment. |
D. | change the value offered to its customers. |
E. | accommodate its target audience preference for comfortable sneakers. |
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204. | New Balance, Inc., successfully repositioned its athletic shoes to focus on fit, durability, and comfort. This product repositioning strategy was to
C. | change the value offered. |
D. | change its target audience. |
E. | react to a competitor's position. |
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205. | Johnson & Johnson effectively __________ St. Joseph Aspirin from a product for infants to one targeted at adults who may need a low-strength aspirin designed to reduce the risk of heart attacks or strokes.
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206. | Johnson & Johnson effectively repositioned St. Joseph Aspirin as a product for infants to an adult low-strength aspirin to reduce the risk of heart attacks or strokes. This is an example of a product repositioning by
A. | reacting to a competitor's position. |
B. | reaching a new market. |
C. | catching a rising trend. |
D. | changing the value offered. |
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207. | In its recent "You're not you when you're hungry—Snickers satisfies" TV ad campaign, Mars, the maker of the Snickers candy bar, repositioned Snickers from a candy bar dessert-like food to a snack food that can satisfy one's immediate feeling of hunger. Mars used this product repositioning strategy with its Snickers brand to
A. | react to a competitor's position. |
C. | reach a new target market segment. |
D. | change the value offered to its customers. |
E. | implement a global strategy. |
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208. | Procter & Gamble repositioned its Old Spice antiperspirant brand from a deodorant your grandfather might use to a strong, hip antiperspirant through commercials that showed the target market of 18- to 30-year-old men advocating its use. P&G used this product repositioning strategy with its Old Spice brand antiperspirant to
A. | react to a competitor's position. |
C. | change the value offered. |
D. | diversify its product portfolio. |
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209. | An aging baby boomer population has led to increased interest in developing and marketing products to satisfy the needs of this large market. As a result, moisturizing lotions and creams such as Oil of Olay are now repositioned as "age-defying" products. This is an example of which product repositioning action?
B. | reacting to a competitor's position |
D. | changing the value offered |
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210. | Pretzels were first introduced as a salty snack. Later, the product was repositioned as a low-fat snack in order to
A. | respond to a competitor's head-to-head positioning strategy. |
D. | change the value offered. |
E. | change its target audience. |
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211. | Trading up refers to
A. | adding product features but reducing the price. |
B. | changing the distribution channel members to higher-service-quality retailers. |
C. | adding value to the product (or line) through additional features or higher-quality materials. |
D. | reallocating marketing resources from a poor-performing target market to one that demonstrates greater potential for future growth. |
E. | offering consumers a discount when they purchase a more expensive version of the product. |
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212. | Adding value to the product (or line) through additional features or higher-quality materials is referred to as
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213. | Ralston Purina advertises with the following slogan: "Your Pet, Our Passion—Premium Pet Food by Purina." The firm now offers high quality, super-premium cat and dog food based on formulations that promote "life stage nutrition." This line is an example of
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214. | The strategy of trading down involves
A. | adding product features but using lower quality product materials. |
B. | reducing product features but using higher quality product materials or ingredients. |
C. | reducing the number of features, quality, or price of a product. |
D. | seeking a less price-sensitive target market. |
E. | changing to a mass merchandiser retailer such as Walmart or Target. |
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215. | Reducing the number of features, qualities, or price when repositioning a product is referred to as
E. | product simplification. |
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216. | Trading down refers to __________ when repositioning a product.
A. | reducing the number of features, qualities, or price |
B. | reducing the amount of product carried as inventory |
C. | reducing the number of product items in a product line |
D. | redirecting marketing resources from a "cash cow" target market to one that is not performing as well in the hopes of increasing sales and profits |
E. | encouraging consumers through the use of coupons and deals to purchase a firm's lower-priced products |
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217. | Reducing the package content without changing package size while maintaining or increasing the package price is referred to as
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218. | Downsizing reduces the
A. | quality of materials without changing the price. |
B. | product's price along with the quality of the materials. |
C. | package content without changing its size while maintaining or increasing the package price. |
D. | number of product features. |
E. | number of product items in a product line. |
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219. | Georgia-Pacific reduced the content of its Brawny paper towel six-roll pack by 20 percent without lowering the price. Georgia-Pacific used __________ strategy.
E. | a product modification |
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220. | Consumer advocates believe the practice of downsizing by consumer products firms has resulted in
A. | lower product prices for consumers because of lower labor, raw material, and packaging costs. |
B. | a greener environment due to the reduction in the amount of packaging, thereby reducing the amount of waste disposed in landfills. |
C. | fewer product choices for consumers that led to rising prices. |
D. | keeping prices from rising in response to the psychological barriers consumers have developed for downsized products. |
E. | a subtle, deceptive, yet legal practice of disguising a price increase. |
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221. | Which of the following barriers does downsizing try to combat when consumers will adopt a new product or repurchase an existing one?
