2e Sensation and Perception Test Bank docx Test Bank Answers - Complete Test Bank | Sensation and Perception 2e by Harris by John Harris. DOCX document preview.
Testbank
Chapter 1: The nature of perception, and some ways of investigating it
1. Researchers in perception study:
a. How the brain acquires information through the senses
b. The neurological basis of handedness
c. Why some things are easier to remember than others
d. None of these
2. Which of the following is not a Gestalt psychologist?
a. Koehler
b. Wertheimer
c. Koffka
d. Gibson
3. Which of the following is a Gestalt perspective on perception?
a. Bigger is always better
b. The whole is other than the sum of the parts
c. The whole is less than the sum of the parts
d. Perception relies on past experience
4. Which statement best captures Gregory’s view of perception?
a. Percepts are accurate representations of the world
b. Percepts are like scientific hypotheses
c. Percepts are like weather forecasts
d. Perception does not involve cognition
5. According to Gibson, the affordance of an object is?
a. The likely cost in the effort of manipulating it
b. Its natural place in the world
c. Its implicit suggestion of how to handle it
d. Its economic value
6. Which of the following is not a level of description in Marr’s theory of vision?
a. Algorithmic
b. Computational
c. Physiological
d. Implementation
7. A motion coherence threshold is calculated from:
a. The proportion of elements moving in the same direction at the same velocity
b. The proportion of moving elements of the same contrast
c. The element with the lowest velocity
d. The proportion of stationary elements
8. In the elderly, motion coherence thresholds are higher (motion perception is worse) than in the young:
a. At higher speeds
b. At lower speeds
c. At all speeds
d. There is no difference at any speed
9. Adapting to vertical stripes:
a. Makes horizontal motion harder to see
b. Makes oblique stripes harder to see
c. Makes faint vertical stripes harder to see
d. Makes everything harder to see
10. In serial visual search, reaction times:
a. Decrease with the number of elements in the display
b. Become more variable
c. Increase with the number of elements in the display
d. None of these
11. Perceptual learning in Vernier acuity has been studied by:
a. Change in contrast thresholds
b. Selective adaptation
c. Change in coherence thresholds
d. Transfer of training
12. The oblique effect is:
a. Misperception of a statement which is indirect
b. Lower sensitivity to oblique than to horizontal and vertical contours
c. Slower responses to things seen out of the corner of the eye
d. Misperception of body orientation when not upright
13. When hearing and vision provide conflicting information about the location of objects:
a. Visual information is always followed
b. Auditory information is always followed
c. Auditory information biases perceived location when visual information is imprecise
d. None of these
14. Which of the following brain regions is thought to be involved in synaesthesia?
a. Pre-cuneus
b. Hippocampus
c. Frontal lobes
d. Hypothalamus
15. Measuring how changes in the apparatus affect the properties of the stimulus is known as:
a. Sensitization
b. Accommodation
c. Transduction
d. Calibration
16. The highest frequency which can be detected by a human with normal hearing is about:
a. 100 Hz
b. 5 kHz
c. 20 kHz
d. 50 kHz
17. The loudest sound which can be heard by a human without feeling pain is about:
a. 120 dB (SPL)
b. 50 dB (SPL)
c. 200 dB (SPL)
d. 80 dB (SPL)
18. The average luminance of the sky is about:
a. 100 cd m−2
b. 1000 cd m−2
c. 4000 cd m−2
d. 400 cd m−2
19. The size of visual stimuli is often expressed in:
a. Centimetres
b. Candelas per square metre
c. Foot lamberts
d. Degrees of visual angle
20. The elements of which an image on a digital computer screen is composed are known as:
a. Textels
b. Pixels
c. Radians
d. Verniers
21. How is human vision different from the operation of a bar-code reader?
a. It transduces electromagnetic energy into electrical activity
b. It is usually accurate
c. It makes use of a large cache of stored knowledge
d. It is usually fast
22. Why is the Law of Similarity not a good explanation of perceptual grouping?
a. It is hard to understand
b. It is a re-description of the phenomena which it seeks to explain
c. There are experiments which disprove it
d. There are other perceptual laws which contradict it
23. JJ Gibson was especially interested in:
a. The perceptual control of actions
b. Visual illusions
c. Visual cognition
d. Brain mechanisms of perception
24. Implementation (one of Marr’s levels of explanation) must be different in principle in brains and digital computers because:
a. They have different energy requirements
b. One is made of metal, the other of living tissue
c. The computer is much faster than the brain
d. Neurons can be in one of many states, whereas the elements in a digital computer can be in one of only two states
25. An absolute threshold is:
a. A definition of a completely forbidden action
b. A measure of the faintest stimulus that can be detected
c. That part of personal space from which everyone else is excluded
d. The smallest difference between stimuli needed for reliable discrimination
26. Thresholds are a measure of which aspect of a perceptual system?
a. Its sensitivity
b. Its dynamic range
c. Its adaptability
d. Its ecological importance
27. In parallel visual search, reaction times:
a. Decrease with the number of elements in the display
b. Become more variable
c. Increase with the number of elements in the display
d. Do not vary with the number of elements
28. Ahissar and Hochstein suggested that during the early stages of perceptual learning:
a. Learning occurred in more central cognitive processes
b. Learning occurred in specific early visual mechanisms
c. Learning was slow and tentative
d. Learning was not subject to interference
29. Contextual or top-down effects in perception are probably mediated at least to some extent by:
a. Lateral connections in the retina and cochlea
b. Reward signals in the brain
c. Feedback from later to earlier stages of perception
d. Cerebellar activity
30. Humans can detect the range of sound frequencies from about:
a. 1 Hz to 100 Hz
b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
c. 5 kHz to 100 kHz
d. 20 kHz to 100 kHz
Short answer questions
1. Compare and contrast the views on the nature of perception of RL Gregory and JJ Gibson
2. How has motion perception changed in the elderly?
3. How have visual search tasks affected our view of visual attention?
4. How have experiments on perceptual learning influenced our view of plasticity in the adult brain?
5. How would you convince a sceptic who says that synaesthesia is just a product of a vivid imagination?
Chapter 2: Research methods in perception
MCQs
1. Introspection is of limited value in understanding perception because:
a. Some perceptual processes are not available to consciousness
b. It is hard to describe what one perceives
c. People tend to make mistakes in their description of percepts
d. None of these
2. The Method of Adjustment is of limited value because:
a. There is a large variance in the responses
b. It confounds caution and sensitivity
c. It does not give repeatable results
d. It takes too much time
3. In a graph showing the Signal + Noise and the Noise distributions in Signal Detection Theory, the units on the x-axis are:
a. Criteria
b. Probabilities
c. Logarithms
d. Standard deviations
4. In Signal Detection Theory, the observer’s criterion:
a. Is the value below which responses are rejections
b. Is the value above which responses are rejections
c. Is the value below which responses are hits
d. Is the value below which responses are incorrect
5. The psychometric function:
a. Is the observer’s motivation to do a task
b. Is a measure of the observer’s personality
c. Is a graph plotting observer performance against stimulus value
d. Is the result of calibrating the apparatus
6. Performance in a 2AFC task is affected by:
a. Shifts of criterion
b. Lapses of attention
c. Slowness of response
d. None of these
7. A shortcoming of the Method of Constant Stimuli is that:
a. It encourages guessing
b. It produces Class B observations
c. It requires an initial guess by the experimenter about threshold value
d. It produces imprecise measures of threshold
8. Adaptive Methods make use of:
a. The history of the participant’s responses
b. Random guessing
c. The experimenter’s guess about the location of the threshold
d. The participant’s criterion
9. Data obtained from Magnitude Estimation are:
a. Interval
b. Binary
c. Categorical
d. Ordinal
10. Sensory evoked potentials are usually averaged:
a. To remove the effects of brain activity not related to the stimulus
b. To identify in which perceptual system they originate
c. To prevent experimenter bias
d. To eliminate criterion shifts
11. From the Auditory Evoked Potential, one can identify:
a. Lapses of attention
b. A native speaker of a language
c. Intrusive thoughts
d. The likely site of neural damage in the auditory system
12. Magnetoencephalography is conducted in a shielded room:
a. To prevent extraneous noises from interfering with the measurements
b. To prevent any danger to experimenters
c. To prevent interference with the signals from the brain by the magnetic field of the earth
