4th Edition Essential Social Psychology 4e Test Bank docx - Complete Test Bank Essential Social Psychology 4e with Answers by Richard J. Crisp. DOCX document preview.
Test Bank
Chapter 1: History, methods and approaches
1. Who helped lay the foundations for modern social psychology?
a. Gordon Allport
b. Henri Tajfel
c. Richard Crisp
d. Auguste Comte
2. The first social psychology experiment is thought to have been conducted by ______.
a. Henri Tajfel
b. Gustav LeBon
c. Norman Triplett
d. Stanley Milgram
3. When were the first textbooks of social psychology published?
a. 1700s
b. 1800s
c. 1900s
d. 2000s
4. LaPierre’s 1934 attitudes study showed that ______.
a. attitudes do not always predict emotions
b. attitudes always predict behaviour
c. attitude always predicts emotions
d. attitudes do not always predict behaviour
5. Allport’s The Nature of Prejudice proposed ______.
a. the Contact Hypothesis
b. the Minimal Group Paradigm
c. the Theory of Planned Behaviour
d. the Common Ingroup Identity Model
6. Which of the following are types of data examined by social psychologists?
a. quantitative data
b. qualitative data
c. archival
d. all of these
7. Which of the following are research methodologies used by social psychologists?
a. response time methods
b. interviews
c. neuroscience
d. all of these
8. Archival data involves testing hypothesis by ______.
a. looking at existing data
b. reading newspapers
c. conducting interviews
d. conducting surveys
9. A correlational study involves ______.
a. manipulating a variable and seeing if it affects a dependent measure
b. reading newspapers
c. measuring two variables and seeing if they are related
d. conducting interviews
10. Which one of the following qualifies as an experiment?
a. an interview
b. archival research
c. a study in which multiple attitude measures are taken
d. a study in which two groups receive different instructions
An experiment involves manipulating one variable, which we call the independent variable, and then seeing whether this has an effect on a second variable, which we refer to as the dependent variable.
11. ______ are conscious, deliberative and controllable, and are usually captured by traditional measures in which participants report how positive or negative their attitudes, feelings or stereotypes are towards members of another group.
a. Explicit attitudes
b. Implicit attitudes
c. Dependent attitudes
d. Surveys
12. ______ are attitudes that are unintentionally activated by the mere presence (actual or symbolic) of an attitude object.
a. Explicit attitudes
b. Implicit attitudes
c. Dependent attitudes
d. Surveys
13. Implicit attitudes are thought to develop through ______.
a. reasoned action
b. spontaneous action
c. repeated pairings
d. spontaneous pairings
14. A technique used to measure implicit attitudes is ______.
a. the MGP
b. the ITA
c. the MTP
d. the IAT
15. An experiment must include ______.
a. a table and chairs
b. a computer
c. a questionnaire
d. none of these
16. Experiments are high on internal validity because ______.
a. the conditions can be replicated by other experimenters
b. they involve an independent as well as dependent variable
c. they involve numeric observations that can be statistically analysed
d. they are carried out inside laboratories
17. Experiments lack ______ .
a. internal validity
b. confounding variables
c. numerical accuracy
d. external validity
18. Demand characteristics can lead to ______.
a. the participant guessing the experiment’s purpose
b. an experiment being confounded by experimenter expectations
c. the experiment being too demanding
d. none of these
19. ______ is a problem for field studies.
a. Demand characteristics
b. Low internal validity
c. Low external validity
d. Experimenter effects
20. Forms of qualitative data collection include ______.
a. structured interviews
b. semi-structured interviews
c. focus groups
d. all of these
21. ______ is an approach that entails collecting data that aims to develop theory about systems of meaning in different cultures.
a. Ethnographic research
b. Semi-structured interviews
c. Grounded theory
d. Critical social psychology
22. An example of critical social psychology is ______.
a. social identity theory
b. ethnographic theory
c. discursive psychology
d. sociological psychology
23. ______ allow you maximum control over other variables.
a. Field experiments
b. Laboratory experiments
c. Correlational research
d. Case studies
24. ______ maximise internal validity.
a. Field experiments
b. Laboratory experiments
c. Correlational research
d. Case studies
25. ______ involve examining the effect of a manipulated variable on a dependent variable.
a. Field experiments
b. Laboratory experiments
c. Correlational studies
d. Case studies
26. ______ enables one to reduce the possible influence of demand characteristics.
a. Double-blind procedures
b. Deception
c. the minimal group paradigm
d. all of these
27. If deception is used, the experimenter must make sure that ______.
a. participants are fully debriefed at the end of the study
b. the deception causes no physical nor psychological harm
c. informed consent has been obtained prior to the commencement of the study
d. all of these
28. ______ involve measuring the relationship between one variable and another
a. Field experiments
b. Laboratory experiments
c. Correlational studies
d. Case studies
29. Which of the following typically don’t employ quantitative methods?
a. field experiments
b. laboratory experiments
c. correlational research
d. case studies
30. Which of the following employ qualitative methods?
a. field experiments
b. laboratory experiments
c. discourse analysis
d. all of these
Chapter 2: Attribution
1. A(n) ______ attribution is one which locates the cause of some behaviour as being within the perceiver, i.e., due to personality, mood, attributes, or abilities.
a. external
b. situational
c. internal
d. outward
2. Attributions are often distinguished on the basis of whether they are perceived to be caused by internal or external factors. As well as internal versus external attributions, attributions can also be subdivided in terms of ______.
a. stability and controllability
b. forward and backward
c. retrospective and prospective
d. stability and ability
3. Jones and Davis (1965) suggest that people prefer to make internal attributions. Why is this?
a. because internal attributions are faster
b. because internal attributions are perceived to be better for predicting behaviour
c. because people don’t like thinking about situational factors
d. because internal attributions make the perceiver feel better
4. Kelley’s covariation model suggests that three types of information are important for arriving at internal or external attributions. Which of the following is NOT one of the three that Kelley mentions?
a. consensus
b. consistency
c. dissonance
d. distinctiveness
5. The fundamental attribution error suggests that people tend to make ______ attributions over ______ attributions.
a. internal; stable
b. external; stable
c. external; internal
d. internal; external
6. It is thought that perceptual salience may provide an explanation for the actor-bias, because Storms (1973) demonstrated that there was reversal in the effect (perceivers became more likely to make internal attribution about themselves and external attributions about others) when they were ______.
a. shown videotapes of the opposite perspective before making their attributions
b. made to do task with their eyes closed
c. given chocolate as a reward for the task
d. asked to wear ear-plugs during the task
7. The self-serving attribution bias says that perceivers are more likely to make ______ attributions for their successes and ______ attributions for their failures.
a. internal, external
b. external, internal
c. internal, internal
d. external, external
8. Correspondent inference theory suggests that people assess which of the following factors when making a dispositional attribution?
a. consistency, consensus, distinctiveness
b. consistency, social desirability, distinctiveness
c. uniqueness of effects, social desirability, choice
d. social desirability, consistency, uniqueness of effects
9. Which of the following models details the processes that result in external as well as internal attributions?
a. covariation model
b. correspondent inference theory
c. both covariation model and correspondent inference theory
d. neither of these
10. The covariation model suggests that when there are multiple potential causes for an act, we ascribe causality to ______.
a. the most distinctive cause
b. the one that co-varies with the behaviour to the greatest extent
c. the most representative cause
d. the most available cause
11. Correspondent inference theory suggests that when we assess whether there is a correspondence between behaviour and personality, we process three types of information. Which of the following was NOT one of these factors that Jones and Davis note?
a. uniqueness of effects
b. social desirability
c. consistency
d. choice
12. Within the covariation model, the extent to which the target behaves in the same way in different social contexts is known as ______.
a. consensus information
b. consistency information
c. distinctiveness information
d. non-common effects
13. When individuals are reluctant to expend cognitive resources and look for any opportunity to avoid engaging in effortful thought, they can be described as ______.
a. naive scientists
b. cognitive misers
c. motivated tacticians
d. none of these
14. Heider and Simmel (1944) asked participants to describe the movement of abstract geometric shapes. They found ______.
a. individuals estimates converged to a group average
b. individuals described the movement in ways indicative of human intentions and motives
c. individuals tended to over-estimate movements
d. all of these
15. Research suggests that anger emerges from ______ attributions for negative events while guilt emerges from the ______ attributions for negative events.
a. actor; observer
b. observer; actor
c. internal; external
d. external; internal
16. An external attribution assigns cause to ______.
a. the actions of others
b. social pressures
c. luck
d. any of these
17. Correspondent inference theory suggests that when making social inferences, people ______.
a. prefer to make situational attributions
b. assess consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness information
c. prefer to make internal attributions
d. ascribe causality to the factor that co-varies with the behaviour to the greatest extent
18. You stop someone in the street and ask for directions to the train station. The man that you stop sighs and continues to walk without helping you. You decide that the man behaved like this because they are a rude person. What kind of attribution is this?
a. internal
b. external
c. self-serving
d. situational
19. Which attribution model suggests that we arrive at a dispositional attribution by assessing whether the behaviour in question is socially desirable, chosen or non-chosen and has a unique effect?
a. the covariation model
b. the fundamental attribution error
c. correspondent inference theory
d. the covariation model and correspondent inference theory
20. According to correspondent inference theory, which of the following is most likely to lead to a dispositional attribution?
a. behaviour that produces a range of possible consequences
b. a socially desirable behaviour
c. behaviour as a result of coercion
d. a behaviour that has non-common effects
21. While correspondent inference theory can account for when people will make ______ attributions, covariation model can account for when people make ______ attributions.
a. internal; external
b. external; internal
c. internal and external; internal
d. internal; internal and external
22. The ______ suggests that people try to infer a dispositional cause for behaviour because such attributions are most valuable for making predictions.
a. covariation model
b. actor-observer bias
c. self-serving biases
d. correspondent inference model
23. The principle that for something to be the cause of a particular behaviour, it must be present when the behaviour is present and absent when the behaviour is absent is known as ______.
a. the correspondent principle
b. stability principle
c. the covariation principle
d. consistency principle
24. Within Kelly’s co-variation model, the extent to which other people in the scene react in the same way as the target person is known as ______.
a. consensus information
b. consistency information
c. distinctiveness information
d. non-common effects
25. The general tendency for people to make internal rather than external attributions, even when there are clear potential situational causes, is known as ______.
a. the representative heuristic
b. the actor-observer bias
c. the self-serving attribution bias
d. the fundamental attribution error
26. The fundamental attribution error is thought to occur because of ______.
a. the false-consensus effect
b. perceptual salience
c. the representative heuristic
d. familiarity
27. The self-serving attribution bias suggests that we are more likely to make ______ attributions for our successes, and ______ attributions for failures.
a. internal; internal
b. external; internal
c. internal; external
d. single; multiple
28. According to Weiner (1986) anger emerges from ______ attributions for negative events while guilt emerges from ______ attributions for negative events.