C. | feature bloat barriers |
D. | psychological barriers |
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222. | An organization's use of a name, phrase, design, symbol, or combination of these to identify its products and distinguish them from those of competitors is referred to as
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223. | The term branding refers to
A. | the licensing of a name, phrase, design, symbol, or combination of these for a period of 17 years, at which time a firm may renew its intellectual property rights to them. |
B. | the value added to the product from the additional features given to a product beyond its functional attributes. |
C. | the identification of an organization's products based upon individual SKUs. |
D. | an organization's use of a name, phrase, design, symbol, or combination of these to identify its products and distinguish them from those of competitors. |
E. | the establishment of a commercial, legal name under which a company does business. |
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224. | Any word, device (design, sound, shape, or color), or combination of these used to distinguish a seller's products or services is referred to as a
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225. | A brand name refers to
A. | a product's identifier that only can be spoken. |
B. | a product's identifier that consists of only the symbol or design that cannot be spoken. |
C. | any word, device (design, sound, shape or color), or combination of these used to distinguish a seller's products or services. |
D. | the commercial, legal name under which a company does business. |
E. | the identification of an organization's products based upon individual SKUs. |
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226. | The stylized blue and white waves that appear in an oval shape on every package of Ocean Spray brand products is an example of a
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227. | The swoosh that appears on every Nike product is an example of a
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228. | A brand name that cannot be spoken is referred to as a
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229. | The silhouette apple image with a bite taken out of it that appears on every Apple product is an example of a
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230. | A trade name refers to
A. | any word, device (design, sound, shape or color), or combination of these used to distinguish a seller's products or services. |
B. | the part of a brand name that can be spoken. |
C. | the legally registered brand name of a firm's product or service that give it exclusive use, thereby preventing competitors from using it. |
D. | the commercial, legal name under which a company does business. |
E. | a logotype plus the brand name. |
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231. | The commercial, legal name under which a company does business is referred to as a
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232. | The Coca-Cola Co. is the __________ of that firm.
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233. | The main difference between a trade name and a trademark is
A. | trade names are licensed while trademarks are not. |
B. | trade names are commercial legal names under which a company does business, while a trademark identifies that a firm has legally registered its brand name. |
C. | a trade name is only the word that is spoken to distinguish a seller's products or services but a trademark consists of both the spoken and unspoken word or mark that distinguishes a seller's products or services. |
D. | a trade name can cover an array of company product items while a trademark can only apply to a single SKU for a product item. |
E. | brand names are protected by law but trademarks are not. |
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234. | Trademark refers to
A. | any word, device (design, sound, shape or color), or combination of these used to distinguish a seller's products or services. |
B. | the part of a brand that can be spoken. |
C. | the part of a brand that is a symbol or design and cannot be vocalized. |
D. | the commercial, legal name under which a company does business. |
E. | the identification that a firm has legally registered its brand name or trade name so the firm has its exclusive use, thereby preventing others from using it. |
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235. | The identification that a firm has legally registered its brand name or trade name so the firm has its exclusive use, thereby preventing others from using it, is referred to as a
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236. | What agency registers the trademarks of a firm?
A. | U.S. Chamber of Commerce Trademark and Servicemark Office |
B. | U.S. Department of Commerce Trademark Registry |
C. | United Nations Global Trademark Clearinghouse |
D. | U.S. Federal Trade Commission—Trademark Division |
E. | U.S. Patent and Trademark Office |
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237. | What federal law protects the trademarks of a firm?
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238. | The primary purpose of a trademark is to
A. | legally protect a product's brand name or trade name and prevent others from using it. |
B. | allow a company to use the brand name on multiple products in its product line. |
C. | legally identify the product as having met government standards for its product item. |
D. | help consumers identify a genuine product from a counterfeit product. |
E. | capitalize on the brand equity a consumer associates with the symbol, sound, or image. |
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239. | The marketing of low-cost copies of popular brands not manufactured by the original producer is referred to as
A. | brand cannibalization. |
D. | product counterfeiting. |
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240. | Counterfeit products steal sales from the original manufacturer or harm the company's reputation. U.S. companies lose about __________ each year to counterfeit products.
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241. | According to the textbook, which of the following is the most counterfeited branded product?
D. | clothing and accessories |
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242. | To counteract counterfeiting, the U.S. government passed the __________ in 2006.
A. | Counterfeiting Prohibition Act |
B. | Counterfeiting and Industrial Espionage Act |
C. | Stop Counterfeiting Act |
D. | Stop Counterfeiting in Manufactured Goods Act |
E. | Unauthorized Manufacturing and Copyright Act |
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243. | When Rose went shopping for a new purse, she thought she had found a real value—a Gucci purse for about 50 percent of what she was expecting to pay. When she looked at it more closely, she noticed that the purse was identical to a Gucci but was not manufactured by Gucci. This was most likely an example of
A. | product counterfeiting. |
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244. | For consumers, the primary benefit of branding is that
A. | products tend to be higher in quality. |
B. | it helps consumers become more efficient shoppers. |
C. | branded items are more readily available in retail outlets. |
D. | branded items are usually more expensive because of the cost to register them with the Federal Trade Commission (FTC). |
E. | they are often rewarded with buyer loyalty incentives. |
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245. | One of the primary benefits of branding for consumers is that branding
A. | identifies products of highest quality. |
B. | guarantees lowest prices. |
C. | makes decision making easier for consumers. |
D. | indicates that products have more features. |
E. | makes advertising unnecessary. |
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246. | A set of human characteristics associated with a brand name is referred to as
C. | a brand psychographic. |
D. | brand personification. |
E. | product personification. |
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247. | Brand personality refers to
A. | the personification of a brand in terms of its benefits. |
B. | a brand name that cannot be spoken. |
C. | a set of human characteristics associated with a brand name. |
D. | the added value a brand name gives to a product beyond the functional benefits provided. |
E. | the embedded association between a company spokesman or paid celebrity and the product itself. |
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248. | When consumers think of Harley-Davidson, the image is of a masculine, nonconformist. With Vespa motor scooters, the image is of a brainy environmentalist. Both Vespa and Harley-Davidson
A. | have brand personalities. |
B. | avoid brand subcultures. |
E. | use product personification. |
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249. | The added value a brand name gives to a product beyond the functional benefits provided is referred to as
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250. | Brand equity refers to
A. | the resources invested to create a name, phrase, design, symbol, or combination of these to identify a firm's products and distinguish them from those of its competitors. |
B. | the difference between the revenues generated and the costs incurred to sell a product. |
C. | increasing the content contained within the brand's package without changing its size or increasing its price. |
D. | the net present value of the royalties the firm receives as a result of licensing its brand to other firms to manufacture and/or market. |
E. | the added value a brand name gives to a product beyond the functional benefits provided. |
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251. | Brand equity is the added value a brand name gives to a product beyond the functional benefits provided. This value has two distinct advantages—it creates a competitive advantage, and
A. | it guarantees the lowest prices. |
B. | decision making becomes easier for consumers. |
C. | there is no need for coupons, discounts, or other customer incentives. |
D. | customers are often willing to pay a higher price. |
E. | new market segments are easily added to the market-product grid. |
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252. | The four steps in the building brand equity are: (1) __________ and an association of the brand in consumers' minds with a product class or need to give the brand an identity; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) creating an intense, active, and loyal consumer-brand connection.