d. To allow more precise stimulus presentation
13. Which of the following is not a disadvantage in fMRI?
a. Its temporal resolution
b. Restrictions on the individuals who may be scanned
c. A need to keep the participant stationary
d. Its spatial resolution
14. The units into which the brain is subdivided in the analysis of data from fMRI are known as:
a. Voxels
b. Pixels
c. Sulci
d. SQUIDs
15. Which of the following is not a disadvantage in studying the effects of brain lesions in humans?
a. Over time, tissue surrounding the lesion may take over lost functions
b. A lesion may affect several functional areas
c. Patients’ willingness to cooperate in studies
d. Patients may tire quickly
16. A receptive field is:
a. An individual’s field of view
b. Part of the measurement process in fMRI
c. A dimension of personality
d. The array of sensory receptors within which stimulation causes changes in the activity of a sensory neuron
17. Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation with short (<5 ms) intervals between pulses:
a. Produces excitatory effects in neural tissue
b. Produces inhibitory effects in neural tissue
c. Is not recommended for experimental purposes in humans
d. Has no effect on neural tissue
18. Support for the Bayesian approach to perception has come from studies of:
a. Single neurons
b. Visual aftereffects
c. Cue combination
d. Masking
19. Artificial neural networks are composed of:
a. Layers
b. Random couplings
c. Recursive loops
d. None of these
20. Artificial neural networks learn by:
a. Turning off some units
b. Adding more unit
c. Finding the most active unit
d. Changing the weights of inputs at each unit
21. Questionnaires can give useful information about:
a. Differences in perception between groups
b. Neural processing in the retina
c. Perceptual thresholds
d. Auditory cortex
22. In a two-alternative forced choice task:
a. The stimulus is always detectable
b. The participant never makes an error
c. The stimulus is always presented
d. Lapses of attention do not affect measures of performance
23. The slope of the psychometric function gives:
a. A measure of the observer’s accuracy
b. A measure of the precision in the sensory system being investigated
c. The observer’s criterion
d. None of these
24. Magnitude Estimation is useful because:
a. It produces interval data
b. It is bias-free
c. It gives data which are normally distributed
d. It can be used to measure the perception of stimulus attributes which are hard to quantify
25. The EEG gives:
a. Excellent temporal resolution
b. Immunity to interference from electrical equipment
c. Excellent spatial resolution
d. Useful data from a single trial
26. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of PET?
a. Its temporal resolution
b. The need to inject a radioactive substance into participants
c. A need to keep the participant stationary
d. Its spatial resolution
27. In fMRI, the haemodynamic response is:
a. The pulse
b. The assumed change in blood flow associated with neural activity
c. The increase in heart rate produced by arousing stimuli
d. The unwanted changes in heart rate caused by scanner noise
28. Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation with intervals of 10 to 30 ms between pulses:
a. Produces excitatory effects in neural tissue
b. Produces inhibitory effects in neural tissue
c. Is not recommended for experimental purposes in humans
d. Has no effect on neural tissue
29. Broca examined post-mortem the brains of patients who had problems in speaking but not in understanding speech. He found lesions in the:
a. Right parietal lobe
b. Left occipital lobe
c. Left temporal lobe
d. Lateral left frontal lobe
30. A problem with applying the Bayesian approach to perception is that:
a. Perception has a random element
b. It is sometimes difficult to ascertain prior probabilities
c. Likelihoods are often equal
d. It imposes unlikely constraints
Short answer questions
1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Method of Adjustment and a two-alternative Forced Choice task as ways of measuring sensory thresholds?
2. To what extent do adaptive psychophysical methods overcome the disadvantages of other methods?
3. Describe TMS and give an example of its use in experiments.
4. Why is fMRI-A a useful technique? Give an example of its use.
5. Compare and contrast single cell recording in animals and the study of humans with brain damage as ways of studying brain function.