a. single; multiple
b. multiple; single
c. internal; external
d. external; internal
29. Within Mosocovici’s theory, shared beliefs and understandings between broad groups of people are known as ______.
a. cultural worldviews
b. social representations
c. groups rules
d. archetypes
30. Actor-observer and self-serving are both ______.
a. attribution models
b. attribution biases
c. social representations
d. internal attributions
Chapter 3: Social cognition
1. Assuming that someone wearing a white coat and stethoscope is a doctor is an example of which heuristic?
a. the availability heuristic
b. the false-consensus effect
c. representativeness heuristic
d. the anchoring heuristic
2. The base rate fallacy is an error resulting from the use of which heuristic?
a. the availability heuristic
b. the representativeness heuristic
c. the anchoring heuristic
d. the false-consensus effect
3. Schwarz and colleagues (1991) asked participants to recall 12 or 6 examples of when they had been either assertive or unassertive. It was found that participants who recalled 6 examples of their own assertive behaviour subsequently rated themselves as more assertive than people who had recalled 12 examples of their own assertive behaviour. Such results demonstrate the use of which heuristic?
a. the availability heuristic
b. the false-consensus effect
c. the representativeness heuristic
d. the anchoring heuristic
4. The tendency to exaggerate how common one’s own opinions are in the general population is known as the ______.
a. actor-observer bias
b. base rate fallacy
c. the anchoring heuristic
d. the false-consensus effect
5. The tendency to be biased towards the starting value in making quantitative judgments is known as ______.
a. the availability heuristic
b. the representativeness heuristic
c. the anchoring heuristic
d. the false-consensus effect
6. When cognitively overloaded, individuals are more likely to ______.
a. behave like naïve scientists
b. use systematic strategies of social inference
c. use heuristics
d. make external attributions
7. Social category boundaries are best described as ______.
a. rigid
b. fuzzy
c. homogenous
d. heterogeneous
8. A prototype refers to the ______ of a category.
a. leader
b. oldest member
c. most representative member
d. all of these
9. The tendency to be biased towards the starting value in making quantitative judgments is known as ______.
a. the anchoring heuristic
b. the availability heuristic
c. the representativeness heuristic
d. the actor-observer bias
10. Kruglanksi (1996) suggested that people are motivated tacticians and are strategic in their allocation of cognitive resources. As such, they can decide to be a cognitive miser or a naïve scientist depending on a number of factors. Which of the following is NOT one of these factors?
a. time
b. cognitive load
c. importance
d. social desirability
11. In general, categories are best described as having ______.
a. clear boundaries
b. fuzzy boundaries
c. impermeable boundaries
d. no boundaries
12. The most representative member of a group or a category is known as a ______.
a. typical member
b. leader
c. prototype
d. deviant
13. The general tendency that people have to perceive members of a group to which they don’t belong as more similar to each other than members of a group to which they do belong, is most commonly known as an ______.
a. ingroup homogeneity effect
b. outgroup homogeneity effect
c. ingroup heterogeneity effect
d. outgroup heterogeneity effect
14. Why do perceivers use categories?
a. it is cognitively economical
b. it provides meaning
c. it reduces uncertainty
d. all of these
15. Stereotype threat might make females perform ______ on a maths test if they know they are being compared to ______.
a. better; males
b. worse; males
c. better; females
d. worse; males
16. Mental shortcuts that reduce complex judgments to simple rules of thumb are known as ______.
a. biases
b. heuristics
c. attributions
d. fallacies
17. The tendency to ignore statistical information in favour of representativeness information is known as ______.
a. the representative heuristic
b. the false consensus effect
c. the base rate fallacy
d. the anchoring heuristic
18. The representative heuristic describes the tendency to ______.
a. allocate a set of attributes to someone if they match the prototype of a given category
b. make dispositional attributions when thinking about other peoples’ behaviour
c. judge the frequency or probability of an event in terms of how easy it is to think of examples of that event
d. exaggerate how common one’s own opinions are in the general population
19. The base rate fallacy describes the tendency to ignore ______ in favour of ______.
a. internal attributions; external attributions
b. complex judgements; simple rules of thumb
c. statistical information; representative information
d. the generally populations opinion; one’s own opinion
20. The tendency to judge the frequency or probability of an event in terms of how easy it is to think of examples of that event is known as ______.
a. the anchoring heuristic
b. the false consensus effect
c. the representative heuristic
d. the availability heuristic
21. The FALSE consensus effect refers to the tendency to ______.
a. allocate a set of attributes to someone if they match the prototype of a given category
b. make dispositional attributions when thinking about other peoples’ behaviour
c. exaggerate how common one’s own opinions are in the general population
d. judge the frequency or probability of an event in terms of how easy it is to think of examples of that event
22. In a mock jury study, Greenberg and colleagues found that participants asked to consider a harsh verdict first were subsequently harsher in their final decision than participants asked to consider a lenient verdict first. This study illustrates ______.
a. the anchoring heuristic
b. the false consensus effect
c. the base-rate fallacy
d. none of these
23. The availability heuristic can provide an explanation of ______.
a. the false consensus effect
b. the anchoring heuristic
c. the false consensus effect and the anchoring heuristic
d. none of these
24. Macrae, Hewstone, and Griffiths (1993) outline a number of factors that determine whether people will adopt logical, rational, and time-consuming processing strategies in social inference, or whether they will go for a quick and easy, but quite possibly adequate, solution. Which of the following is NOT one of these factors?
a. time
b. intelligence
c. cognitive load
d. importance
25. The most representative object, person, or characteristic in a particular category can be said to be ______.
a. common
b. familiar
c. prototypical
d. deviant
26. An illusory correlation occurs when people associate ______ behaviours with ______ groups.
a. negative; majority
b. negative; minority
c. positive; minority
d. none of these
27. Illusionary correlation can be explained by which concept?
a. the base rate fallacy
b. the false-consensus effect
c. shared distinctiveness
d. the availability heuristic
28. Categorisation on the basis of the features of a category we encounter first is known as ______.
a. the primacy effect
b. perceptual salience
c. chronic accessibility
d. temporal primacy
29. Perceivers are compelled to categorise because ______.
a. it frees up cognitive resources for other tasks
b. it reduces uncertainty
c. it provides prescriptive norms for understanding ourselves in relation to others
d. all of these
30. The phenomenon whereby when people think about a particular category they can unconsciously begin to act in line with the stereotype associated with the category is known as ______.
a. unconscious transference
b. behavioural assimilation
c. associative learning
d. subtyping
Chapter 4: Attitudes
1. The tendency to develop more positive feelings towards an attitude object when we are exposed to it more, is known as ______.
a. the mere exposure effect
b. familiarity breeding contempt
c. mere-liking
d. an attitude
2. The way in which animals and people learn by observing associations between stimuli in their environment is known, in general terms, as ______.
a. classical conditioning
b. associative learning
c. operant conditioning
d. self-perception theory
3. If positive words were repeatedly paired with a social group such as French and negative words were repeatedly paired with German, what would happen to the perceiver’s evaluations of these social groups? The perceiver would develop ______.`
a. a slightly more positive evaluation of the French and a slightly more negative evaluation of the Germans
b. a much more positive evaluation of the French and a much more negative evaluation of the Germans
c. a slightly more negative evaluation of the French and a slightly more positive evaluation of the Germans
d. a much more negative evaluation of the French and a much more negative evaluation of the Germans
4. The idea that we form attitudes based on the observations of our own behaviour is known as ______.
a. cognitive dissonance
b. attribution theory
c. self-perception theory
d. operant conditioning
5. Chaiken and Baldwin (1981) demonstrated that people would infer their attitude towards an issue based on the way in which they had been asked questions about it, for example, perceivers asked about pro-environmental practices thought they were more environmentally friendly than those asked about anti-environmental practices.
This effect was more likely if the perceiver ______.
a. didn’t care about the environment
b. had very strong attitudes about environmental issues
c. had weak attitudes about the environment
d. was female
6. The idea that the movement of facial muscles may alter blood flow to the brain, which subsequently alters temperature and mood is ______.
a. the mere exposure effect
b. the facial feedback hypothesis
c. a bit crazy
d. the vascular theory of emotion
7. There are four basic needs that adopting different attitudes can address. These are ego-defensive, ______, utilitarian, ______.
a. knowledge; value-expression
b. knowledge; emotion
c. authoritarian; knowledge
d. hunger; shelter
8. Attitudes that function to protect the perceivers from a threatening truth about themselves are known to be ______.
a. ego-retentive
b. ego-defensive
c. id-reactive
d. superego-defensive
9. The theory of planned behaviour suggests that the most proximal determinant of intentional behaviour is ______.
a. behavioural intentions
b. perceived control
c. subjective norms
d. attitudes
10. Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that if the perceiver performs a specific behaviour that is incongruent with their attitude, the perceiver will feel some discomfort and, as a last resort to remove this, will be motivated to ______.
a. apologise for their behaviour
b. change their attitude so that it is in line with the behaviour
c. change their behaviour so that it is in line with the attitude
d. forget about this specific instance
11. Whether dissonance occurs or NOT following a behaviour that is incongruent with an attitude that the perceiver holds is affected by ______.
a. justification
b. choice
c. investment
d. all of these
12. In self-perception theory, a ______ prior attitude is a prerequisite for the effect. In cognitive dissonance theory, dissonance will NOT occur unless there is a prior attitude that is fairly ______.
a. strong; strong
b. weak; weak
c. weak; strong
d. strong; weak
13. There are two models of how persuasion changes attitudes. Both of these are dual process models and suggest that the central route is taken when ______.
a. people are motivated to think about the content of the message
b. people are unwilling to think about the content of the message
c. the perceiver is a cognitive miser
d. none of these
14. Attitude change via the peripheral route may be more effective if the source of the attitude is ______.
a. female
b. male
c. attractive
d. unattractive
15. The credibility of the source may influence how persuasive a message is. For example, you may be ______ likely to buy a social psychology textbook that a ______ has told you about.
a. less; lecturer
b. more; friend
c. less; friend
d. more; lecturer
16. Mita, Dermer and Knight (1977) found that people prefer a photograph of themselves that is a ______ print, rather than a ______ print, demonstrating the ______ effect.
a. normal photo; mirror image; associative learning
b. symmetrical; asymmetrical; mere exposure
c. mirror image; normal photo; mere exposure
d. symmetrical; asymmetrical; better than average
17. The implicit form of learning by association is known as ______.
a. mere exposure
b. classical conditioning
c. insight learning
d. operant conditioning
18. Associative learning is a more powerful determinant of attitude formation when ______.
a. the initial attitude is positive
b. there is little knowledge available about the attitude object
c. the initial attitude is negative
d. there is lots of existing knowledge available about the attitude object
19. Which approach to attitude formation focuses on how attitudes are formed passively, outside of our awareness?
a. self-perception theory
b. associative learning
c. mere exposure
d. all of these
20. Which of the following are identified by the functional approach to attitude formation as psychological needs that can be addressed by adopting different attitudes?