A. | developing positive brand awareness |
B. | lowering the price of products |
C. | easing consumers' decision making |
D. | incorporating higher value in products |
E. | creating market modification |
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253. | The four steps in building brand equity are: (1) developing positive brand awareness and __________; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) creating an intense, active, and loyal consumer-brand connection.
A. | an association of the brand in consumers' minds with a product class or need to give the brand an identity |
B. | lowering the price of products |
C. | easing consumers' decision making |
D. | incorporating higher value in products |
E. | creating market modification |
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254. | The first step in the sequential building process of brand equity involves
A. | developing positive brand awareness. |
B. | creating a consumer-brand connection. |
C. | easing consumers' decision making. |
D. | eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning. |
E. | establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers. |
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255. | The second step in the sequential process of building brand equity is to
A. | develop positive brand awareness. |
B. | establish a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers. |
C. | elicit the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning. |
D. | create a consumer-brand connection. |
E. | reward loyal customer behavior. |
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256. | The four steps in the sequential process of building the brand equity pyramid are: (1) developing positive brand awareness; (2) __________; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) creating an intense, active, and loyal consumer-brand connection.
A. | easing consumers' decision making |
B. | forming a brand personality |
C. | rewarding loyal customer behavior |
D. | establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers |
E. | developing brand licensing criteria |
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257. | The third step in the sequential process of building brand equity is to
A. | develop positive brand awareness. |
B. | establish a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers. |
C. | elicit the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning. |
D. | create a consumer-brand connection. |
E. | reward loyal customer behavior. |
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258. | The four steps in the sequential process of building the brand equity pyramid are: (1) developing positive brand awareness; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) __________; and (4) creating an intense, active, and loyal consumer-brand connection.
A. | forming a brand personality |
B. | easing consumers' decision making |
C. | developing brand licensing criteria |
D. | rewarding loyal customer behavior |
E. | eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning |
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259. | The fourth and last step in the sequential process of building brand equity is to
A. | develop positive brand awareness. |
B. | establish a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers. |
C. | elicit the proper consumer responses to a brands identity and meaning. |
D. | create an intense, active, and loyal consumer-brand connection. |
E. | reward loyal customer behavior. |
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260. | The four steps in the sequential process of building the brand equity pyramid are: (1) developing positive brand awareness; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) __________.
A. | easing consumers' decision making |
B. | forming a brand personality |
C. | creating a consumer-brand connection |
D. | rewarding loyal customer behavior |
E. | developing brand licensing criteria |
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261. | Consider the four steps in the sequential process of building brand equity. The first step is to
A. | create a consumer-brand connection. |
B. | develop positive brand awareness. |
C. | reward loyal customer behavior. |
D. | establish a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers. |
E. | elicit the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning. |
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262. | Consider the four steps in the sequential process of building brand equity. The second step is to establish a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers. This step consists of two dimensions,
A. | brand performance and brand imagery. |
B. | brand identity and brand emotion. |
C. | consumer judgments and consumer feelings. |
D. | brand awareness and consumer-brand connection. |
E. | consumer feelings and brand imagery. |
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263. | Consider the four steps in the sequential process of building brand equity. The third step is to elicit the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning. This step consists of two dimensions,
A. | brand identity and brand emotion. |
B. | brand performance and brand imagery. |
C. | consumer judgments and consumer feelings. |
D. | brand awareness and consumer-brand connection. |
E. | consumer feelings and brand imagery. |
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264. | Consider the four steps in the sequential process of building brand equity. The fourth and last step is to
A. | elicit the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning. |
B. | develop positive brand awareness. |
C. | reward loyal customer behavior. |
D. | establish a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers. |
E. | create a consumer-brand connection. |
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265. | Brand equity provides a financial advantage for a brand's owner because successful, established brand names have an economic value in the sense that they are
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266. | A contractual agreement whereby one company (licensor) allows its brand name or trademark to be used with products or services offered by another company (licensee) for a royalty or fee is referred to as
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267. | Brand licensing refers to
A. | the registration fee paid by a manufacturer to states, provinces, or countries in order to sell its products there. |
B. | a branding strategy in which the producer dictates the brand name to retailers for the products sold to their respective markets. |
C. | a branding strategy in which a company uses one name for all of its products. |
D. | a contractual agreement whereby a company allows another firm to use its brand name or trademark with its products or services for a royalty or fee. |
E. | a branding strategy in which manufacturers produce products but sell them under the brand name of a wholesaler or retailer. |
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268. | Mattel has a contractual agreement to let Colgate use the Barbie name and image on kids' toothpaste and toothbrushes. Colgate pays Mattel a fee for the use of the Barbie name and image. This is an example of
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269. | Kemps makes Life Savers Real Fruit Sherbet (with the flavors of a favorite childhood candy). Kemps had to pay Wrigley, the owner of the Life Savers brand name, a fee to market this concoction. This is most likely an example of
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270. | Ralph Lauren has a long-term __________ agreement with Luxottica Group, S.p.A., of Milan for the design, production, and worldwide distribution of prescription frames and sunglasses under the Ralph Lauren brand. The agreement is an ideal fit for both companies. Ralph Lauren is a leader in the design, marketing, and distribution of premium lifestyle products. Luxottica is the global leader in the premium and luxury eyewear sector.