Chapter 3: Mechanisms of early and middle visual processing
MCQs
1. The component of the human eye with the greatest optical power is the:
a. Lens
b. Pupil
c. Vitreous
d. Cornea
2. The light-sensitive surface in the eye is known as the:
a. Retina
b. Choroid
c. Sclera
d. Zonule
3. Which of these does not affect pupil diameter?
a. Luminance level
b. Cognitive demands
c. Interest
d. Vitreous humour
4. The outer nuclear layer of the retina contains:
a. The cell bodies of the photoreceptors
b. The amacrine cells
c. The choroid
d. The cell bodies of the bipolar cells
5. Retinal rods are most dense:
a. In the fovea
b. In the macula
c. 15–20° from the fovea
d. At the blind spot
6. The fibres in the optic nerve number about:
a. 6 million
b. 120 million
c. 150,000
d. 1 million
7. In dark adaptation, the rod-cone break:
a. Lies about 15° from the fovea
b. Occurs when rods become more sensitive than cones
c. Is a symptom of night-blindness
d. Is related to pupil diameter
8. Compared with cones, the peak sensitivity of rods is shifted towards:
a. Longer wavelengths
b. Shorter wavelengths
c. Flicker
d. The fovea
9. Parasol ganglion cells are:
a. P cells
b. K cells
c. M cells
d. Driven only by rods
10. Experiments with monkeys suggest that P cells respond to:
a. Line orientation
b. Flicker
c. Binocular disparity
d. Motion
11. The input layer in V1 is:
a. Layer 5
b. Layer 3
c. Layer 4
d. Layer 1
12. Visual area V6 forms part of the:
a. Dorsal stream
b. Ventral stream
c. K layers of the LGN
d. Cerebellum
13. After staining visual cortex with cytochrome oxidase, pale stripes are found in:
a. V1
b. V2
c. V5/MT
d. V4
14. Area V2 contains cells which respond to:
a. Arcs
b. Stars
c. Components of natural scenes
d. All of these
15. Which of the following has not been suggested as a role of V4?
a. Figure/ground segregation
b. Detection of discontinuities of texture
c. Detection of complex object features
d. Motion perception
16. After lesions to the temporal lobe, monkeys cannot:
a. Discriminate visually between wooden blocks of different shapes
b. Use a wooden block as a cue to the location of food
c. Reach for a wooden block
d. Place a wooden block in a hole
17. Which of the following has not been shown to be reliable cues for segmentation?
a. Differences of element colour
b. Differences of element orientation
c. Differences in number of line endings of elements
d. Differences of direction of motion of elements
18. Analysis of external space takes place in:
a. The ventral stream
b. The cerebellum
c. The koniocellular layers of the LGN
d. The dorsal stream
19. Functions of the Superior Parietal Lobule include:
a. Perception of colour
b. Control of actions
c. Memory for form
d. Understanding speech
20. De Haan and Cowey likened the arrangement of visual cortical areas to:
a. Modules within a network
b. Different sites within two processing streams
c. Books on a library shelf
d. The random positioning of raisins in a fruit cake
21. What is the approximate optical power of the cornea in dioptres?
a. 20
b. 43
c. 10
d. 100
22. In the inner plexiform layer of the retina:
a. Are the cell bodies of the bipolar cells
b. Horizontal cells make connections with photoreceptors and bipolar cells
c. Amacrine cells make connections with ganglion and bipolar cells
d. Are the outer segments of the photoreceptors
23. Retinal cones are most dense in the:
a. Fovea
b. Macula
c. 15–20° from the fovea
d. Blind spot
24. Complete dark adaptation takes about:
a. 60 minutes
b. 8 minutes
c. 80 minutes
d. 25 sminutes
25. Midget ganglion cells are:
a. P cells
b. K cells
c. M cells
d. Driven only by rods
26. Experiments with monkeys suggest that M cells respond to:
a. Line orientation
b. Flicker
c. Colour
d. Size of texture elements
27. To which of the following, do cells in the inter-blob regions of V1 not respond?
a. Colour-defined edges
b. Luminance-defined edges
c. Line orientation
d. Direction of motion
28. After lesions to the parietal lobe, monkeys cannot:
a. Discriminate visually between wooden blocks of different shapes
b. Use a wooden block as a cue to the location of food
c. Discriminate visually between wooden blocks of different colours
d. Remember the colour of a wooden block
29. Object recognition takes place in:
a. The ventral stream
b. The cerebellum
c. The koniocellular layers of the LGN
d. The dorsal stream
30. Newsome and Paré showed that after lesions to V5/MT monkeys showed impairments in:
a. Orientation discrimination
b. Colour discrimination
c. Motion coherence thresholds
d. Size discrimination
Short answer questions
1. To what extent is the human eye like a camera?
2. What are the differences between vision using rods and vision using cones?
3. How do the properties of visual neurons change as one moves from retina to extra-striate cortex?
4. What are the differences between the magno-, parvo-, and konio-cellular streams?
5. What are the dorsal and ventral visual streams, and how do their properties differ?
Chapter 4: Seeing in colour
MCQs
1. Long wavelengths usually appear:
a. Red
b. Green
c. Grey
d. Blue
2. The amount of white mixed with a hue defines its:
a. Reflectance
b. Saturation
c. Lightness
d. Unique hue
3. In additive colour mixing, a mixture of red and green lights appears to the normal observer:
a. Brown
b. Purple
c. Turquoise
d. Yellow
4. The complementary colour of blue is:
a. Orange
b. Green
c. Magenta
d. Yellow
5. In the CIE 1931 chromaticity diagram, a colour lying on a straight line joining two points on opposite sides of the perimeter can be formed by:
a. A mixture of any three colours in the lower region of the diagram
b. A mixture of the colours on the perimeter at the ends of the line
c. A mixture of the colours at the nearest corners of the diagram
d. None of these
6. Rod absorbance peaks at:
a. 419 nm
b. 531 nm
c. 558 nm
d. 496 nm
7. Deuteranopes lack:
a. M cones
b. L cones
c. S cones
d. M and L cones
8. A woman with a defect on one X chromosome of the gene for M cones is married to a man with normal colour vision. Of their daughters, on average:
a. Half will have defective colour vision and half will have normal colour vision, but be carriers of the defective gene
b. All will be carriers
c. Half will be normal and half will be carriers
d. All will have defective colour vision
9. L-M colour opponency originates in:
a. Midget retinal ganglion cells
b. Koniocellular LGN cells
c. Parasol retinal ganglion cells
d. L cones
10. Experiments in which coloured targets are masked by colour noise suggest:
a. Colours on the cardinal axes are the best maskers
b. Colours on the cardinal axes have no special status as maskers
c. Targets composed of colours on the cardinal axes are easiest to identify
d. None of these
11. Neurons in monkey inferior temporal cortex are tuned to:
a. Only colours on the cardinal axes of colour space
b. Opponent colours
c. One of a wide range of colours
d. All colours
12. The impairment of motion perception at isoluminance probably occurs because:
a. Cone contrast is reduced
b. The motion processing system is driven mostly by a luminance input
c. The S cone system is sluggish
d. Visual acuity is reduced at isoluminance
13. Colour assimilation probably occurs because:
a. Complementary colours attract each other
b. Eye movements smear out signals from neighbouring photoreceptors
c. Parvocellular ganglion cells are sluggish
d. Receptive fields which signal colour are larger than those which signal spatial detail
14. Which of the following probably does not contribute to colour constancy?
a. Cone excitation ratios
b. Rod signals
c. Cone adaptation
d. Familiar hues
15. Trichromatic vision evolved in humans via a duplication of:
a. Rods
b. S cones
c. L cones
d. M cones
16. Animals with dichromatic vision are said to be able to discriminate about 10,000 different colours. How large is the set of colours thought to be discriminable by those with trichromatic vision?
a. 100,000
b. 20,000
c. 1 million
d. 5 million
17. Gilchrist demonstrated that perceived lightness depends on a comparison of surfaces:
a. In adjacent regions in the retinal image
b. In the upper region of the visual field
c. In the lower region of the visual field
d. In the same depth plane
18. Li and Gilchrist showed that the lightest region of the scene in perceived as white unless:
a. A darker region is larger
b. The lightest region is surrounded by dark grey
c. The surrounding regions are in a different depth plane
d. The display is viewed monocularly
19. Adelson suggested that lightness is computed by the visual system:
a. After information from the two eyes is combined
b. After a full 3D representation of the scene has been made
c. From a comparison of local regions of the scene
d. None of these
20. Participants in an experiment, asked to select which colour of packaging of condoms suggested that the contents were ‘durable’ rather than ‘refined’, tended to choose:
a. Red
b. Purple
c. Green
d. Blue
21. The visible spectrum runs from about:
a. 370 to 700 nm
b. 500 to 800 nm
c. 200 to 600 nm
d. 420 to 730 nm
22. In additive colour mixing, a mixture of blue and green lights appears to the normal observer:
a. Brown
b. Purple
c. Cyan
d. Yellow
23. M cone absorbance peaks at about:
a. 500 nm
b. 650 nm
c. 370 nm
d. 531 nm
24. Protonopes lack:
a. M cones
b. L cones
c. S cones
d. M and L cones
25. Blue cone monochromats:
a. Have no colour discrimination
b. Have normal visual acuity
c. Have some colour discrimination at twilight
d. Have abnormal scotopic vision
26. Hofer et al. found, from their high-resolution images of the human retina, that blue cone density was about:
a. 2%
b. 20%
c. 15%
d. 6%
27. Webster and Mollon found that after adapting the red-green opponent channel:
a. The appearance of yellow was unaffected
b. Yellow stimuli now had a blue tinge
c. Greenish-blue stimuli had the appearance of their blue as well as their green component altered
d. Green stimuli had a blue tinge
28. Kiper et al. found that cells in V2 which responded to colour:
a. Had peak sensitivities from all regions of colour space
b. Responded to no other stimulus feature
c. Had peak sensitivities on the cardinal axes
d. Were very broadly tuned to colour
29. Colour assimilation is greater in displays which contain:
a. Larger elements
b. Smaller elements
c. Blues and yellows
d. Reds and greens
30. Bramao et al. concluded that colour is important in object recognition especially when:
a. The participant is young
b. The object is unfamiliar
c. The object is small
d. The colour is diagnostic
Short answer questions
1. Define additive and subtractive colour mixing. What have they revealed about human colour vision?
2. What are the types of colour-deficient vision, and how are they to be explained?
3. What individual differences in colour vision have been identified within the normal population?
4. How is colour represented in visual cortex?
5. How do we perceive lightness?
Chapter 5: Seeing pattern and motion
MCQs
1. According to Fourier theory, the frequency component of a square wave with the highest amplitude is the:
a. Third harmonic
b. Fundamental
c. Fifth harmonic
d. Residual
2. The peak of the contrast sensitivity function for stationary gratings in moderate luminance occurs at about:
a. The lowest spatial frequency tested
b. 20 c deg−1
c. 5 c deg−1
d. 0.5 c deg−1
3. By how many spatial channels did Wilson et al. suggest foveal stimuli were encoded?
a. 12
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
4. Why does adaptation to square-wave gratings provide a strong test of the theory that spatial vision includes a Fourier analysis?