a. utilitarian, knowledge, ego-defensive, value-expression
b. emotional, utilitarian, knowledge, value-expression
c. ego-reactive, utilitarian, knowledge, value-expression
d. utilitarian, knowledge, ego-retentive, emotional
21. Fishbein and Coombs (1974) found that the correlation between attitudes and voting behaviour was ______ one week before voting in an election, compared to one month before voting.
a. the same
b. stronger
c. weaker
d. insignificant
22. The idea that the easier an attitude comes to mind, the more likely it is that it will affect our behaviour is known as ______.
a. the representativeness heuristic
b. an internal attribution
c. the availability heuristic
d. the anchoring heuristic
23. Which of the following was NOT identified by the theory of planned behaviour to interact and determine behavioural intentions?
a. self-awareness
b. attitudes
c. subjective norms
d. perceived behavioural control
24. Which two theories predict that behaviour causes attitudes rather than the other way around?
a. self-perception theory and the mere exposure effect
b. cognitive dissonance theory and theory of reasoned action
c. self-perception theory and cognitive dissonance theory
d. cognitive dissonance theory and theory of planned behaviour
25. According to cognitive dissonance theory, when people feel they have justification for having behaved in a way that is counter to their attitude, ______.
a. they change their behaviour to match their attitude
b. they change their attitude to match their behaviour
c. the attitude remains unchanged
d. they experience a feeling of discomfort
26. Within the dual process models of persuasion, the route taken when people are motivated and able to think carefully about the content of a persuasive message is known as ______.
a. the systematic route
b. the peripheral route
c. the heuristic route
d. the central route
27. According to conversion theory, when people hear a persuasive argument from a majority source, they are more likely to ______.
a. use the central route
b. employ systematic processing
c. employ heuristic processing
d. experience cognitive dissonance
28. Martin and Hewstone (2003) found that when the message of a persuasive argument did NOT have a negative personal outcome, participants who received the message from a minority source ______.
a. used the peripheral route
b. were only influenced by high quality messages
c. were equally influenced by strong and weak messages
d. were unaffected
29. Within the dual process models of persuasion, when the central route is taken, the key determinant of persuasion is ______.
a. how attractive the source is
b. source credibility
c. argument quality
d. number of arguments presented
30. The degree to which someone is concerned with what people think of them is known as ______.
a. source credibility
b. self-monitoring
c. need for closure
d. need to evaluate
Chapter 5: Social influence
1. Conformity and obedience are similar in that they both ______.
a. relate to a change in behaviour
b. relate to an implicit norm
c. relate to a direct order
d. all of these
2. Social norms are a ______.
a. perceived uncommon standard associated with a group
b. perceived common standard associated with an individual
c. perceived uncommon standard associated with an individual
d. perceived common standard associated with a group
3. One explanation for perceivers conforming to other peoples’ judgements, especially when they are in an uncertain situation, is that they are behaving like ______.
a. a naïve scientist
b. a cognitive miser
c. a leader
d. none of these
4. The presence of others can lead us to go along with the group norm, even though we might disagree with it. This statement is supported by the studies of ______.
a. Asch
b. Sheriff
c. Turner
d. all of these
5. Conformity to a group norm that occurs as a way of gaining information is known as ______.
a. normative influence
b. audience influence
c. informational influence
d. factual influence
6. Normative influence ______ a person’s public attitude but it does NOT change their ______.
a. changes; group membership
b. changes; private attitude
c. destroys; private attitude
d. creates; group membership
7. A more cohesive group will be ______.
a. faster to conform
b. slower to conform
c. less likely to conform
d. unable to conform
8. A shift in attitude towards an extreme version of the initial group norm is known as ______.
a. groupthink
b. group polarisation
c. conformity
d. compliance
9. Which of the following are symptoms of groupthink?
a. increased conformity
b. overestimation of the competence of the group
c. close-mindedness
d. all of these
10. If a minority group is consistent in their opinions they can sway the majority, one of the reasons for this is that the majority will perceive them to be ______.
a. credible
b. uncertain
c. an example of groupthink
d. all of these
11. Minority groups may bring about conformity by ______.
a. social comparison
b. being consistent
c. divergent thinking
d. all of these
12. In Milgram’s obedience studies, 65% of people give shocks up to the apparently lethal level. This may be explained by ______.
a. the increasing immoral acts being gradual
b. obedience to authority being a cultural norm
c. a shift in agency
d. all of these
13. The presence of another participant who is ______ will ______ obedience.
a. black; increase
b. rebelling; increase
c. obedient; decrease
d. rebelling; decrease
14. If the experimenter is dressed scruffily, the participant is most likely to ______.
a. be obedient
b. be less obedient
c. insult the experimenter about their taste in clothes
d. not like the experimenter
15. Social impact theory is capable of explaining the research findings of ______.
a. obedience research
b. conformity research
c. obedience and conformity research
d. all of social psychology
16. Social influence considers the influence of others on our ______.
a. thoughts
b. feelings
c. behaviour
d. all of these
17. Attitudes and behaviours that are commonly-held in a particular group, and have a powerful influence over the attitudes and behaviours of group members are known as ______.
a. social rules
b. social norms
c. social laws
d. social beliefs
18. Which of the following statements about the social norm convergence effect is incorrect?
a. it can only occur when others are physically present
b. it can occur without the physical presence of others
c. it will occur faster when uncertainty is high
d. it is less likely to occur when differences between people are salient
19. Normative influence refers to ______.
a. conformity to a group norm to gain information
b. conformity in ambiguous situations where people are unsure of their own perceptions
c. conformity due to the desire to gain acceptance and praise
d. attitude or behaviour change in response to direct or explicit orders
20. Informational and normative influence can be said to produce different types of conformity. Normative influence leads to changes in ______. Informational influence leads to changes in ______.
a. public attitude and private attitude; public attitude but not private attitude
b. public attitude and private attitude; public attitude and private attitude
c. public attitude but not private attitude; public attitude and private attitude
d. private attitude but not public attitude; private attitude but not public attitude
21. A distinction between Sherif and Asch’s experiment is the degree to which the task might induce uncertainty. While the stimuli used in Sherif’s experiment can be described as ______, inducing ______ uncertainty, the stimuli in Asch’s study were ______, inducing ______ uncertainty.
a. ambiguous; high; unambiguous; low
b. ambiguous; low; unambiguous; high
c. unambiguous; high; ambiguous; low
d. unambiguous; low; ambiguous; high
22. Individuals with low self-confidence are ______.
a. more susceptible to informational influence
b. more susceptible to normative influence
c. less susceptible to informational influence
d. less susceptible to normative influence
23. Increased conformity, an overestimation of competence of the group and close-mindedness are all symptoms of which process?
a. informational influence
b. normative influence
c. group polarisation
d. groupthink
24. Which of the following does NOT moderate informational influence?
a. group size
b. self-confidence
c. task difficulty
d. cultural norms
25. A change in both public and private attitudes in response to an implied social norm is known as ______.
a. conformity
b. conversion
c. compliance
d. obedience
26. Which of the following statements regarding minority influence is incorrect?
a. minorities are more likely to lead to compliance than conversion
b. minorities can provide a safeguard against groupthink
c. minorities encourage more divergent thought on the issue at hand
d. minorities encourage qualitatively better judgements but the majority
27. Which of the following does social impact theory NOT include as a factor that affects social influence?
a. number
b. strength
c. immediacy
d. social support
28. Milgram’s original obedience study found that which percentage of participants followed instructions to give electric shocks up to the apparently lethal level?
a. 2%
b. 22%
c. 65%
d. 96%
29. Which of the following factors reduce obedience?
a. a high-status experimenter
b. the presence of other participants who are obeying the experimenter
c. decreased proximity to the learner
d. increased proximity to the learner
30. Whose experiments utilised the ‘autokinetic effect’?
a. Asch
b. Sherif
c. Moscovici
d. Milgram
Chapter 6: Group processes
1. A group can be defined as ______.
a. two individuals
b. two or more individuals
c. two or more individuals who are connected in some way
d. none of these
2. The extent to which group members are linked together by an underlying common bond is ______.
a. similarity
b. interconnectedness
c. entitativity
d. cohesiveness
3. Cohesive groups tend to exert ______ social influence and their members are typically ______ committed to the group.
a. less; less
b. less; more
c. more; less
d. more; more
4. A detriment in performance when an audience is present is known as ______.
a. an audience effect
b. social facilitation
c. social inhibition
d. task complexity
5. Drive theory suggests that an audience may lead to ______ which may, in turn, lead to an increased reliance on ______ processes.
a. physical arousal; controlled
b. physiological arousal; controlled
c. arousal; automatic
d. physiological arousal; automatic
6. A chess expert asked to play a chess game in front of an audience will perform ______.
a. better
b. worse
c. no different in the presence of an audience
d. better than they ever have before
7. Cotterell and colleagues showed that when the audience was blindfolded, participants did NOT show social facilitation or inhibition responses. This supports ______.
a. drive theory
b. distraction conflict theory
c. evaluation-apprehension
d. all of these
8. The social loafing effect occurs on ______ but NOT on ______ tasks.
a. simple; easy
b. simple; difficult
c. difficult; easy
d. boring; difficult
9. Which of the following personality traits are associated with leadership?
a. confidence
b. being talkative
c. above-average intelligence
d. all of these
10. A leadership position in the group is a result of ______.
a. personality factors
b. situational factors
c. personality and situational factors
d. none of these
11. A hierarchical style of leadership in which the leader of the group gives orders to group members in order for the goals of the groups to be achieved is known as a(n) ______.
a. autocratic leadership style
b. democratic leadership style
c. laissez-faire leadership style
d. socio-emotional leadership style
12. Which of these is an example of a task-focussed leader?
a. Sir Richard Branson
b. Sir Alan Sugar
c. Mother Theresa
d. all of these
13. Autocratic leaders are ______ in task-focus but ______ on the socio-emotional dimension, whereas laissez-faire leaders are ______ in task focus, but ______ in socio-emotional focus.
a. low; low; high; high
b. high; high; low; low
c. low; high; low; high
d. high; low; low; high
14. A democratic leader is more appropriate or better for the group when the group is ______.
a. stable
b. unstable
c. flexible
d. inflexible
15. Socio-emotional leadership or task-oriented leadership style may be a better leadership style depending on the situational control the leader has of the group.