C. | multiproduct branding licensing |
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271. | When selecting a brand name, it should: (1) __________; (2) be memorable, distinctive, and positive; (3) fit the company or product image; (4) have no legal or regulatory restrictions; (5) be simple and emotional; and (6) have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages.
A. | never have a humorous connotation |
B. | suggest the product benefits |
C. | not be easily imitated |
E. | easy to spell and pronounce |
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272. | The Make a Wish Foundation brand name is especially effective because it
A. | is easy to spell and pronounce. |
B. | is not easily imitated. |
C. | suggests the service's benefits. |
D. | demands a hint of moral obligation. |
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273. | Which of the following products has the brand name that best suggests its benefit according to the six criteria for selecting a good brand name?
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274. | When selecting a brand name, it should: (1) suggest the product benefits; (2) __________; (3) fit the company or product image; (4) have no legal or regulatory restrictions; (5) be simple and emotional; and (6) have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages.
A. | never have a humorous connotation |
B. | be easy to spell and pronounce |
C. | not be easily imitated |
E. | be memorable, distinctive, and positive |
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275. | When selecting a brand name, it should: (1) suggest the product benefits; (2) be memorable, distinctive, and positive; (3) __________; (4) have no legal or regulatory restrictions; (5) be simple and emotional; and (6) have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages.
A. | never have a humorous connotation |
B. | be easy to spell and pronounce |
C. | fit the company or product image |
D. | not be easily imitated |
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276. | In 1984, IBM launched the "PCjr," its first low-priced, educational/home personal computer. Sales were poor because IBM most likely violated which criterion of picking a good brand name?
A. | The name was not distinctive nor memorable. |
B. | The name did not fit the company image. |
C. | The name had too many legal restrictions. |
D. | The name was too confusing with both capital and lowercase letters. |
E. | The name failed to suggest the product benefits. |
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277. | When selecting a brand name, it should: (1) suggest product benefits; (2) be memorable, distinctive, and positive; (3) fit the company or product image; (4) __________; (5) be simple and emotional; and (6) have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages.
A. | never have a humorous connotation |
B. | be easy to spell and pronounce |
D. | not be easily imitated |
E. | have no legal or regulatory restrictions |
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278. | When selecting a brand name, it should suggest the product benefits; be memorable, distinctive, and positive; fit the company or product image; be simple and emotional; __________; and have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages.
A. | be humorous or mysterious |
B. | have no legal or regulatory restrictions |
C. | be easy to spell and pronounce |
D. | contain no hidden meanings |
E. | suggest an air of mystery |
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279. | Kellogg's changed the name of its Heartwise cereal to Fiberwise most likely to
A. | respond to a changing public interest from heart to intestinal health issues. |
B. | convey a stronger product image, since "heart" implied sentimentality and "fiber" implied strength. |
C. | comply with Food and Drug Administration guidelines on the use of the word "heart" in food brand names. |
D. | avoid a lawsuit by the maker of HeartPro Organic Cereal because it claimed the names and benefits were too similar. |
E. | complement its new line of breakfast fiber bars. |
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280. | The lemon-lime carbonated soft drink 7Up has been very successful in the United States. Dr Pepper/Seven Up, Inc., the maker of 7Up, uses a family branding strategy to market 7Up worldwide. In Shanghai, China, sales have suffered since the brand name means "death through drinking." When picking a good brand name, which criterion did Dr Pepper/Seven Up, Inc., violate when it chose to use a family branding strategy to market 7Up in China?
A. | The name should have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages. |
B. | The name should be simple. |
C. | The name should have no governmental restrictions. |
D. | The name should suggest the product's benefits. |
E. | The name should not be difficult to spell or pronounce. |
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281. | IKEA sells a portable workbench called the Fahrtfull. The product has many positive features, and in German or Swedish markets, the name describes the product's features well (fahrt meaning travel). This brand name in the United States, however, may not be as effective due to
A. | disappointment when the product fails to perform as the brand name implies. |
B. | the poor attempt at humor, which makes consumers question product quality. |
C. | governmental restrictions on brand names that read or sound like bodily functions. |
D. | its unfavorable phonetic and semantic associations in English. |
E. | difficulty in showing "fahrtfull" in German and Swedish advertising. |
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282. | The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office website allows you to
A. | see if a brand or trade name has been registered. |
B. | view the list of brand franchises approved. |
C. | view the status of trademark infringement lawsuits. |
D. | copyright a book without having to use a lawyer. |
E. | buy unused trademarks. |
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283. | Companies can choose from among several different branding strategies, which include: (1) __________, (2) multibranding, (3) private branding, or (4) and mixed branding.