a. The theory predicts threshold elevation of sinusoidal gratings with frequencies of the third and fifth harmonics
b. The theory predicts threshold elevation of a sinusoidal grating of the fundamental frequency
c. The theory predicts a phase shift of the higher harmonics
d. The theory predicts no threshold elevations for lower spatial frequencies
5. Which of these phenomena suggests interactions between spatial channels?
a. Threshold elevation of gratings similar in spatial frequency to the adapting grating
b. The simultaneous spatial frequency illusion
c. The shape of the contrast sensitivity function
d. None of these
6. Squaring is a useful procedure in modelling because it:
a. Expands the range of values to be processed
b. Removes very small numbers from the range of values to be processed
c. Converts negative numbers to positive numbers
d. Mimics the activity of nerve cells
7. Computation of which of the following has not been suggested as a method of edge location:
a. First derivative
b. Second derivative
c. Third derivative
d. Fifth derivative
8. Holway and Boring’s study suggested that:
a. Perceived size varies with perceived distance
b. There is no systematic relationship between perceived size and perceived distance
c. Perceived size influences perceived distance
d. Perceived distance is difficult to measure
9. Leibowitz and Harvey’s study suggested that the process underlying size constancy is:
a. Automatic
b. Subject to large random variation
c. Fast
d. Flexible
10. ‘Retinal size’ is probably:
a. Sensed directly
b. Computed from perceived distance and perceived size
c. Dependent on binocular vision
d. Dependent on retinal location
11. In the Barlow and Levick model of a motion detector, two inputs are compared in a:
a. NOR gate
b. AND gate
c. AND NOT gate
d. NAND gate
12. In an x-t plot of a moving stimulus, velocity is given by:
a. Position on the y-axis
b. Position on the x-axis
c. The slope
d. The intercept
13. Cinema is possible because motion detectors:
a. Are sluggish
b. Are sensitive to colour
c. Work in dim light
d. Sample the trajectories of moving objects
14. First-order motion detectors respond to moving patterns defined by:
a. Luminance
b. Contrast
c. Depth
d. Size
15. The minimum stimulus change of a second-order moving pattern which can be detected in a range of conditions corresponds to:
a. A minimum velocity
b. A minimum change of contrast
c. A minimum displacement
d. A minimum change in depth
16. Vaina and Soloviev suggested that second-order motion is processed within the:
a. Dorsal stream
b. Cerebellum
c. Hippocampus
d. Ventral stream
17. Ramachandran and Anstis suggested that false matches were avoided in the perception of random dot kinematograms by:
a. Initial matching of low spatial frequencies
b. Tracking by small eye movements
c. Initial matching of high spatial frequencies
d. Finding a maximum displacement
18. Which stimulus manipulation did Braddick find to cause loss of perception of motion in random dot kinematograms?
a. Reducing the contrast
b. Presenting the two frames dichoptically
c. Increasing dot size
d. Increasing stimulus area
19. dmax in random dot kinematograms varies with:
a. Dot density
b. Stimulus area
c. Stimulus contrast
d. Monocular vs binocular viewing
20. When two patterns of dots moving horizontally in opposite directions are superimposed, they may produce motion transparency. Which characteristics of the patterns produce transparency?
a. The dots in each pattern must move at the same speeds
b. The patterns must be of the same size
c. The dots in each pattern must have the same lifetime
d. The dots on one pattern must be vertically displaced from the dots in the other
21. Campbell and Robson found that, as their contrasts were increased, a low contrast square-wave grating could be discriminated from a low contrast sine-wave grating when:
a. The fifth harmonic of the square-wave grating reached its contrast threshold
b. Both gratings reached 20% contrast
c. The third harmonic of the square-wave grating reached its contrast threshold
d. Only if spatial frequency was lower than 2 c deg−1
22. The progressive loss of sensitivity to gratings as spatial frequency is decreased below about 5 c deg−1 is probably due to:
a. Lateral inhibition
b. Spatial summation
c. Spatial frequency adaptation
d. Eye movements
23. What was the spatial frequency of the highest spatial frequency channel suggested by Wilson et al. to encode foveal stimuli?
a. 30 c deg−1
b. 16 c deg−1
c. 40 c deg−1
d. 25 c deg−1
24. When they used a forced choice test procedure, Nachmias et al. found, after adaptation to a square-wave grating:
a. Threshold elevation of a sine-wave grating of a frequency of the fifth harmonic of the adaptor
b. No threshold elevation of a sine-wave grating of a frequency of the fundamental of the adaptor
c. No threshold elevation of a sine-wave grating of a frequency of the third harmonic of the adaptor
d. Threshold elevation of a sine-wave grating of a frequency of one-third of the fundamental frequency of the adaptor
25. Which of the following has not been suggested as a cue for edge location?
a. The peak in the first spatial derivative
b. The zero-crossing in the second spatial derivative
c. The peak in the third spatial derivative
d. A trough in the third spatial derivative
26. Holway and Boring’s study suggested that:
a. Size constancy may be achieved through an automatic process
b. There is no consistent relationship between depth and retinal size in size constancy
c. Observer motion is important in size constancy
d. Size constancy is best indoors
27. A Reichardt detector signals, in response to flicker:
a. Leftwards and rightwards motion in alternation
b. Nothing
c. Random activity
d. Acceleration
28. The minimum stimulus change of a first-order moving pattern which can be detected in a range of conditions corresponds to:
a. A minimum velocity
b. A minimum change of contrast
c. A minimum displacement
d. A minimum change in depth
29. Motion capture is the:
a. Breakdown in apparent motion in random dot kinematograms as dmax is increased
b. Breakdown in motion transparency as the vertical displacement of dots in horizontally moving patterns is reduced
c. Action of neurons in V5/MT on inputs from V3
d. Induction of motion in the same direction of stationary regions by moving regions of a display
30. From their studies of the perception of moving gratings from which the fundamental had been removed, Georgeson and Shackleton suggested that:
a. Monocular motion detectors are sluggish
b. Binocular motion detectors track features
c. Monocular motion detectors track features
d. Binocular motion detectors respond to first-order motion
Short answer questions
1. What is a spatial contrast sensitivity function, and how is its shape to be explained?
2. Does the visual system perform a Fourier analysis of spatial patterns?
3. How are edges located in human vision?
4. How can the apparent motion of stationary stimuli be explained?
5. What governs whether we see motion transparency in two superimposed patterns moving in opposite directions?
Chapter 6: Hearing
MCQs
1. Which of the following is not one of the ossicles?
a. Malleus
b. Scala tympani
c. Stapes
d. Incus
2. What mechanical problem is overcome by the structures of the middle ear?
a. Matching the impedances of air and fluid
b. Buckling of the tympanic membrane
c. Blocking of the eustachian tube
d. Distortion of sound by the pinna
3. The organ of Corti lies on the:
a. Scala tympani
b. Vestibular membrane
c. Tectorial membrane
d. Basilar membrane
4. Movements of the basilar membrane are transmitted to the auditory nerve by the:
a. Outer hair cells
b. Pillar cells
c. Inner hair cells
d. Vestibular membrane
5. From its basal region, the basilar membrane:
a. Increases in width and flexibility
b. Increases in width and decreases in flexibility
c. Does not change in width or flexibility
d. Decreases in width and increases in flexibility
6. The auditory thalamic nucleus is the
a. Lateral lemniscus
b. Dorsal cochlear nucleus
c. Superior olive
d. Medial geniculate
7. The frequency to which an auditory neuron is most sensitive is known as its:
a. Peak frequency
b. Characteristic frequency
c. Lowest frequency
d. Preferred frequency
8. Phase-locking was suggested as a way of encoding frequency because:
a. The basilar membrane has a limited frequency response
b. There are only about 3,500 inner hair cells
c. Auditory neurons have a limited dynamic range
d. Preserving the phase of sounds is important
9. Fletcher’s technique for measuring the bandwidth of human auditory filters is known as:
a. Auditory unmasking
b. Critical band masking
c. Notch filtering
d. Dynamic masking
10. The half-power bandwidth of an auditory filter is:
a. The range of frequencies at which its response has fallen from its maximum by 3 dB
b. The range of frequencies at which its response has fallen from its maximum by 10 dB
c. Its sensitivity at a frequency half that of its characteristic frequency
d. None of these
11. For tones above 4 kHz:
a. Pitch decreases with sound level
b. Pitch does not change with sound level
c. Pitch rises with sound level
d. Pitch cannot be judged
12. Discrimination thresholds for high-frequency tones are much larger than for low-frequency tones. This is a problem for place theory because:
a. The theory predicts that discrimination of low frequencies should be worse
b. The theory predicts that the bandwidths of lower frequencies should be greater
c. The theory makes no predictions about discrimination thresholds
d. According to place theory, if discrimination thresholds are larger for higher frequencies, the bandwidths of higher frequency auditory filters should also be greater, and this is not found
13. People with congenital amusia often exhibit which characteristic?
a. Lower concentration of grey matter than normal in the right inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe
b. Higher concentration of white matter than normal in the Heschl’s gyrus
c. Delayed neural responses in the auditory cortex when perceiving pitch
d. Lower thresholds than normal in detecting two tones that differ in pitch
14. Responses of neurons in the cat auditory system to different ranges of sound intensity show that:
a. Neurons with high thresholds start to respond at very low sound levels and saturate at medium sound levels
b. Neurons with low thresholds start to respond at very low sound levels and saturate at medium sound levels
c. Neurons with high thresholds start to respond at very low sound levels and saturate at high sound levels
d. Neurons with low thresholds start to respond at very low sound levels and saturate at high sound levels
15. The upper limit of the frequency range which humans can accurately perceive pitch (e.g. reproduce a sequence of tones) is about:
a. 1 kHz
b. 2.5 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 10 kHz
16. Which of the following does not increase the probability of fusion of two-tone sequences?
a. Increasing the alternation rate
b. Switching to the other ear
c. Increasing the frequency difference between the tones
d. Increasing the difference in sound level between the tones
17. A default assumption of the auditory system appears to be that:
a. Sounds come from straight ahead
b. Different sounds come from different locations
c. Sounds come from a single source
d. Higher frequencies are more salient
18. Which of the following has not been suggested as a reason for thinking that speech perception is special?
a. Categorical perception
b. Involvement of specialised neural structures
c. Context-dependent perception of phonemes
d. Immunity to effects of reverberation
19. A region in which intelligible aspects of speech are processed has been located in the:
a. Left superior temporal gyrus
b. Left superior temporal sulcus
c. Right superior parietal lobule
d. Right amygdala
20. The McGurk Effect is the finding that:
a. Perception of speech sounds is influenced by seeing movements of the speaker’s lips
b. Perception of speech is best with closed eyes
c. A speaker’s accent does not affect intelligibility after listening for about 1 minute
d. Observers can identify speech sounds just by looking at the speaker’s lips
21. Which if the following allows motion of the fluid in the cochlea?
a. The round window
b. The helicotrema
c. The oval window
d. The auditory meatus
22. What is the centre frequency of the band of frequencies amplified by the canal of the adult ear?
a. 2 kHz
b. 9.3 kHz
c. 4.7 kHz
d. 15 kHz
23. The length of the uncoiled cochlea is about:
a. 1 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 8 cm
d. 12 cm
24. The number of fibres in the auditory nerve is about:
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 30,000
25. Otoacoustic emissions are:
a. Sounds produced by activity within the cochlea
b. Wax in the ear canal
c. Fluid in the middle ear
d. Activity in the eustachian tubes during swallowing
26. Using fMRI, Humphries et al. found abutting regions within human auditory cortex which:
a. Responded selectively to sounds which differed in intensity
b. Responded selectively to sounds which differed in frequency
c. Demonstrated phase-locking
d. Responded selectively to different phonemes
27. For pure tones below 2 kHz:
a. Pitch decreases with sound level
b. Pitch does not change with sound level
c. Pitch rises with sound level
d. Pitch cannot be judged
28. If the fundamental frequency (200 Hz) is removed from a tone of 200 Hz with harmonics of 400, 600, 800, 1000 Hz, its pitch has a frequency of:
a. 450 Hz
b. 4.2 kHz
c. 200 Hz
d. 680 Hz
29. Which of the following does NOT influence the perception of more than one auditory stream when hearing a tone sequence?
a. Synchronicity
b. Decibel level
c. Sound frequency
d. Articulatory movements
30. Which of the following brain areas has most frequently been activated in fMRI studies examining processing of McGurk stimuli?
a. Superior parietal lobule
b. Cerebellum
c. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
d. Superior temporal sulcus
Short answer questions
1. How does the middle ear compensate for the difference in impedance between air and the fluid in the cochlea?
2. What is the role of the basilar membrane in encoding sounds of differing frequencies?
3. How might different frequencies be encoded by auditory neurons?
4. Why do some people when hearing the pitch of a complex tone perceive the missing fundamental and others perceive one of the harmonics?