This idea is known as ______.
a. exchange relationship
b. individualised consideration
c. confounding
d. contingency theory
16. The extent to which group members are attracted to the group is known as ______.
a. interconnectedness
b. entitativity
c. cohesiveness
d. similarity
17. The term used to describe a detriment in performance when an audience is present is known as ______.
a. an audience effect
b. social inhibition
c. social facilitation
d. distraction-conflict
18. Lickel et al. (2000) found that it was possible to divide a wide range of groups into ______ types of increasing entitativity:
a. two
b. four
c. five
d. eight
19. According to drive theory, arousal created by the mere presence of others leads to increased reliance on ______.
a. systematic processing
b. automatic processing
c. task instructions
d. controlled processing
20. In line with drive theory, Michaels et al. (1982) found that while the performance of below average pool players ______ with an audience present, the performance of above average players ______ with an audience present.
a. increased; decreased
b. remained the same; increased
c. remained the same; decreased
d. decreased; increased
21. Which of the following is NOT an explanation for social facilitation and social inhibition effects?
a. evaluation apprehension theory
b. social loafing
c. drive theory
d. distraction conflict theory
22. Latané et al. (1979) found that blindfolded participants asked to shout as loudly as possible shouted louder when they thought they were shouting with one person than participants told they were shouting in a group, demonstrating which effect?
a. social inhibition
b. evaluation apprehension
c. social labouring
d. social loafing
23. The tendency perceivers have to assume that others present will take personal responsibility for a situation, absolving the perceiver of personal responsibility, is known as ______.
a. depersonalisation
b. evaluation apprehension
c. deindividualisation
d. diffusion of responsibility
24. In individualistic cultures, the most effective leaders are those who ______.
a. foster positive relationships between group members
b. encourage a cooperative, cohesive working atmosphere
c. reward the achievements of individuals
d. none of these
25. Lippitt and White (1943) conducted a study in which they compared democratic, autocratic and laissez-faire leadership styles. The results show that groups with democratic leaders were the most productive, while groups with autocratic leaders were more productive when the leader was ______ and groups with laissez-faire leaders were more productive when the leader was ______.
a. present; not present
b. not present; present
c. flexible; inflexible
d. inflexible; flexible
26. Democratic leaders can be categorised as ______ in task focus and ______ in socio-emotional focus.
a. high; low
b. low; high
c. high, high
d. low, low
27. Transformational leaders ______.
a. are charismatic
b. engender commitment among group members
c. often take the group in a dramatic new direction
d. all of these
28. Encouraging group members to think in novel ways in order to solve problems and issues faced by the group is known as ______.
a. task-focused
b. charisma
c. individualised consideration
d. intellectual consideration
29. Fielder developed the least preferred co-worker (LPC) scale to determine which type of leadership style people orientated towards. Individuals rated as high LPC can be classified as ______ leaders, whereas individuals rated as low LPC can be classified as ______ leaders.
a. high-quality; low-quality
b. low-quality; high-quality
c. socio-emotional focused; task focused
d. task focused; socio-emotional focused
30. The social identity approach suggests that the best leaders are ______.
a. socio-emotional focused
b. exchange-related
c. prototypical
d. task focused
Chapter 7: Self and identity
1. The development of a sense of self seems to occur at around 18 months, at the same time as a massive number of ______ cells develop in an area called the anterior cingulate in the frontal lobe of the brain, an area thought to be responsible for monitoring and controlling ______ behaviour.
a. self; all
b. spindle; automatic
c. cingulate; intentional
d. spindle; intentional
2. Public self-awareness is NOT associated with ______.
a. evaluation apprehension
b. a decreased risk of depression
c. lowered self-esteem
d. increased adherence to social norms
3. If the concept of intelligence is self-schematic, perceivers should show ______.
a. faster responses to synonyms of the concept
b. slower responses to synonyms of the concept
c. no responses to synonyms of the concept
d. faster responses to antonyms of the concept
4. The control theory of self-regulation compares the self to ______.
a. other individuals
b. another social group
c. the self
d. all of these
5. Self-discrepancy theory (Higgins, 1987) suggests that people compare their ______ self, how they are at present, to both their ______ self, how they would aspire to be, and to their ______ self, how they think they should be.
a. actual; ought; ideal
b. actual; ideal; ought
c. individual; ideal; collective
d. actual; ideal; proper
6. Which of the following are examples of upward comparisons?
a. more attractive than you are
b. cleverer than you are
c. more athletic than you are
d. any of these
7. How do we maintain positive self-esteem when facing an upward social comparison?
a. by exaggerating the ability of the target so that the comparison is no longer relevant
b. by downplaying the similarity between the self and the target
c. by devaluing the dimension of comparison
d. any of these
8. The meta-contrast principle suggests that perceivers maximise the ______ within groups and the ______ between groups.
a. similarities; similarities
b. similarities; differences
c. differences; similarities
d. differences; differences
9. A collection of shared beliefs about how group members should think and behave are known as ______.
a. group laws
b. group rules
c. group norms
d. group beliefs
10. Self-esteem becomes less stable from the age of 60, why might this be?
a. ill health
b. death of others from same generation
c. retirement
d. any of these
11. People who have higher self-esteem are more likely to ______.
a. attempt to improve their mood following failure
b. dampen their mood following a positive life event
c. regulate their mood ineffectively
d. any of these
12. The relationship between narcissism and aggression is ______ by ego threat.
a. weakened
b. strengthened
c. not influenced
d. reversed
13. The self-serving attribution bias is that individuals attribute their success to ______ factors and their failure to ______ factors.
a. internal; internal
b. internal; external
c. external; external
d. external; internal
14. Individualist cultures ______.
a. promote individual goals, initiative and achievement
b. encourage people to view themselves as unique and independent
c. are typified by the United States and Europe
d. all of these
15. The alternation model suggests that it is possible for an individual to deal with multiple identities by understanding the cultural assumptions that guide behaviour and, using this knowledge, to think and behave in line with relevant cultural orientations depending on the situation. As a result, ______.
a. it is not possible for an individual to have a sense of belonging in two cultures without compromising his or her sense of cultural identity.
b. it is possible for an individual to have a sense of belonging in two cultures without compromising his or her sense of cultural identity.
c. individuals have to choose one identity and stick to it at all times
d. individuals end up without any clear cultural identity.
16. Scheier and Carver (1977) reported that participants who read a series of positive and negative statements while looking in a mirror demonstrated ______.
a. loss of self-esteem
b. evaluation apprehension
c. reduced emotional response
d. intensified emotional response
17. Which of these is NOT a consequence of being publicly self-aware?
a. loss of self-esteem
b. evaluation apprehension
c. clarification of knowledge
d. adherence to social standards of behaviour
18. The anterior cingulate is an area of ______ in the cerebral cortex of the brain, which is activated when people are ______.
a. prefrontal cortex; self-schematic
b. parietal lobe; self-aware
c. parietal lobe; self-schematic
d. prefrontal cortex; self-aware
19. Higgins (1987) refers to the traits or characteristics that an individual believes they should possess, based on a sense of duty, responsibility or obligation, as ______.
a. self-schema
b. the ideal self
c. the ought self
d. the actual self
20. According to the self-evaluation maintenance model (Tesser, 1988), when making comparisons to other individuals, provided that the domain in which the individual is successful is irrelevant to us and we are certain about our own abilities in this domain, we are likely to engage in ______. However, when the domain is relevant to us and we are uncertain about our abilities in the domain, we engage in ______.
a. upward comparison; downward comparison
b. upward comparison; social reflection
c. downward comparison; upward comparison
d. social reflection; upward comparison
21. The process by which group members exaggerate similarities within the group and differences with other groups is termed ______.
a. depersonalisation
b. differentiation
c. self-categorisation
d. the meta-contrast principle
22. The personality trait, held by individuals, characterised by extremely high but unstable self-esteem is known as ______.
a. vanity
b. narcissism
c. insecurity
d. aggressive
23. The desire to know who we truly are, regardless of whether the truth is positive or negative, is known as ______.
a. self-assessment
b. self-esteem
c. self-verification
d. self-enhancement
24. The rouge test is used to ______.
a. measure in-group identification
b. demonstrate the impact of social identity on behaviour
c. test self-awareness in infants
d. measure self-consciousness
25. Self-affirmation is a strategy used ______.
a. for self-verification
b. to make upward social comparisons
c. to derive a positive self-esteem from social aspects of the self
d. to derive a positive self-esteem from personal aspects of the self
26. Which of the following refers to a strategy used by low status group members where they find new dimensions on which they compare more favourably to a higher status outgroup?
a. social change
b. social creativity
c. upward comparison
d. self-verification
27. The process of deriving a positive self-concept from the achievements of other group members even if we were NOT personally instrumental in those achievements is known as ______. The process of distancing ourselves from group members when a group is unsuccessful in order to limit damage to our self-concept is known as ______.
a. social reflection; social change
b. basking in reflective glory; cutting off reflective failure
c. social reflection; cutting off reflective failure
d. basking in reflective glory; dis-identification
28. A culture which promotes conformity and actions that promote the best interests of the group rather than its individual members is ______.
a. a capitalist culture
b. typified by the United States and Europe
c. a collectivist culture
d. an individualistic culture
29. The theory that by alternating one’s cultural orientation depending on the situation, it is possible for an individual to have a sense of belonging in two different cultures without compromising his or her sense of cultural identity is called ______.
a. acculturation model
b. social identity theory
c. self-categorisation theory
d. alternation model
30. Within the control theory of self-regulation, the phase in which people change their behaviour in order to meet a relevant private or public standard is known as ______.
a. test
b. operation
c. reflection
d. social change
Chapter 8: Prejudice
1. When person’s social category puts them at a lower status than a dominant group and ascribes to them negative characteristics, this is called ______.
a. stereotyping
b. stigmatisation
c. aggression
d. anti-social behaviour
2. Society’s progression towards egalitarianism can be described as moving through stages defined by these three different types of racism: ______.
a. blatant racism, aversive racism, full egalitarianism
b. aversive racism, blatant racism, full egalitarianism
c. aversive racism, subtle racism, full egalitarianism
d. old racism, new racism, full egalitarianism
3. Sexism can be divided into two components: ______.
a. old sexism and new sexism
b. hostile sexism and benevolent sexism
c. blatant sexism and new sexism
d. blatant sexism and aversive sexism
4. In a study by Glick, Diebold, Bailey-Werner, and Zhu (1997), men high in ambivalent sexism who were asked to think about a woman transcending traditional roles (e.g., a career woman) reported ______.