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284. | Companies can choose from among several different branding strategies, which include: (1) multiproduct branding, (2) __________, (3) private branding, and (4) mixed branding.
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285. | Companies can choose from among several different branding strategies, which include: (1) multiproduct branding, (2) multibranding, (3) __________, and (4) mixed branding.
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286. | Companies can choose from among several different branding strategies, which include: (1) multiproduct branding, (2) multibranding, (3) private branding, and (4) __________.
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287. | Companies can choose from several different branding strategies. Companies such as Sears, with brands its Kenmore appliances and Craftsman tools, are using a __________ strategy.
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288. | Companies can choose from several different branding strategies. Companies such as Michelin with Michelin tires and Sears tires are using a __________ strategy.
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289. | Companies can choose from several different branding strategies. Companies such as Toro, with Toro snowblowers, Toro mowers, and Toro garden hoses, are using a __________ strategy.
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290. | Companies can choose from several different branding strategies. Companies such as Procter & Gamble, with its Tide, Cheer, and Ivory Snow laundry detergents, are using a __________ strategy.
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291. | A branding strategy in which a company uses one name for all its products in a product class is referred to as
E. | multiproduct branding. |
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292. | Multiproduct branding refers to a branding strategy
A. | that involves giving each product a distinct name when each brand is intended for a different market segment. |
B. | that uses different brand names for the same product across multiple countries. |
C. | in which a company uses one name for all its products in a product class. |
D. | in which manufacturers produce products but sell them under the brand name of a wholesaler or retailer. |
E. | in which a company uses a contractual agreement to allow someone else to use its brand name for a fee. |
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293. | Which of the following is a multiproduct branding strategy?
B. | product line extensions |
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294. | Another name for multiproduct branding is
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295. | The Toro Co. makes Toro snowblowers, Toro lawn mowers, Toro yard tools, and Toro sprinkler systems. The Toro Co. uses a __________ strategy.
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296. | Another name for multiproduct branding is
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297. | Every product manufactured by the maker of Slim-Fast carries the Slim-Fast brand name. This company uses
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298. | When a company uses a product line extension, it
A. | markets a product under a new brand name so that consumers will view it as an entirely new product line. |
B. | markets a new product with the current brand name to enter a new market segment in its product class. |
C. | speeds up the movement of a product through its product life cycle. |
D. | contracts with another firm to manufacture modified versions of the original products. |
E. | applies the current brand name to enter a completely different product class. |
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299. | When a company sells a new product with the current brand name to enter a new market segment in its product class, it is using a __________ strategy.
E. | product line extension |
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300. | Which of the following statements about product line extensions is most accurate?
A. | A product line extension strategy typically leads to increased advertising costs. |
B. | There are no risks associated with a product line extension strategy. |
C. | When the Clorox Co. joins with Kroger supermarkets to advertise Clorox products in a local newspaper, it is engaged in a product line extension. |
D. | A product line extension is a form of multiproduct branding. |
E. | A product line extension is a form of multibranding. |
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301. | All of the following are true about product line extensions except
A. | this strategy can result in lower advertising and promotion costs. |
B. | a risk that comes with product line extensions is that sales of an extension may come at the expense of other items in the company's product line. |
C. | a product line extension raises the level of brand awareness. |
D. | line extensions work best when they provide incremental company revenue by taking sales away from competing brands. |
E. | product line extensions involve using a current brand name to enter a different product class. |
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302. | Bayer Aspirin is sold in the original strength, in a safety-coated version, in an extra-strength version, and in a version designed especially for women. Bayer is using a __________ strategy.
A. | product item expansion |
C. | product line extension |
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303. | Combining a corporate or family brand with a new brand to distinguish a part of its product line from others is referred to as
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304. | Subbranding involves
A. | having one firm manufacture a product and a second firm distribute it all under the same name. |
B. | changing a brand name of a product line extension product by making it "New and Improved!" |
C. | combining a corporate brand with a new brand to distinguish a part of its product line from others. |
D. | creating a knockoff version of a product and changing the spelling of the name (chicken to "chikin" as is the case with Chick-Fil-A). |
E. | using the same name for the original product and all subsequent product line and brand extensions. |
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305. | Gatorade successfully used a __________ strategy when it introduced Gatorade G2.
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306. | Nike has successfully used __________ with its lines Air Jordan and Air Lebron.
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307. | Tylenol successfully used __________ with the introduction of Tylenol→Arthritis, Tylenol→Sinus and Allergy, Tylenol→Cold and Flu, and Tylenol→Pain and Sleeplessness.
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308. | Brand extensions is the practice of
A. | manufacturing a product under a new name that consumers will view as an entirely new product line. |
B. | manufacturing a new product with the same brand name for a new market segment in the same product class. |
C. | manufacturing accessory products for the base offering, such as Barbie clothes for Barbie dolls. |
D. | licensing another firm to manufacture modified versions of the original product. |
E. | applying the current brand name to enter a completely different product class. |
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309. | A risk with __________ is that too many uses for one brand name can dilute the meaning of a brand for consumers.