5. What governs whether we hear one or two auditory streams?
Chapter 7: Taste and smell
MCQs
1. In which of these locations are taste receptors not found?
a. Soft palate
b. Upper oesophagus
c. Epiglottis
d. Nasal epithelium
2. In which of these locations on the tongue are taste buds found?
a. Fungiform papillae
b. Foliate papillae
c. Circumvallate papillae
d. All of these
3. The hair-like structures in taste buds which project into the gustatory pore are known as:
a. Microvilli
b. Cilia
c. Outer segments
d. Rods
4. How many basic taste qualities are currently thought to be recognised by taste receptors?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 8
5. Which region of the mouth is most sensitive to salt?
a. Soft palate
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Tip of the tongue
d. Sides of the tongue
6. Why does saliva not taste salty?
a. Taste receptors for salt have adapted
b. Saliva does not contain salt
c. Other compounds in saliva mask its salt taste
d. None of these
7. Which components of food are sweet tastes thought to indicate?
a. Protein
b. Dietary acids
c. Cellulose
d. Carbohydrates
8. Which is the taste nucleus of the thalamus?
a. Medial geniculate
b. Lateral geniculate
c. Ventral posterior medial
d. Solitary
9. Primary taste cortex is thought to be:
a. Orbitofrontal cortex
b. Insula
c. Anterior cingulate
d. Frontal operculum
10. Of the two theories of taste coding, the evidence suggests that:
a. The Labelled Line theory is superior
b. The Cross-Fibre Theory is superior
c. Both theories may be correct, for different parts of the taste system
d. Both theories are incorrect
11. What is thought to be the approximate number of types of human olfactory receptors?
a. 396
b. 851
c. 7
d. 9
12. Malnic et al. suggested that olfactory receptors:
a. Respond to only one odour
b. Respond to a range of odours with preferential tuning for a small subset
c. Respond to two or three odours
d. None of these
13. Which of the following is not known to cause anosmia?
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Sinus infection
c. Head injury
d. Glandular fever
14. Data on sex differences in odour perception suggest that:
a. Women are superior at detecting all odours
b. Women are superior at detecting all but a small number of odours, at which men are superior
c. There are no differences between men and women
d. Men are superior at detecting all odours
15. Adaptation to odours can persist for:
a. Less than two hours
b. About two days
c. More than two weeks
d. One day
16. Which of the following has not been suggested as a function for smell?
a. Promoting or checking intake of food
b. Social communication
c. Monitoring environmental hazards
d. Finding one’s way about
17. About how many glomeruli are in the olfactory bulb?
a. 2,000
b. 20,000
c. 1 million
d. 200
18. In the olfactory bulb, about how many glomeruli receive input from one type of olfactory receptor?
a. 100
b. 10
c. 2
d. 50
19. In piriform cortex, different odorants are coded:
a. By one or two neurons
b. By a distributed pattern of activity
c. By a local region of neurons
d. None of these
20: When human males smell T-shirts worn by human females at different stages of their menstrual cycle, the males:
a. Rate the odours from shirts worn during menstruation as unpleasant
b. Give similar ratings to shirts whenever they were worn
c. Cannot discriminate between worn T-shirts and control unworn T-shirts
d. Rate shirts worn in the ovulatory phase as more pleasant and sexier
20. To which of these tastants are receptor cells not tuned?
a. Sweet
b. Bitter
c. Umami
d. Salt
21. Which is the most sensitive region of the mouth for bitter?
a. Soft palate
b. Sides of the tongue
c. Tip of the tongue
d. Epiglottis
22. Salivation, secretion of gastric juices and autonomic responses are controlled by:
a. Insula
b. Solitary nucleus
c. Anterior cingulate cortex
d. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
23. The reward component of tastes is thought to be represented in:
a. Orbitofrontal cortex
b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
c. Insula
d. Anterior cingulate cortex
24. When anchoring a scale of liking with a metric other than taste, Bartoshuk showed that the obese:
a. Dislike sweet things more than do leaner people
b. Are indifferent to sweet tastes
c. Like sweet things more than do leaner people
d. Tend to be ‘super-tasters’
25. Smell receptors are found on the:
a. Epiglottis
b. Soft palate
c. Tonsils
d. Olfactory epithelia
26. Hyposmia is:
a. Smelling in dreams
b. Reduction in ability to smell
c. Reduction in sensitivity to tastants
d. Excessive use of perfume
27. Mercaptans are added to natural gas to:
a. Add a smell to an otherwise odourless product
b. Conceal an otherwise unpleasant smell
c. Reduce the amount of carbon monoxide produced in combustion
d. Make it easier to ignite
28. Pelchat et al. showed that the ability to detect a characteristic odour in urine, after asparagus had been eaten, was:
a. Age-dependent
b. Genetically determined
c. Related to generally lower odour thresholds
d. A by-product of the cooking procedure
29. Using fMRI, Howard et al. showed that ease of discriminating different odours was associated with:
a. Extent of the differences in the distributions of activity in posterior piriform cortex
b. Extent of the differences in the distributions of activity in anterior piriform cortex
c. Differences in total activity in olfactory bulb
d. Extent of the differences in the distributions of activity in orbitofrontal cortex
Short answer questions
1. Why has it been thought that there is a ‘taste map’ on the tongue and to what extent is this view wrong?
2. Give an example of an individual difference in taste perception? How is it to be explained?
3. What is the role of orbitofrontal cortex in taste perception?
4. How is neural coding in the olfactory bulb different from that in olfactory cortex?
5. Do humans respond to pheromones, and, if so, is it via the main olfactory system?
Chapter 8: Touch and pain
MCQs
1. Pacinian corpuscles are sensitive to which range of frequencies?
a. 0 Hz
b. 0–5 Hz
c. 10–30 Hz
d. 40–400 Hz
2. Meissner’s corpuscles are found:
a. In the epidermis
b. At the junction between the dermis and the epidermis
c. In the subcutaneous fat
d. In the hair follicles
3. Ruffini corpuscles are active:
a. During vibration of the limb
b. During skin stretching, as when a finger is moved
c. In fine texture perception
d. During pattern perception
4. Merkel discs:
a. Have small receptive fields and adapt quickly
b. Have large receptive fields and adapt quickly
c. Have large receptive fields and adapt slowly
d. Have small receptive fields and adapt slowly
5. The spatial resolution of the skin is highest on the:
a. Shoulder
b. Back
c. Upper lip
d. Calf
6. The temporal resolution of the finger-tip is about:
a. 20 ms
b. 10 ms
c. 40 ms
d. 50 ms
7. Generally, in studies of spatial resolution with the finger, participants cannot discriminate grating orientation until separations exceed:
a. 0.1 mm
b. 0.5 mm
c. 1.0 mm
d. 2.0 mm
8. Which are these areas does not mediate the tactile perception of roughness?
a. Parietal operculum
b. Insula
c. Posterior parietal cortex
d. Inferior temporal cortex
9. In S1, to which of these body regions is most cortex devoted?
a. Pharynx
b. Fingers
c. Lower lip
d. Forearm
10. Sensory saltation in the cutaneous rabbit paradigm refers to:
a. Spatial uncertainty about the location of the taps
b. Perceived shifts or jumps of each stimulus toward one another
c. Inhibition of the neural effects of one tap on the neural effects of another
d. Cross-modal effects (e.g. more robust illusion when congruent visual flash is presented with series of taps)
11. Which of the following has not been used to measure pain?
a. Heart rate
b. Blood viscosity
c. Analog scale
d. Questionnaire
12. To which of the following do polymodal nociceptors not respond?
a. Temperatures above 45 deg C
b. Cutting and pinching
c. Intra-cellular compounds such as ATP
d. Stroking
13. A fibres:
a. Are unmyelinated
b. Conduct slowly
c. Mediate sharp pain
d. Mediate dull aches
14. Pain-evoked hypoalgesia is:
a. Sensation of nausea caused by pain
b. Exaggeration of pain triggered by more than one site
c. Reduction in the effectiveness of drugs which reduce pain
d. Inhibition of pain sensations caused by application of a painful stimulus elsewhere on the body
15. Which of the following has NOT been proposed to explain less sensitivity to pain in men compared with women:
a. Hairs on skin providing protection again painful stimuli
b. A fibres are more sensitive in females
c. Sex differences in central processing of repetitive nociceptive stimuli
d. Effects of distraction from pain are larger in men
16. Which of the following is not thought to be involved in the perception of pain?
a. Peri-aqueductal gray
b. Superior parietal lobule
c. S1
d. Insula
17. The open-hidden paradigm in pain research has demonstrated:
a. inert medicines administered to patients who believe they have pain-killing actions can reduce patients’ reported pain levels
b. inert medicines administered to patients who are told that the treatments are placebos can reduce patients’ reported pain levels
c. hidden administration of an analgesic medication diminishes patient response
d. uncontrollable noxious stimuli are perceived by patients as more painful than controllable stimuli
18. The ‘body-self neuromatrix’ theory of pain does NOT explain:
a. Why uncontrollable noxious stimuli are perceived as more painful than controllable stimuli?
b. Why distraction can alleviate pain?
c. Why some people have more empathy for pain than others?
d. Why high catastrophizers experience more severe phantom limb pain?