a. positive feelings such as warmth and trust
b. ambivalent feelings such as fear and trust
c. no particular feelings
d. negative feelings such as fear and envy
5. The idea that people regulate prejudiced-related thoughts is connected to ______.
a. balance theory
b. the authoritarian personality
c. Freudian theory
d. cognitive dissonance
6. According to realistic group conflict theory, conflict between groups is the result of the perception ______.
a. that all groups are in competition
b. that conflict is inevitable between groups
c. of abundant resources
d. of scarce resources
7. Implicit prejudice can be measured using ______.
a. response times
b. Tajfel matrices
c. points allocations
d. institutional measures
8. Optimal conditions for contact include ______.
a. co-operation, egalitarian attitudes, equal social status
b. equal social status, institutional support, co-operation
c. institutional support, norms favouring equality, co-operation
d. co-operation, low differentiation, equal social status
9. The extended contact effect describes how ______.
a. having an extended network of friends reduces bias
b. having contact with many different groups reduces bias
c. having a friend who has egalitarian attitudes reduces bias
d. having a friend who has a friend who is an outgroup member reduces bias
10. The umbrella term that includes different manifestations of bias in favour of one’s own social category is known as ______.
a. prejudice
b. ingroup bias
c. racism
d. self-serving bias
11. ______ describes the behavioural manifestation of ______.
a. Prejudice; racism
b. Prejudice; discrimination
c. Racism; discrimination
d. Discrimination; prejudice
12. Stigmatisation refers to the assigning of negative characteristics or stereotypes to an individual due to their ______.
a. race
b. sex
c. social category’s low status
d. all of these
13. Aversive racism is when people ______.
a. directly express their racist attitudes
b. hold both egalitarian and racist attitudes
c. disagree with racism
d. hold highly racist attitudes
14. The view that women are inferior, irrational, and weak is a form of ______.
a. hostile sexism
b. benevolent sexism
c. old-fashioned sexism
d. aversive sexism
15. The form of sexism that involves holding both hostile and benevolent sexist attitudes towards women simultaneously is known as ______.
a. aversive sexism
b. ambivalent sexism
c. modern sexism
d. the glass ceiling effect
16. While negative attitudes or feelings towards members of an outgroup are known as ______, the behavioural manifestation of these attitudes or feelings is known as ______.
a. prejudice; racism
b. ingroup bias; discrimination
c. discrimination; prejudice
d. prejudice; discrimination
17. Stigmatisation refers to ______.
a. a negative attitude or feeling regarding a specific group
b. a negative behaviour directed towards a specific outgroup
c. prejudice against an individual on the basis of race
d. ascribing negative characteristics to a person because they belong to a low status social category
18. The blatant expression of negative and unfair stereotypes of others based on their category membership is known as ______.
a. aversive racism
b. old-fashioned racism
c. modern racism
d. implicit racism
19. The glass ceiling effect is a form of ______.
a. racism
b. sexism
c. ageism
d. all of these
20. Positive stereotyping of women that nonetheless restricts women to traditional female roles, justifying male social dominance, is known as ______.
a. old-fashioned sexism
b. aversive sexism
c. hostile sexism
d. benevolent sexism
21. Ambivalent sexism involves holding both ______ towards women simultaneously.
a. hostile and benevolent sexist attitudes
b. blatant and aversive sexist attitudes
c. egalitarian attitudes and negative emotions
d. none of these
22. While the possession of both new and old forms of prejudice in terms of race is known as ______ racism, the possession of both and new old forms of prejudice in terms of sex is known as ______ sexism.
a. ambivalent; aversive
b. aversive; benevolent
c. hostile; benevolent
d. aversive; ambivalent
23. Which type of measure of prejudice is likely to be affected by social desirability concerns?
a. explicit measures
b. implicit measures
c. unobtrusive
d. all of these
24. Which theory suggests that some people are more prejudiced than others as a result of overly-strict parenting methods in childhood?
a. the authoritarian personality
b. social dominance orientation
c. both the authoritarian personality and social dominance orientation
d. none of these
25. Adorno devised which scale to measure the authoritarian personality?
a. the implicit association test
b. points allocations
c. the f-scale
d. the a-scale
26. Allport argued that a number of conditions were necessary for contact to be successful at reducing intergroup bias. Which of the following is NOT identified as one of these conditions?
a. equal status
b. ignoring group memberships
c. institutional support
d. common goals
27. The extent to which the outgroup is seen as including many different types of people, rather than being seen as all the same as one another is known as ______.
a. depersonalisation
b. individuation
c. outgroup variability
d. multiple categorisation
28. Paolini and colleagues found that the positive relationship between cross-group friendship and outgroup attitude was mediated by ______.
a. projection of positive personality traits
b. perceived outgroup variability
c. reduced intergroup anxiety
d. all of these
29. Cameron and Rutland (2006) found that reading children weekly stories featuring disabled and non-disabled children in friendship contexts improved children’s attitudes towards disabled children. This is an illustration of which effect?
a. extended contact
b. direct contact
c. imagined contact
d. cross-group friendship
30. The mental simulation of a social interaction with a member or members of an outgroup is known as ______.
a. extended contact
b. in-direct contact
c. imagined contact
d. cross-group friendship
Chapter 9: Intergroup relations
1. Tajfel et al.’s minimal group paradigm experiment found that ______.
a. people were strongly biased in favour of their own group
b. people were mostly self-interested
c. people were biased in favour of the outgroup
d. people showed a tendency to differentiate their group from the other
2. Ethnocentrism is ______.
a. a belief in the equal treatment of all people
b. a negative behaviour directed towards a specific outgroup
c. the intensification of ingroup loyalty and increase in hostility towards the outgroup
d. the higher positive evaluation of ingroup members compared to outgroup members
3. Realistic conflict theory suggests that conflict between groups is a result of ______.
a. mere categorisation
b. individuals upbringing
c. belief similarity
d. competition for scarce resources
4. Assignment to participant groups within the minimal group’s paradigm is ______.
a. based on participants’ race
b. based on participants’ age
c. arbitrary
d. according to belief similarity
5. Which of the below suggests that there is an automatic tendency to think of all people who are in the same category as being similar to one another, and a corresponding automatic tendency to think of all people who are in different categories as being different from one another?
a. self-categorisation theory
b. self-anchoring theory
c. the category differentiation model
d. realistic group conflict theory
6. Tajfel and Turner (1979) proposed which classic theory of intergroup relations?
a. self-categorisation theory
b. social identity theory
c. the category differentiation model
d. realistic group conflict theory
7. Terror management theory suggests that people who believe they are meeting the values of their cultural worldview ______.
a. show greater intergroup bias
b. have a higher self-esteem
c. show greater social projection
d. all of these
8. The concept of ‘mortality salience’ belongs to which theory of intergroup relations?
a. self-categorisation theory
b. social identity theory
c. terror management theory
d. realistic group conflict theory
9. Crisp and Beck (2005) found that blurring intergroup boundaries reduced intergroup bias in ______.
a. low in-group identifiers
b. high in-group identifiers
c. both low in-group identifiers and high in-group identifiers
d. neither of these
10. The common ingroup identity model argues that bias is reduced via ______.
a. decategorisation
b. differentiation
c. recategorisation
d. individuation
11. Decategorisation is associated with a(n) ______ in ingroup evaluation, recategorisation is associated with a(n) ______ in outgroup evaluation.
a. increase; decrease
b. increase; increase
c. decrease; decrease
d. decrease; increase
12. Cross-categorisation works by ______.
a. making people angry
b. recategorisation
c. reducing differentiation
d. decreasing subtyping
13. Ethnocentrism is ______.
a. hostile behaviour towards outgroups and high ingroup identification
b. hostile behaviour towards ethnic groups
c. high ingroup identification
d. hostile behaviour towards ethnic groups and high ethnic group identification
14. People identify with groups in order to attain ______.
a. positive distinctiveness
b. optimal distinctiveness
c. positive self-worth
d. all of these
15. The f-scale was used to measure ______.
a. social dominance orientation
b. authoritarianism
c. subjective uncertainty
d. fanaticism
16. Intensification of ingroup loyalty and increase in hostility towards the outgroup is known as ______.
a. prejudice
b. discrimination
c. ethnocentrism
d. racism
17. The robber’s cave study found derogation of the outgroup emerged ______.
a. after mere group formation
b. when competition between the two groups was introduced
c. when cooperative goals were introduced
d. in none of the above conditions
18. Which theory of intergroup relations suggests that conflict between groups is the result of the perception of scare resources?
a. self-categorisation theory
b. self-anchoring theory
c. the category differentiation model
d. realistic group conflict theory
19. Tajfel’s minimal groups studies demonstrated that ______ is sufficient for bias.
a. category differentiation
b. mere categorisation
c. self-anchoring
d. intergroup competition
20. The category differentiation model suggests that people have an automatic tendency to accentuate ______.
a. differences within categories and differences between categories
b. similarities within categories and similarities between categories
c. similarities within categories and differences between categories
d. differences within categories and similarities between categories
21. Which of the following theories can explain the minimal group bias?
a. self-anchoring theory
b. category differentiation model
c. belief similarity
d. all of these
22. While ______ can explain how the desire to create a simplified, meaningful impression of the social context leads to differentiation, ______ can explain the ingroup favouring direction of this differentiation.
a. self-anchoring theory; social identity theory
b. social identity theory; the category differentiation model
c. the category differentiation model; the common ingroup identity model
d. the category differentiation model; social identity theory
23. The perception of increased similarity within, and increased differentiation between, ingroup and outgroup categories is known as ______.
a. positive distinctiveness
b. the meta-contrast principle
c. optimal distinctiveness
d. maximum differentiation
24. Which theory argues that people are motivated by two needs, the need for assimilation and the need for differentiation?
a. optimal distinctiveness theory
b. the meta-contrast principle
c. the subjective uncertainty reduction hypothesis
d. positive distinctiveness theory
25. Individual’s tendency to predict the feelings, thoughts and behaviours of others based on their own feelings, thoughts and behaviours is known as ______.
a. self-verification
b. uncertainty reduction
c. social projection
d. self-projection
26. Which theory of intergroup relations argues that for novel ingroups, but not outgroups, we project our own positive attributes to create a positive norm?
a. self-categorisation
b. social identity theory
c. self-anchoring theory
d. social projection theory
27. A popular study asked Christian participants to form impressions of Christian and Jewish individuals after heightening “mortality salience”; that is, reminding people of the prospect of their own death. It was found that mortality salience predicted a more positive evaluation of the Christian individual and a more negative evaluation of the Jewish individual. Such findings support which theory of intergroup relations?
a. belief similarity
b. subjective uncertainty reduction hypothesis
c. social identity theory
d. terror management theory
28. The common ingroup identity model suggests that the best way to improve intergroup relationships is by encouraging people to ______.
a. use many different ways of categorising people
b. stop using categories to form an impression of others, and instead see them as individuals
c. recategorise people from a two-group representation, to a one-group representation.
d. all of these
29. Which of the following factors have been found to help create a common ingroup identity?
a. making people happy
b. intergroup contact
c. making people more aware of a superordinate inclusive identity
d. all of these
30. Which approach reduces intergroup bias by increased complexity of the intergroup context so that perceivers may be unable to use, or combine, social categorisations in any meaningful ways?