B. | product line extensions |
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310. | Consider the Huggies range of products for babies and very young children. Kimberly-Clark has successfully leveraged the strong Huggies brand image among mothers in its use of __________ when it introduced a full line of baby and toddler toiletries.
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311. | Multibranding refers to a branding strategy in which a firm
A. | gives each product a distinct name when each brand is intended for a different market segment. |
B. | uses different brand names for the same product across multiple countries. |
C. | uses one name for all its products in a product class. |
D. | produces products but sells them under the brand name of a wholesaler or retailer. |
E. | contractually, and for a fee, allows other firms to use its brand name, requiring that the product be made to its specifications. |
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312. | A branding strategy that involves giving each product a distinct name when each brand is intended for a different market segment is referred to as
A. | product differentiation branding. |
D. | segmentation branding. |
E. | multiproduct branding. |
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313. | A manufacturer's branding strategy in which a distinct brand name is given to each of its products is referred to as
A. | multiproduct branding. |
C. | product differentiation branding. |
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314. | Black & Decker uses a __________ strategy to reach the do-it-yourself market with the Black & Decker brand name and the professional construction market with the DeWalt brand name.
A. | product differentiation branding |
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315. | Mars, Inc., sells Snickers, Milky Way, Twix, Skittles, Dove, Starburst, M&Ms, and Three Musketeer candy. This variety of brand names is typical of a __________ strategy.
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316. | Seiko makes watches. It markets its higher quality watches under the Seiko or LaSalle brand name and its lower-priced watches are sold under the Pulsar brand. Seiko uses a __________ strategy.
B. | product differentiation branding |
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317. | New product brands introduced as defensive moves to counteract and confront a firm's competition are referred to as
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318. | A __________ is a brand strategy designed to counteract or confront competitors' brands.
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319. | Despite the success of its Pentium chips, Intel faced a major threat from competitors such as AMD's K6 chips, which were cheaper and better placed to serve the emerging low-cost PC market. Intel wanted to protect the brand equity and price premium of its Pentium microprocessors, but it also wanted to avoid AMD gaining a foothold into the lower end of the market. So it created Celeron as a cheaper, less powerful version of its Pentium chips to serve this market. This is a notable example of a
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320. | Advertising and promotion costs tend to be higher with a __________ strategy because the company must generate awareness among consumers and retailers for each new brand name without the benefit of any previous impressions.
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321. | Which of the following is not true about a multibranding strategy?
A. | With a multibranding strategy, there is no risk that a product failure will affect other products in the line. |
B. | Some large firms have found that the complexity and expense of implementing a multibranding strategy outweigh its benefits. |
C. | With a multibranding strategy, each brand is unique to each market segment. |
D. | A multibranding strategy is used when a firm produces products and sells them under the brand name of a wholesaler or retailer. |
E. | Some multibrands are introduced to confront competitors' brands. |
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322. | A company uses __________ when it manufactures products but sells them under the brand name of a wholesaler or retailer.
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323. | Private branding refers to a branding strategy in which a firm
A. | gives each product a distinct name when each brand is intended for a different market segment. |
B. | uses different brand names for the same product across multiple countries. |
C. | uses one name for all its products in a product class. |
D. | produces products but sells them under the brand name of a wholesaler or retailer. |
E. | contractually, and for a fee, allows other firms to use its brand name, requiring that the product be made to its specifications. |
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324. | Private branding is also referred to as private labeling or
E. | multiproduct branding. |
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325. | Thirty-six percent of sales at supermarkets in the United Kingdom carry the stores' own brand names. Eighteen percent of all supermarket sales in France and Germany carry the stores' own brand names. And in the United States, 14 percent carry the stores' own brand names. These stores use a __________ strategy to sell other manufacturers' products with their own brand names.
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326. | Mixed branding refers to a branding strategy in which a firm
A. | gives each product a distinct name when each brand is intended for a different market segment. |
B. | uses different brand names for the same product across multiple countries. |
C. | uses one name for all its products in a product class. |
D. | produces products but sell them under the brand name of a wholesaler or retailer. |
E. | markets some products under its own name(s) and other products under the name of a reseller because the segment attracted to the reseller is different from its own market. |
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327. | A branding strategy in which a firm markets some products under its own name(s) and other products under the name of a reseller because the segment attracted to the reseller is different from its own market is referred to as
E. | multiproduct branding. |
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328. | A manufacturer can successfully use mixed branding because
A. | it involves giving each product a distinct brand name. |
B. | the segment attracted to the reseller product is different from its own targeted market segment. |
C. | the company uses one name for all of its products for the sake of simplicity. |
E. | it produces lower profits for the reseller and higher profits for the manufacturer. |
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329. | Any container in which a product is offered for sale and on which information is communicated is referred to as
A. | a point-of-purchase display. |
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330. | Packaging
A. | is any box, bottle, jar, can, carton, or bag that can be used for transporting services. |
B. | is any container in which a product is offered for sale and on which label information is communicated. |
C. | is that part of a product that is not recycled. |
D. | identifies the product or brand, who made it, where and when it was made, how it is to be used, and the contents and ingredients. |
E. | is any container used in the preservation of ideas. |
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331. | An integral part of the package that typically identifies the product or brand, who made it, where and when it was made, how it is to be used, and package contents and ingredients is referred to as
B. | a product information panel. |
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332. | Which of the following statements regarding labels is most accurate?