19. Pain in phantom limbs is likely to be caused by:
a. Imagining by the sufferer that the limb is still attached
b. Irritation by changes in the scar
c. Aberrant signalling through the spinothalamic tract
d. Sensitization of thalamic neurons
20. Tactile allodynia refers to which of the following:
a. Pain experienced in the absence of identified noxious stimuli
b. Enhanced pain in response to repetitive, low-frequency noxious stimuli
c. Pain that persists for beyond the period of healing of the original injury
d. Increased pain response evoked by stimuli outside the area of injury
21. Merkel discs are sensitive to which range of frequencies?
a. <5 Hz
b. 10–50 Hz
c. 55–100 Hz
d. >100 Hz
22. Pacinian corpuscles are found
a. In the dermis
b. In the subcutaneous tissue below the dermis
c. In the epidermis
d. In the muscle spindles
23. Meissner’s corpuscles:
a. Have small receptive fields and adapt quickly
b. Have large receptive fields and adapt quickly
c. Have large receptive fields and adapt slowly
d. Have small receptive fields and adapt slowly
24. The duplex theory of texture perception proposes that:
a. Textures are perceived using both vision and touch
b. Fine textures are perceived with two kinds of receptor
c. Coarse textures are perceived via spatial, fine textures via temporal mechanisms
d. Textures feel different with the back and front of the hand
25. Which of these was not one of the exploratory procedures suggested by Lederman and Klatzky (1987) that are used when recognising objects by touch?
a. Static contact
b. Enclosure
c. Contour following
d. Rotating
26. High threshold mechanoreceptors in the skin respond to:
a. Pinching and cutting
b. Stroking
c. Temperature change
d. Chemicals
27. C fibres:
a. Are unmyelinated
b. Conduct slowly
c. Mediate stabbing pain
d. Are not found in glabrous skin
28. The anterior cingulate cortex is thought to mediate:
a. The emotional response to pain
b. The cognitive assessment of pain
c. Memory for pain
d. Pain-avoiding movements
29. Gate control theory is consistent with:
a. The analgesic effect of codeine
b. Pain in phantom limbs
c. Genetically determined absence of pain sensations
d. Placebo effect in pain relief
30. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of central sensitisation?
a. Psychogenic pain responding
b. Hypersensitivity to noxious stimuli
c. Responsiveness to non-noxious stimuli
d. Increased pain response evoked by stimuli outside the area of injury
Short answer questions
1. What methods have been used to investigate active and passive touch? What are their advantages and disadvantages?
2. How is the amount of somatosensory cortex devoted to a body area related to its tactile sensitivity?
3. How does familiarity of objects in studies of tactile shape perception affect the neural processes involved?
4. Why do women show greater sensitivity to pain than men?
5. How can pain be reduced by, for example, the belief that a treatment has an analgesic effect, even when it does not?
Chapter 9: Vestibular and proprioceptive systems
MCQs
1. Which of the following structures in the inner ear does not respond to movements of the head?
a. Utricle
b. Cochlea
c. Saccule
d. Semi-circular canal
2. When the head is upright, the utricular macula is:
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. At 45 deg from vertical
d. None of these
3. The semi-circular canals are able to signal appropriate head rotation because:
a. The ampulla rotates
b. The otoliths have a higher specific weight than does the endolymph
c. The endolymph lags behind the movement of the head
d. The cilia are encased in jelly
4. Rotation in yaw is:
a. Rotation about the x-axis
b. Like a forward roll
c. Like a cartwheel
d. Rotation about the vertical axis
5. Which of the following has not been used to stimulate the vestibular system?
a. Pedalling on an exercise bicycle
b. Movement on a centrifuge
c. Warm water injected into the ear canal
d. Direct current through electrodes on the mastoids
6. To which of the following, does the vestibular system not send projections?
a. The oculomotor system
b. The spinal cord
c. The cerebellum
d. The medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
7. If the left vestibular system is damaged:
a. The vestibulo-ocular reflex towards the left is abnormal
b. The vestibulo-ocular reflex in any direction is abnormal
c. The vestibulo-ocular reflex towards the right is abnormal
d. The vestibulo-ocular reflex is unaffected
8. What is the lowest rotary velocity that can be detected by the vestibular system?
a. 4 deg s−1
b. 0.5 deg s−1
c. 10 deg s−1
d. 2 deg s−1
9. The oculogravic illusion is:
a. A feeling that the eyes have moved
b. Misperception of vertical during linear acceleration
c. Misperception of horizontal during linear acceleration
d. A change in the perception of gravity
10. Motion sickness results from:
a. A mismatch between sensory information and what would be expected to result from motor commands
b. An abnormal vestibular system
c. An imbalance of digestive enzymes
d. Rotary motion
11. Muscle spindles are found:
a. On extrafusal cells
b. On gamma fibres
c. On intrafusal cells
d. On tendons
12. To which stimulus, do mechanoreceptors around the joints not respond ?
a. Joint position
b. Movement or acceleration
c. Overextension of the joint
d. Lack of exercise of the joint
13. Efferent gamma fibres to intrafusal muscle fibres cause:
a. The muscle to contract
b. An improvement in muscle tone
c. Contraction of the striated ends of the fibres, so making the central regions more sensitive to stretch
d. Increased sensitivity of Golgi tendon organs
14. Proprioceptive acuity in a knee or finger joint is about:
a. 1 deg
b. 10 deg
c. 30 seconds
d. 5 deg
15. Someone who lacks proprioception cannot:
a. Drive
b. Walk
c. With eyes closed, draw shapes in the air with a hand
d. With eyes closed, judge the weight of an object placed on the hand
16. When initially viewed through a prism, a hand looks and feels to be in different positions. In this situation:
a. Vision always dominates touch, so that the hand is perceived in the seen position
b. Touch always dominates vision, so that the hand is perceived in the felt position
c. Perceived position is a compromise between proprioception and vision, which depends on the relative availability of information in the two modalities
d. None of these
17. Van Beers et al. showed that the combination of proprioceptive and visual information depended on:
a. The precision of the information from each modality
b. The observer’s personality
c. The variance of visually controlled reaches
d. The force required to make a movement
18. Movements of the body are sensed:
a. From proprioceptors in neck muscles
b. From a combination of inputs from proprioceptors in neck muscles and the vestibular system
c. From proprioceptors in the spine
d. Via input from leg joints
19. A common symptom in astronauts on arrival in space is:
a. An oculogyral illusion
b. Disorientation
c. Motion sickness
d. Aching in the joints
20. From the results of the Functional Mobility Test, how long does it take for 95% of re-adaptation to earth’s gravity to occur?