a. decategorisation
b. recategorisation
c. multiple categorisation
d. cross-categorisation
Chapter 10: Aggression
1. The psychodynamic approach to aggression suggests that aggression ______.
a. is a natural build-up of tension in the body that needs to be released to restore balance
b. derives from a death instinct
c. is redirected self-destructive behaviour
d. all of these
2. Social theories of aggression tend to focus on ______.
a. the innate tendency we have to be aggressive
b. the evolutionary value of being aggressive
c. the way in which the tendency to be aggressive is shaped by others and the environment
d. all of these
3. Berkowitz argued that frustration generates anger, which in turn increases the likelihood of aggressive behaviour. However, he noted that aggressive behaviour would only arise if ______.
a. the cause of the frustration was a person
b. there were appropriate cues in the environment
c. there was a very high level of frustration
d. all of these
4. The idea that the strength of a link between an event and a behaviour depends on whether the behaviour is rewarded or punished is known as ______.
a. social learning theory
b. modelling
c. operant conditioning
d. observational learning
5. Which of the following are criticisms of social learning theory?
a. it does not take into account individual differences
b. it is too simplistic
c. results may be explained by other co-occurring processes
d. all of these
6. Boys are more aggressive than girls. This is due to ______.
a. hormones
b. gender socialisation
c. hormones and gender socialisation
d. genetics
7. A(n) ______ in aggression occurs when the amount of alcohol in the bloodstream is ______.
a. increase; low
b. increase; high
c. decrease; rising
d. increase; rising
8. Physical factor(s) that may influence aggression are ______.
a. temperature
b. space
c. smell
d. all of these
9. A perception that a group is being unfairly disadvantaged compared to other people or groups is known as ______.
a. the reciprocity principle
b. deindividuation
c. egotism
d. relative deprivation
10. A culture of honour is a belief system which ______.
a. maintains that honour is more important than anything else
b. refutes the need for violence and aggression when protecting one’s property and integrity
c. endorses violence and aggression when protecting one’s property and integrity
d. none of these
11. The process by which individuals in a large group or crowd see themselves as an anonymous and less accountable group member rather than as an individual is ______.
a. deindividuation
b. disinhibition
c. dehumanisation
d. none of these
12. Dehumanisation occurs when people fail to see others as unique ______. By considering someone else to be in some way less than human, a perpetrator is ______ to appreciate the suffering experienced by the target of their aggression.
a. objects; less likely
b. people; more likely
c. human beings; less likely
d. human beings; more likely
13. Verbal or physical aggression towards a relationship partner or family member is known as ______.
a. sexual aggression
b. domestic violence
c. reciprocity principle
d. token resistance
14. The erroneous belief that women secretly enjoy being sexually assaulted is known as: ______.
a. the enjoyment myth
b. the enjoyment legend
c. the rape myth
d. the rape legend
15. Changing the conditions on which floor of Moghaddam’s model can prevent terrorism?
a. ground floor
b. fifth floor
c. third floor
d. fourth floor
16. Which theory suggests that aggressive behaviour occurs as a result of a natural build-up of tension in the body, which eventually needs to be released to restore balance?
a. excitation-transfer model
b. psychodynamic theory
c. frustration-aggression hypothesis
d. evolutionary approach
17. Which theory suggests that aggressive behaviour will only arise if there are appropriate cues in the environment?
a. frustration-aggression hypothesis
b. social learning theory
c. cathartic hypothesis
d. cognitive neo-associationalist model
18. The excitation-transfer model suggests that arousal in one situation can carry over into a completely different situation. Such arousal is referred to as ______.
a. non-specific arousal
b. situational arousal
c. residual arousal
d. excitation
19. Which of the following theories focuses on explaining aggressive acts as innate tendencies rather than as a function of the situation?
a. cathartic hypothesis
b. psychodynamic theory
c. excitation-transfer model
d. cognitive neo-associationalist model
20. Bandura, Ross and Ross’s (1961) classic finding that children who were given an opportunity to observe aggressive behaviour later showed aggressive behaviour themselves, supports which approach to aggression?
a. operant reinforcement
b. classical conditioning
c. social learning theory
d. cathartic hypothesis
21. The tendency to experience feelings of discomfort and inadequacy is known as ______.
a. emotional susceptibility
b. rumination
c. irritability
d. type A personality
22. It is suggested that ______ are likely to be more confident that their aggressive behaviour will have positive outcomes and may therefore be more likely to behave aggressively.
a. individuals with a type A personality
b. individuals with a type B personality
c. extroverts
d. individuals with high self-esteem
23. Giancola and Zeichner (1997) found that men who had drunk alcohol were more aggressive when blood alcohol concentration ______.
a. was ascending
b. was descending
c. was at its peak
d. none of these
24. The idea that drunk people behave aggressively based on expectations about how alcohol will affect behaviour is ______.
a. only true for males
b. known as alcohol expectancy theory
c. known as alcohol anticipation theory
d. known as the placebo effect
25. Research suggests there is ______ correlation between heat and aggression.
a. no significant
b. a positive
c. a negative
d. a curvilinear
26. Aggression intended to cause harm is known as ______, whereas aggression that serves a different purpose than to cause harm is known as______.
a. direct; indirect
b. indirect; direct
c. affective; instrumental
d. instrumental; affective
27. The belief system that endorses violence as a means of protecting one’s property and integrity is known as ______.
a. a subculture of violence
b. a gang
c. a culture of honour
d. relative deprivation
28. The process whereby people lose their identity as an idiosyncratic individual and come to perceive themselves as an anonymous – and therefore less accountable – group member is known as ______.
a. collective aggression
b. deindividuation
c. dehumanisation
d. disinhibition
29. Deindividuation and dehumanisation principles suggest different causes of aggressive behaviour. The difference between the two is that ______.
a. one explains an increase in aggressive behaviour while one explains a decrease in aggressive behaviour
b. one suggests group norms are ignored and the other suggests that a new norm is created
c. one suggests aggression occurs because the aggressor feels anonymous and the other suggests aggression occurs because the victim is seen as anonymous
d. one focuses on individual aggression while one focuses on collective aggression
30. Token resistance ______.
a. is the controversial argument that women sometimes say ‘no’ to sex when they mean to say ‘yes’
b. increases the likelihood of acquaintance rape
c. is a result of a double standard whereby men are applauded for sexual promiscuity while women who appear too sexually active are seen as immoral
d. all of these
Chapter 11: Prosocial behaviour
1. An intentional behaviour that benefits another person is known as ______.
a. prosocial behaviour
b. helping behaviour
c. altruism
d. none of these
2. Which of the following is a problem with the evolutionary explanation of helping behaviour?
a. we help friends and complete strangers
b. it is not observable because it occurs over a large timescale
c. it does not explain why people help relatives in some cases and not in others
d. all of these
3. The reciprocity principle suggests that we are ______.
a. more likely to help those who haven’t helped us
b. more likely to help those we’ve never met
c. more likely to help those who we believe would help us
d. less likely to help those who we believe would help us
4. Bryan and Test (1967) demonstrated that those perceivers who had seen someone else helping were subsequently more likely to help. This experiment supports which view of helping behaviour?
a. the evolutionary perspective
b. the just-world hypothesis
c. modelling
d. reciprocity
5. Modelling will only produce helping behaviour if ______.
a. the victim is very attractive
b. the conditions of the just-world hypothesis are met
c. the initial helping behaviour had a negative outcome
d. none of these
6. Put the stages of Latané and Darley’s model of helping behaviour in the correct order.
a. define the situation as an emergency, attend to the situation, decide how to help, accept personal responsibility
b. define the situation as an emergency, decide how to help, accept personal responsibility, attend to the situation,
c. attend to the situation, decide how to help, accept personal responsibility, define the situation as an emergency
d. attend to the situation, define the situation as an emergency, accept personal responsibility, decide how to help
7. Darley and Latané’s (1969) experiment demonstrated that less people went to help the participant who was apparently having a seizure when they were led to believe that they were part of a larger group. This is explained by ______.
a. self-efficacy
b. diffusion of responsibility
c. social learning theory
d. modelling
8. The bystander calculus model of Pilliavin and colleagues considers the ______ that is elicited by an emergency.
a. physiological arousal
b. physical arousal
c. psychological arousal
d. psychological apathy
9. The greater the ______ costs the less likely it is that a bystander will help.
a. financial
b. societal
c. personal
d. environmental
10. People with an ______ locus of control feel that they have ______ control over events and are more likely to help as a result.
a. internal; less
b. internal; more
c. external; less
d. external; more
11. A leader is more likely to help because ______.`
a. they think that they are more personally responsible
b. there is more likely to be a diffusion of responsibility
c. they will automatically know what to do
d. all of these
12. The image reparation hypothesis suggests that ______.
a. people will help out in a different situation after they have done something that made them feel guilty
b. people will try and put right the wrong that made them feel guilty by helping out in the same situation
c. people only help out following guilt if their original action was in front of an audience
d. people only help out following guilt if their original action was not in front of an audience
13. The theory that information congruent with our own mood is more accessible is known as the ______.
a. affect-priming model
b. affect-as-information model
c. affect and helping model
d. threat to self-esteem model
14. People who are more attractive are ______.
a. more likely to receive help
b. more likely to give help
c. less likely to receive help
d. less likely to give help
15. The threat to self-esteem model states that recipients will respond positively to help if ______.
a. they feel supported
b. they feel threatened
c. they are low in self-esteem
d. they are weak
16. Acts where people voluntarily and intentionally behave in a way that they believe will benefit others is known as ______.
a. prosocial behaviour
b. helping behaviour
c. altruism
d. bystander apathy
17. The evolutionary approach can explain why we help ______.
a. family
b. friends
c. complete strangers
d. all of these
18. The reciprocity principle and social responsibility norm are both normative beliefs that may explain why we have a tendency to help others, however, they differ in that:
a. one suggests we only help friends, while the other explains why we help family, friends and strangers.
b. One has empirical support, the other does not.
c. One suggests we help those who help us, while the other suggests we help those .in need regardless of whether they have helped us.
d. One suggests we help those who help us, the other suggests we only help when we will be rewarded for our help.
19. Which of the following is NOT a normative belief that can provide an explanation for why we have a tendency to help others?
a. social responsibility norm
b. kin selection
c. reciprocity
d. just-world hypothesis
20. The social learning explanation for helping behaviour is supported by the finding that ______.
a. we are more likely to help if the other person previously made a big, unexpected sacrifice for us
b. perceivers who had seen someone else helping were subsequently more likely to help
c. people were more likely to give money to a family in Sudan when they needed money in the short term rather than the long term
d. people are more likely to donate money to a breast cancer charity than a lung cancer charity
21. Within which of Latané and Darley’s stages could the ‘stimulus overload effect’ reduce the chance of helping behaviour?
a. attend to the incident
b. define the incident as an emergency
c. accept personal responsibility
d. decide what to do
22. The finding that people are less likely to help in an emergency when they are with others than when they are alone is known as ______.
a. social loafing
b. bystander intervention
c. diffusion of responsibility
d. bystander apathy effect
23. Audience inhibition can be seen as a product of ______.
a. diffusion of responsibility
b. informational influence
c. normative influence
d. all of these
24. Whose model suggests that people assess the costs of helping and the costs of NOT helping when deciding whether or NOT to help?
a. Greenberg et al.
b. Garcia, Moskowitz and Darley
c. Latané and Darley
d. Pilivian et al.