A. | Although labels are can carry useful information, the less information communicated, the better. |
B. | The brand logo or brand name should always be the largest image on a label. |
C. | Labels can be very expensive, but they are important because they often are the first contact the consumer has with the product. |
D. | The best labels to use on food products are those that can be easily removed to promote recycling of the package. |
E. | One penny for every dollar consumers spend on products goes toward packaging and labeling costs. |
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333. | Customer value can assume numerous forms. For Pez Candy, Inc., customer value manifests itself in the form of
B. | character candy dispensers. |
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334. | Pez was originally sold in Europe as an adult
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335. | Pez was originally sold in Europe as __________ in plain headless dispensers. The product got its name from the German word pfefferminz, which means peppermint.
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336. | The central element of the marketing strategy for Pez Candy, Inc., is the
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337. | Among teenagers, Pez has a __________ percent awareness level.
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338. | The three main benefits packaging provides to manufacturers, retailers, and consumers are communication benefits, perceptual benefits, and __________ benefits.
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339. | Directions on how and when to use a product and information about the source and composition of a product that appear on packaging labels provide what kind of benefits?
A. | communication benefits |
E. | self-realization benefits |
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340. | The communication aspect of packaging on a can of Campbell's soup would most likely be of the greatest benefit to
A. | people in a hurry to get to work. |
B. | people on a tight budget. |
C. | people with dietary restrictions. |
D. | people who are brand loyal. |
E. | people who love to try new things. |
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341. | Packaging that provides convenience, product quality, protection, or easy storage offers what kind of benefits?
A. | communication benefits |
D. | physiological benefits |
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342. | Product packaging, such as the Pringles cylindrical package, is one example of the product's
C. | communication benefits. |
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343. | Products such as Yoplait's Go-GURT® portable low-fat yogurt in a tube demonstrate the importance of the __________ of packaging.
B. | communication benefits |
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344. | Hillside coffee comes in single-serving, self-heating containers. Not only does this benefit people on the go, it is a popular product with people in areas prone to hurricanes or blizzards because they can still have hot coffee when there is no electricity. This demonstrates which benefit of good packaging?
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345. | When they were first introduced, peel-back aluminum seals were seen as a great alternative to using a traditional can opener to open cans because many people sliced their fingers with can openers. As soon as the technology became more widely available, many manufacturers switched to this safer, more flexible seal. This packaging innovation demonstrated the importance of a
C. | communication benefit. |
E. | psychological benefit. |
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346. | Which of the following statements about perceptual benefits conveyed by a product's packaging and labeling is not true?
A. | Global brands can benefit from "country of origin or manufacture" perceptions since consumers tend to hold ethnocentric stereotypes about country-product pairings that they judge "best." |
B. | Packaging and labeling have been shown to enhance brand recognition and facilitate the formation of strong, favorable, and unique brand associations. |
C. | Packaging and labeling satisfy the legal requirements for the conveyance of information. |
D. | Changes in packaging and labeling can uphold a brand's image in consumers' minds. |
E. | The color, shape, and graphics of a package or label distinguish one brand from another. |
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347. | The belief that products originating from one country would be of better or worse quality than the products from another country illustrates the __________ benefits that packaging information can provide.
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348. | The Reynolds Wrap aluminum foil box has two side tabs that say "Press Here to Lock Roll" to keep the roll of foil in place during use. This demonstrates which elements of good packaging?
A. | perceptual benefits and functional benefits |
B. | protection benefits and functional benefits |
C. | communication benefits and perceptual benefits |
D. | communication benefits and functional benefits |
E. | functional benefits and protection benefits |
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349. | Four key challenges that package and label designers face are: (1) __________; (2) environmental concerns; (3) health, safety, and security issues; and (4) cost reduction.
A. | governmental regulations |
B. | cultural and societal issues |
C. | competition from global markets |
D. | connecting with customers |
E. | patent and trademark issues |
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350. | Four key challenges that package and label designers face are: (1) connecting with customers; (2) __________; (3) health, safety, and security issues; and (4) cost reduction.
A. | governmental regulations |
B. | environmental concerns |
C. | competition from global markets |
D. | patent and trademark issues |
E. | cultural and societal issues |
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351. | Four key challenges that package and label designers face are: (1) connecting with customers; (2) environmental concerns; (3) __________; and (4) cost reduction.
A. | health, safety, and security issues |
B. | competition from global markets |
C. | patent and trademark issues |
D. | governmental regulations |
E. | cultural and societal issues |
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352. | Four key challenges that package and label designers face are: (1) connecting with customers; (2) environmental concerns; (3) health, safety, and security issues; and (4) __________.
A. | social and societal issues |
B. | competition from global markets |
D. | governmental regulations |
E. | diminishing color, symbol, and trademark selections |
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353. | To better connect with its customers, Kraft did what with its Chips Ahoy! cookies?