25. A victim-focused, negative emotional state that arises when we see someone else suffering is known as ______.
a. orienting reaction
b. empathic concern
c. defence reaction
d. personal distress
26. Cramer, McMaster, Bartell and Dragna (1988) found that nurses were more likely than students to help a workman who had fallen off a ladder because ______.
a. they had higher dispositional empathy
b. they were in a better mood
c. they felt more competent in the situation
d. they felt more socially responsible
27. When the victim is similar to ourselves, we are likely to feel ______ and will respond ______.
a. personal distress; altruistically
b. empathic concern; egoistically
c. personal distress; egoistically
d. empathic concern; altruistically
28. The idea that we use our current mood to help us understand how we feel about things in our environment is known as ______.
a. the availability heuristic
b. the affect priming model
c. the image-reparation model
d. the affect-as-information model
29. Women are more likely than men to help ______.
a. strangers
b. in everyday situations
c. in emergencies
d. all of these
30. Empathic concern ______.
a. is more likely when we are similar to the victim
b. leads people to help altruistically
c. is an emotional response focused on the person in need rather than ourselves
d. all of these
Chapter 12: Affiliation and attraction
1. A social link formed between two or more individuals is known as a(n) ______.
a. affiliation
b. bond
c. attachment
d. attraction
2. The dialectic principle involves ______.
a. individual variation in our desire for contact
b. individual variation in our desire for privacy
c. the alignment of desire with contact
d. the opposition of desire with contact
3. Brain imaging studies conducted by Johnson and colleagues (1999) show that introverts are higher in arousability, the degree to which stimulation typically produces arousal of the central nervous system, than extroverts. This study has been used to argue that ______.
a. there may be individual differences in the need for affiliation
b. that introverts may steer clear of social interaction to prevent their arousal level from reaching uncomfortable levels
c. that extroverts may seek out affiliations to raise their level of arousal
d. all of these
4. People who are highly socially anxious are more attentive to faces with ______.
a. big brown eyes
b. very small pupils
c. negative facial expressions
d. positive facial expressions
5. The theory that proposes that emotional experience is based on two factors, physiological arousal and a search for cues in the social environment, which might explain why arousal is known as the ______.
a. arousal-attribution theory
b. two-factor theory of emotion
c. social affiliation model
d. self-regulation theory
6. Internal attributions for loneliness are more likely to lead to ______.
a. chronic loneliness
b. eating disorders
c. happiness
d. short-term loneliness
7. Men tend to prefer women with a small waist to hip ratio. This may be because ______.
a. men are only interested in a woman’s physical appearance
b. it signifies youthfulness, health and fertility
c. these women are perceived to have a nicer personality
d. none of these
8. People prefer faces based on their maturity. Female faces are preferred if they are ______ mature, and male faces are preferred if they are ______ mature.
a. less; less
b. more; more
c. less; more
d. more; less
9. People who are more attractive are perceived to be ______.
a. more intelligent
b. less intelligent
c. more intelligent and actually are more intelligent
d. less intelligent and are actually more intelligent
10. Attraction is predicted by ______.
a. similarity to the self
b. similarity of attitudes
c. complementarity
d. all of these
11. Which of the following theories provides an explanation for why similarity predicts attraction?
a. the two-factor emotion theory
b. complementarity
c. balance theory
d. the mere exposure effect
12. The idea that the social perceiver will like people who like them and dislike people who dislike them is known as the ______.
a. reciprocity principle
b. complementarity principle
c. mere exposure hypothesis
d. social comparison principle
13. Grush and colleagues (1978) have demonstrated the powerful effects of familiarity. They found that in 83% of cases, the successful candidate in the 1972 congressional primaries in the United States could be predicted by the amount of media exposure they received. This demonstrates which of the following theories or effects?
a. the privacy regulation theory
b. the matching hypothesis
c. the reciprocity principle
d. the mere exposure effect
14. Generalised anxiety may cause the perceiver to ______.
a. seek out other people
b. avoid other people
c. seek out other people who are feeling anxious
d. seek out other people who are not feeling anxious
15. The idea that youth and beauty are more important determinants of attractiveness in women than status whereas status and power are more important attributes in men is known as ______.
a. power for gender effect
b. attractiveness for gender effect
c. looks for power effect
d. looks for status exchange
16. The term that describes a social link formed between two or more individuals is ______.
a. attraction
b. familiarity
c. affiliation
d. attachment
17. The evolutionary approach suggests that our tendency to form close relationships ______.
a. fluctuates over time
b. is an inherited trait that helps us to survive and reproduce
c. operates according to principles of homeostasis
d. all of these
18.The idea that our desire for privacy can vary from being open to others or closed off to others is known as ______.
a. homeostasis
b. the dialectic principle
c. the optimisation principle
d. social anxiety
19.The process by which people control their level of contact with others in order to keep it stable and as close as possible to the desired level is known as ______.
a. homeostasis
b. dialectic principle
c. optimisation principle
d. equilibrium
20. Which of the following has been identified as a main factor related to loneliness?
a. personality traits
b. social circumstances
c. social-cognitive tendencies
d. all of these
21. According to evolutionary psychologists, which physical characteristic is indicative of physical health and a lack of genetic defects?
a. small waist-to-hip ratio
b. facial symmetry
c. slim build
d. facial maturity
22. The finding that individuals perceived to be physically attractive have better personalities and lead happier lives is ______.
a. a myth
b. true in individualistic cultures
c. true in collectivist cultures
d. true in both individualist and collectivist cultures
23. Newcomb (1961) had participants fill in questionnaires about their attitudes and values before they arrived at university. Although in their first few weeks of university participants preferred those who lived close to them, over time attraction was more closely related to similarity in their initial attitudes. Such findings suggest that ______.
a. only physical or obvious bases for similarity are important
b. similarity on the basis of psychological characteristics are important in the early phases of a relationship, but a physical basis for similarity becomes more important over time
c. proximity is more important than similarity
d. a physical basis for similarity is important in the early phases of a relationship, but similarity on the basis of psychological characteristics becomes more important over time
24. Research suggests we are attracted to people ______.
a. with similar demographics
b. with similar attitudes
c. of similar physical attractiveness
d. all of these
25. Which of the following does NOT provide an explanation for the relationship between similarity and attraction?
a. balance theory
b. the mere exposure effect
c. social comparison
d. evolutionary approach
26. Which theory of attraction suggests that if two people are friends but have opposing views, they will avoid tension and arousal by either changing their attitude towards each other or changing their attitudes so that they are more in line with one another?
a. social comparison
b. evolutionary perspective
c. balance theory
d. reciprocity principle
27. Balance theory suggests that a relationship between two people will be balanced when ______.
a. they are of similar physical attractiveness
b. they share the same values
c. material and psychological resources are exchanged equally between individuals
d. they share similar genes
28. Which of the following theories argues that humans are unconsciously attracted to similar others because they share similar genes?
a. the mere exposure effect
b. complementarity principle
c. evolutionary explanation
d. matching hypothesis
29. Looks-for-status exchange suggests that men are attracted to younger women because female youth signifies ______, while women are attracted to ______ men because their age is likely to be accompanied by ______.
a. fertility; older; beauty
b. fertility; younger; higher social status
c. beauty; older; higher social status
d. beauty; younger; intelligence
30. Dittes and Kelley (1956) had participants take part in small group discussions. Prior to this, anonymous written evaluations led participants to believe that other group members either liked them or disliked them. Results showed that students who believed they were liked were more attracted to the group than those who believed that they were disliked. Such findings demonstrate that ______ is partly responsible for attraction.
a. status
b. familiarity
c. complementarity
d. reciprocity
Chapter 13: Friendship and love
1. The presentation of intimate information about oneself to another person that is a key part of the development of close relationships is known as ______.
a. gossiping
b. confession
c. self-disclosure
d. self-exposure
2. Social penetration theory ______.
a. is supported empirically for people of different cultures
b. is not supported empirically across different cultures
c. always holds true regardless of the circumstance
d. none of these
3. Women disclose ______ men in same-sex friendships.
a. less than
b. more than
c. as much as
d. twice as much as
4. Lee’s typology of love divided love into three primary types. These are passionate love, friendship love and ______.
a. possessive love
b. pragmatic love
c. altruistic love
d. game-playing love
5. The triangulation theory of love suggests that there are seven types of love which differ depending upon the degree of ______.
a. passion, intimacy and commitment
b. excitement, reliability, sense of humour
c. passion, reliability, commitment
d. excitement, passion and reliability
6. ______ love is a state of intense longing for another person that is experienced
during the early stages of a romantic relationship.
a. Game-playing
b. Companionate
c. Obsessive
d. Passionate
7. Zillman’s (1984) experiment demonstrates that fear is incorrectly labelled as attraction to the female research assistant. This illustrates ______.
a. the three-factor theory of emotion
b. the excitation-transfer model
c. the triangulation theory of love
d. the social penetration theory
8. The name of the construct that is defined as reflecting whether a person feels happy and satisfied in a relationship is ______.
a. interpersonal attraction
b. relationship contentment
c. relationship satisfaction
d. a social network
9. The idea that in social relationships there is an exchange of valued goods, be they material or emotional, is known as ______.
a. social value theory
b. attachment theory
c. social exchange theory
d. excitation transfer theory
10. People in close relationships expect an equal exchange in terms of love, emotional and financial support, and household tasks. This describes which theory?
a. equity theory
b. attachment theory
c. sharing theory
d. the three-factor theory of love
11. A map of a relationship between individuals showing how they are related to each other is known as a ______.
a. social map
b. social relations map
c. relationship map
d. social network
12. Unhappy couples ______.
a. focus on the negative aspects of their relationship
b. feel envious when they see happier couples
c. feel worried when they see couples who are unhappier than they are
d. all of these
13. If a child’s caregiver was caring and responded sensitively to their needs, they are likely to believe they are worthy of love, and that other people can be trusted. This attachment style is known as ______.
a. avoidant
b. anxious
c. ambivalent
d. secure
14. Those people who have high self-esteem but do NOT trust others are likely to be ______.
a. dismissing avoidant
b. fearful avoidant
c. preoccupied
d. secure
15. The idea that people will be committed to a relationship to the extent that they have high satisfaction, low perceived quality of alternatives, and many shared memories, friends and activities is known as ______.
a. the interdependence theory
b. the independence theory
c. the investment model
d. none of these
16. Social penetration theory offers an explanation for why and how friendships develop, focusing on the crucial role of ______.
a. reciprocity
b. self-disclosure
c. intimacy
d. gender differences
17. The fact that women self-disclose more in same-sex relationships than men, may be because ______.
a. men meet friends face-to-face less than women
b. women engage in more shared activities
c. a cultural norm prescribes that men should not act in a vulnerable or dependant manner
d. all of these
18. Which of the following statements about heterosexual masculinity is incorrect?
a. it involves valuing masculine traits associated with power and control
b. men are particularly likely to conform to this norm in the company of women
c. it involves devaluing female traits of tenderness and vulnerability
d. men who conform to heterosexual masculinity have a tendency to denigrate male homosexuality
19. According to Lee’s typology of love, mania (possessive love) is made up of ______.
a. friendship and game-playing love
b. passion and friendship love
c. passionate and game-playing love
d. altruistic and pragmatic love
20. The enduring type of love that is typical of long-term relationships, characterised by trust, respect and mutual understanding is known as ______.
a. passionate love
b. compassionate love
c. pragmatic love
d. friendship love
21. Which theory focuses on the role of arousal in romantic love?
a. Lee’s typology of love
b. triangular theory
c. social penetration theory
d. three-factor theory of love
22. The process by which physiological arousal from a different source can inadvertently be interpreted as romantic attraction in the presence of an attractive person is known as ______.
a. arousal transfer
b. excitation transfer
c. residual arousal
d. transference
23. Equity theory suggests a relationship is most likely to be successful when each partner ______.
a. feels that the they receive more from the relationship than they give
b. feels that they give more to the relationship then they get
c. believes their ratio of inputs to outputs is equal
d. feels the benefits of the relationship outweigh the costs
24. Which of the following factors was NOT noted by Reis and Patrick (1996) as a characteristic of an intimate relationship?
a. commitment
b. understanding
c. caring
d. validation
25. People in an unhappy relationship are more likely to ______.
a. blame the relationship problems on their partner
b. see their partner’s problematic behaviour as stable and unlikely to get better in the future
c. focus on the negative implications of social comparison
d. all of these
26. Attachment refers to the emotional bond that develops in ______.
a. romantic relationships
b. friendships
c. child and caregiver relationships
d. any relationship
27. According to Ainsworth, if the caregiver is insensitive to the needs of a child and does NOT respond consistently, the child will develop ______.
a. an anxious/ambivalent attachment
b. a secure attachment
c. a preoccupied attachment
d. an avoidant attachment
28. While people high in ______ try to maintain distance from others to preserve their independence and self-esteem, and tend to be less involved in relationships and are uncomfortable with self-disclosure, people high in ______ seek support, acceptance and closeness to others in response to their fear of rejection and use intense efforts to ensure support and maintain proximity to others.
a. dismissing avoidance; fearful avoidance
b. fearful avoidance; dismissing avoidance
c. attachment-avoidance; attachment- anxiety
d. attachment-anxiety; attachment-avoidance
29. Individuals who have high self-esteem, but do NOT trust others, and therefore avoid close relationships have which attachment style?
a. preoccupied
b. dismissing-avoidant
c. fearful avoidant
d. secure
30. Duck’s (1992) relationship dissolution model proposed a sequence of events that characterise the end of a long-term relationship. These stages, in the correct order, are ______.
a. the intrapsychic stage, the social phase, the grave-dressing phase, the dyadic phase
b. the intrapsychic stage, the dyadic phase, the social phase, the grave-dressing phase
c. the social phase, the dyadic phase, the intrapsychic stage, the grave-dressing phase
d. the grave-dressing phases, the dyadic phase, the intrapsychic phase, the social phase
Chapter 14: Applications
1. One of the key early pioneers of applied social psychology was ______.
a. Rebecca Bigler
b. Kurt Lewin
c. Loris Vezzali
d. Miles Hewstone
2. Which of the following is an example of research inspired by the events of the Second World War?
a. Bandura’s work on social learning
b. Singer’s investigation of intergroup contact
c. Yap et al.’s examination of the effects of posture on behaviour
d. Kraus et al.’s work on changing health behaviour
3. It is important to employers that employees are satisfied in their jobs because social psychologists have found that job satisfaction predicts ______.
a. team cohesion and salary
b. team cohesion and commitment
c. team cohesion and performance
d. performance and commitment
4. Which of the following factors does NOT feature as a predictor of high job satisfaction in the job satisfaction model?
a. financial reward
b. task identity
c. feedback
d. task significance
5. According to Judge, Locke, and Durham (1997), one predict of job satisfaction is our core self-evaluation. This is comprised of self-esteem, self-efficacy, locus of control, and ______ .
a. agreeableness
b. narcissism
c. neuroticism
d. extroversion
6. Which of the following is NOT a reason why individuals high on core self-evaluation tend to have higher job satisfaction?
a. They focus on positive aspects of their work environment.
b. They seek out jobs with positive characteristics.
c. They are more confident about taking on challenging roles.
d. They avoid negative people in the workplace.
7. Embodied cognition refers to the phenomenon whereby ______.
a. our bodily actions influence our thoughts and feelings
b. our thoughts and feelings influence our bodily actions
c. our bodily actions are related to electrical brain impulses
d. our bodily actions and our thoughts and feelings are sometimes unrelated
8. Which of the following is an accurate description of a powerful posture?
a. arms and legs crossed
b. hands on hips and legs hip width apart
c. arms crossed and legs hip width apart
d. arms above head and legs crossed
9. Carney et al. (2010) found that participants who adopted an expansive (rather than contractive) posture subsequently had ______.
a. higher levels of cortisol and lower levels of testosterone
b. higher levels of cortisol and testosterone
c. higher levels of testosterone and lower levels of cortisol
d. lower levels of cortisol and testosterone
10. Carney et al. (2010) found that when undertaking a decision-making game, participants who had previously adopted an expansive (rather than contractive) posture made ______.
a. a risky choice
b. a safe choice
c. a choice based on systematic processing
d. a choice based on gut feeling
11. Which of the following traits has the perception of power NOT been shown to predict?
a. hypocrisy
b. deception
c. infidelity
d. honesty
12. Yap et al. (2013, Experiment 1) gave participants the opportunity to cheat by ‘accidentally’ giving them twice the expected amount for taking part in a study. They found that approximately _____ of participants who had previously held an expansive pose, and _____ of participants who had previously held a contractive pose, failed to return the money.
a. 70%; 40%
b. 50%; 20%
c. 40%; 70%
d. 20%; 50%
13. Yap et al. (2013, Experiment 3) had students play a racing game in a driving simulator. Depending on the condition, they either played in a very small simulator or a larger simulator. They found that participants in the large simulator engaged ______.
a. in more ‘hit and runs’ during the game
b. in more incidences of ‘road rage’ during the game
c. in less ‘hit and runs’ during the game
d. in more incidences of ‘road rage’ during the game
14. According to the theory of planned behaviour, the most important factor that predicts our behaviour is ______.
a. perceived behavioural control
b. behavioural intention
c. attitude
d. subjective norm
15. A key limitation of theory of planned behaviour is that it ______.
a. incorporates too many predictors
b. assumes that our peers influence us more than they actually do
c. does not take into account past behaviour
d. all of these
16. Protection motivation theory (Rogers, 1983) proposes that we engaged in two cognitive processes when we encounter a potential threat to our health. These are ______.
a. attitude appraisal and efficacy appraisal
b. threat appraisal and coping appraisal
c. norm appraisal and control appraisal
d. public appraisal and private appraisal
17. Research on protection motivation theory (Rogers, 1983) suggests that ______ is a stronger predictor of protection motivation than ______.
a. coping appraisal; threat appraisal
b. threat appraisal; coping appraisal
c. public appraisal; private appraisal
d. norm appraisal; control appraisal
18. The transtheoretical model (Prochaska, DiClemente, and Norcross, 1992) suggests five stages which we must go through in order to change behaviour successfully. The fourth stage is ______.
a. contemplation
b. preparation
c. maintenance
d. action
19. Gollwitzer (1990) suggested that people fail to perform intended behaviour in part because we ______.
a. forget to act
b. are in denial
c. feel ashamed
d. feel defensive
20. An implementation intention can be described as ______.
a. a how-why statement
b. a what-where statement
c. a how-where statement
d. an if-then statement
21. Which of the following best describes ‘binge drinking’?
a. drinking five or more drinks in one session
b. drinking eight or more units in one session
c. drinking six or more units in one session
d. there is currently no clear or universal definition
22. Social norm interventions to reduce binge drinking typically highlight that peers ______.
a. drink less than you expect
b. embarrass themselves while drunk
c. disapprove of drinking
d. find you embarrassing when drink
23. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the social norm approach to reducing binge drinking?
a. There must be a mismatch between actual and perceived peer drinking.
b. The intervention is likely to be less effective in the UK than in the US.
c. The intervention is more likely to be effective when drinking is illegal.
d. Drinking behaviour isn’t strongly influenced by our peers.
24. The tendency for people to attribute successes to internal, personal attributes, and failure to external factors outside of our control is known as ______.
a. self-verification
b. self-affirmation
c. narcissism
d. self-serving bias
25. Rushton and Campbell (1977) found that participants were more likely to make a pledge to give blood when a confederate had previously ______.
a. explained to them the benefits for society
b. signed up to give blood themselves
c. been pleasant towards them
d. all of these
26. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of multicultural education interventions?
a. There are mixed findings regarding the benefits.
b. They assume that children are passive recipients of information.
c. They are not suitable for children under the age of 10.
d. Children may distort information inconsistent with their existing attitudes.
27. Multicultural education interventions primarily involve ______.
a. learning about the culture and lifestyle of other groups
b. engaging in cooperative contact with members other groups
c. adopting a colour-blind policy regarding other groups
d. visiting schools with a different ethnic mix
28. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of anti-racist interventions?
a. There is a lack of research into their efficacy.
b. They assume that children passively accept information presented to them.
c. They may only work for high status groups.
d. They may result in self-righteousness and anger.
29. The Jigsaw classroom technique involves children from different groups ______.
a. completing an educational jigsaw together
b. completing cooperative classroom activities together
c. working in mixed-group pairs to learn about each other’s cultures
d. all of these
30. Cameron et al. (2011) found that non-disabled children who imagined contact with a disabled child subsequently rated disabled people as being ______.
a. higher in warmth and lower in competence
b. lower in warmth and higher in competence
c. lower in warmth and competence
d. higher in warmth and competence
Document Information
Connected Book
Complete Test Bank Essential Social Psychology 4e with Answers
By Richard J. Crisp
Explore recommendations drawn directly from what you're reading
Essential Social Psychology 4e Test Bank docx
DOCX Ch. All in one Current
All chapters in this product are shown above