A. | gave the products a more interesting brand personality |
B. | created additional brand extensions, such as adding chocolate dipped and mint dipped cookies |
C. | engaged in a co-branding effort with Blue Bell ice cream |
D. | complied with ISO 9000 total quality management guidelines due to its expansion into Asian markets |
E. | created a patented resealable opening in the bag for easy access and to maintain freshness |
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354. | The environmental challenges of packaging and labeling are often global in nature. These include all of the following except
A. | the shortage of viable landfill sites. |
B. | growth of solid waste. |
C. | the composition of packaging materials. |
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355. | The challenges of packaging and labeling are often global. One particular challenge facing global manufacturers involves
A. | creating larger size packages to be sold at warehouse stores. |
B. | creating packaging sensitive to educational diversity. |
C. | addressing ongoing environmental concerns. |
D. | ensuring ISO 19000 total quality management within national boundaries. |
E. | making packaging an irrelevant part of a firm's marketing strategy. |
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356. | The challenges of packaging and labeling are often global. Two of the particular types of challenges facing global manufacturers are health and safety concerns and
A. | making packaging a less expensive part of the marketing strategy. |
B. | creating larger size packages to be sold at warehouse stores. |
C. | ensuring total quality management across national boundaries. |
D. | creating packaging sensitive to cultural diversity. |
E. | addressing ongoing environmental concerns. |
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357. | The time a product can be stored before it spoils is referred to as its
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358. | A statement indicating the liability of the manufacturer for product deficiencies is referred to as a
B. | consumer bill of rights. |
C. | product liability statement. |
D. | manufacturer's disclaimer. |
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359. | All of the following are types of warranties discussed in the textbook except
A. | limited-coverage warranty. |
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360. | A written statement of manufacturer liability is referred to as __________ warranty.
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361. | Express warranties
A. | provide a written statement of manufacturer liability. |
B. | state the bounds of coverage and, more important, areas of noncoverage. |
C. | have no limits of noncoverage. |
D. | assign responsibility for product deficiencies to the manufacturer. |
E. | assign responsibility for product deficiencies on misuse to the consumer. |
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362. | Warranties that specifically state the bounds of coverage and, more important, areas of noncoverage are referred to as __________ warranties.
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363. | A limited-coverage warranty
A. | provides a written statement of manufacturer liability. |
B. | states the bounds of coverage and, more important, areas of noncoverage. |
C. | has no limits of noncoverage. |
D. | assigns responsibility for product deficiencies to the manufacturer. |
E. | assigns responsibility for product deficiencies on misuse to the consumer. |
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364. | Warranties that have no limits of noncoverage are called __________ warranties.
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365. | A full warranty
A. | provides a written statement of manufacturer liability. |
B. | states the bounds of coverage and, more important, areas of noncoverage. |
C. | has no limits of noncoverage. |
D. | assigns responsibility for product deficiencies to the manufacturer. |
E. | assigns responsibility for product deficiencies on misuse to the consumer. |
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366. | Warranties that assign responsibility for product deficiencies to the manufacturer are called __________ warranties.
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367. | An implied warranty
A. | provides a written statement of manufacturer liability. |
B. | states the bounds of coverage and, more important, areas of noncoverage. |
C. | has no limits of noncoverage. |
D. | assigns responsibility for product deficiencies to the manufacturer. |
E. | assigns responsibility for product deficiencies on misuse to the consumer. |
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368. | Which of the following statements regarding warranties is most accurate?
A. | Limited-coverage warranties are required for all manufactured products but not for services. |
B. | Full warranties are required for all products and services regardless of the size of the firm. |
C. | Warranties protect consumers but have limited benefits to producers. |
D. | Brands with limited warranty coverage tend to receive less positive evaluations. |
E. | Warranties are relatively unimportant in light of product liability claims. |
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369. | Secret deodorant maintains its leadership position as one of many products in what is typically considered a __________ product category.
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370. | The marketers used all of the following "ignitions" to spark interest in the Secret deodorant brand with consumers except
A. | paid search on Google, Bing, and/or Yahoo! |
D. | its website, secret.com. |
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371. | The "Mean Stinks" ignition was designed to primarily reach which segment of prospective customers?
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Short Answer Questions
372. | Identify and describe the stages of the generalized product life cycle. For each stage, specify the marketing objective a firm should attempt to achieve.
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373. | Explain the difference between primary demand and selective demand.
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374. | Describe the decline stage of the product life cycle. Explain the two strategies a company might employ if its product were in the decline stage of its product life cycle.
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375. | How long is a product life cycle? What determines its length?
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376. | What are the five shapes that a product life cycle can take? For each type, describe (as an option, draw) its characteristics.
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377. | Describe the concept of diffusion of innovation. Identify the category and incidence in the population for each product adopter.
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378. | Compare the three ways to manage a product through its product life cycle.
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379. | Explain the difference between trading up and trading down when repositioning a product.
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380. | For more than 30 years, Starkist put 6.5 ounces of tuna into its regular-sized can. Today, Starkist puts only 6.125 ounces of tuna into the same-size can but charges the same price. Georgia-Pacific reduced the content of its Brawny paper towel six-roll pack by 20 percent without lowering the price. There are two sides to the ethical argument about this practice: that of consumer advocates and that of manufacturers. What is the practice called and what is the basic position of each side?
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381. | What is the difference between a brand name and a trade name? Give an example of each.
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382. | Describe a brand name and explain how it is related to a logo.
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383. | Define brand equity. List the four sequential steps used to develop brand equity. Which step is the most difficult?
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384. | What six criteria are mentioned most often in selecting a good brand name? Give an example of a brand name that illustrates each criterion.
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385. | Identify and describe the four branding strategies that product and brand managers use.
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386. | What is multiproduct branding? What are its advantages? Disadvantages?
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387. | What is the difference between multiproduct branding and multibrand strategies? What advantages are offered by each of these two approaches?
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388. | Explain the following statement: "Packaging provides communication, functional, and perceptual benefits for manufacturers, retailers, and consumers."
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389. | A billboard showed simply the shape of a bottle. Typically consumers were able to tell that the ad was for Coca-Cola. Why were consumers able to identify the brand? Specifically, what packaging benefit does Coca-Cola use?
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390. | Why are warranties important from the perspectives of both consumers and manufacturers?
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