a. 3 weeks
b. 1 month
c. 3 days
d. 15 days
21. When the head is upright, the saccular macula is:
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. At 45 deg from vertical
d. None of these
22. The movement known as ‘pitch’ is:
a. Rotation about the y-axis
b. A pirouette
c. Forward motion
d. Rotation about the z-axis
23. A horizontal rotation which produces an increase in firing in the nerve fibres leaving the horizontal canal of the left ear has what effect on the right vestibular system?
a. Increases the signal from the anterior canal
b. Reduces the signal from the posterior canal
c. Reduces the signal from the horizontal canal
d. Reduces the signal from the utricle
24. The gain of the vestibulo-ocular reflex is set by:
a. The elasticity of the eye muscles
b. Feedback about its effects on vision
c. Frontal cortex
d. None of these
25. Motion sickness in vehicles tends to:
a. Be worse in the driver
b. Be worse in passengers
c. Be worse in front seats
d. None of these
26. The number of muscle spindles is lowest in the muscles of the:
a. Eyes
b. Fingers
c. Shoulder
d. Neck
27. Vestibular nuclei respond when:
a. The head is held stationary and the body rotated
b. Signals from the vestibular system and neck proprioceptors are matched
c. During passive motion of the whole participant
d. The legs move
28. Patient IW, who lacks proprioception and sense of touch below the neck, has taught himself to walk and carry out some everyday tasks. However, his motor control fails when:
a. He cannot see his limbs
b. He tries to drive
c. He tries to feed himself
d. He concentrates too hard on what he is doing
29. After repeatedly viewing a pointing hand through a prism which changes its seen position, the observer makes pointing movements without the prism. These movements initially:
a. Are accurate
b. Deviate in the same direction as the change in vision induced by the prism
c. Deviate in the opposite direction to the change in vision induced by the prism
d. Are random
30. After a return to earth from a lengthy trip in space, which system re-adapts most quickly to earth’s gravity?
a. Control of the arms
b. Control of the legs
c. The otoliths
d. None of these
Short answer questions
1. Describe techniques for stimulating the vestibular system, and their advantages and disadvantages.
2. How does the arrangement of the vestibular organs allow detection of complex movements of the head?
3. How does the brain sense movements of the body?
4. Describe the proprioceptive receptors and their properties.
5. What sources of information contribute to acuity for the position of a joint?
Chapter 10: Visual and auditory localisation
MCQs
1. Compared with near regions of visual space, distant regions are:
a. Expanded
b. Compressed
c. Sheared
d. Similar
2. The curvatures of near and far visual space:
a. Are similar
b. Are negligible
c. Are in opposite directions
d. None of these
3. Beyond what distance from the observer did Mon-Williams and Tresilian estimate that vergence had little effect on judgements of distance?
a. 40 cm
b. 2 m
c. 1 m
d. 3 m
4. What visual cue to distance co-varies with vergence and so has to be taken into account in studies of the efficiency of vergence?
a. Perspective
b. Binocular disparity
c. Occlusion
d. Accommodation
5. Beyond what object distance is horizontal binocular disparity thought to have little effect on depth perception?
a. 6 m
b. 1 m
c. 20 m
d. 2 m
6. In good viewing conditions and in a young observer, stereoacuity can be as small as:
a. 1 degree
b. 30 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 10 seconds
7. Random dot stereograms show that binocular disparity is a depth cue because:
a. Depth is seen although the stimuli are visually complex
b. They contain no other cues to depth
c. They inhibit eye movements
d. The elements of which the images are formed are identical
8. Occlusion is:
a. Narrowing of the field of view with distance
b. The change in retinal size with distance
c. One object partially hiding another
d. Blurring of distant objects
9. Motion parallax is:
a. Relative movement on the retina between the image of objects at different distance from a moving observer
b. The expanding pattern of movement on the retina produced by forward locomotion
c. The reduction in image size as an object moves further away
d. The change in image sharpness produced by changes in accommodation
10. Relative size provides a cue to distance when:
a. The observer is stationary
b. Viewing is binocular
c. Objects are on the ground
d. Object size is known or can be guessed
11. Which of the following is not a feature of texture gradients that provide a cue to distance?
a. Perspective
b. Foreshortening
c. Occlusion
d. Element density
12. For objects below the horizon, the higher the position of an object in the visual field:
a. The farther its perceived distance
b. The nearer its perceived distance
c. The greater its horizontal disparity
d. The smaller its retinal size
13. When the images of one sharply focussed object and one blurred object abut:
a. One cannot perceive whether the blurred object is nearer or further away than the plane of fixation
b. If the border between their images is sharp, the blurred object is more distant
c. If the border between their images is blurred, the blurred object is more distant
d. None of these
14. More distant objects, such as mountains, appear bluer because:
a. They are often covered in heather, which has blue flowers
b. Short wavelengths are scattered less in the atmosphere
c. The blue light of the sky adds a veiling luminance
d. Chromatic aberration in the eye tinges large objects blue
15. Aglioti et al. suggested from their experiments on a version of the Ebbinghaus illusion that:
a. The illusion is larger when one reaches towards it
b. The visual mechanisms which scale grip show an enhanced illusion
c. The visual mechanisms which scale grip show no illusion
d. In a group of participants, the sizes of the consciously perceived illusion and that reflected in grip aperture are correlated
16. Two sources of visual information which might be used to guide human locomotion are optic flow and perceived visual direction. The evidence suggests that:
a. Optic flow is always used
b. Visual direction is always used
c. Both are used, but their relative importance depends on circumstances
d. Neither is used
17. A sound source with an elevation angle of 0°, and an azimuth angle of −45°, is positioned:
a. To the right of the listener, and level with the middle of the head
b. To the left of the listener, and level with the middle of the head
c. In the upper right of external space
d. In the lower left of external space
18. Listening with a single ear enables one to localise a sound source because:
a. Sounds reverberate in the ear canal
b. Filtering and delay of sounds induced by the pinna vary with the angle between the source and the pinna
c. Sounds reach the ear directly
d. The ear canal acts as a wave-guide
19. Interaural intensity differences are greater for higher frequencies because:
a. High frequencies are attenuated more by passage through the air
b. High frequencies are attenuated more in the ear canal
c. Low frequencies are diffracted more around the listener’s head
d. Low frequencies are scrambled less by the pinna
20. The cone of confusion is:
a. An imaginary surface joining points from which sounds arrive at the ears with the same time difference
b. The surface on the vertical midline
c. The range of intensity differences over which sounds appear to be of equal loudness
d. Location differences smaller than the Minimum Auditory Angle
21. If there is a trench between an observer and a target, the perceived distance of the target is:
a. An underestimate
b. Accurate
c. An overestimate
d. More variable
22. The images of an object behind the fixation point are said to have:
a. Crossed horizontal disparity
b. Increased vergence
c. Uncrossed horizontal disparity
d. A different position on the longitudinal horopter
23. Vertical disparity is a cue to:
a. Absolute distance
b. Distance from the fixation point
c. Object size
d. Vergence angle
24. Which feature of the retinal images is thought to be a marker for occlusion:
a. Number of corners
b. T-junctions
c. Y-junctions
d. Acute angles
25. When two objects are at different heights above the horizon:
a. The upper one appears nearer
b. The lower one appears nearer
c. There is little difference in their apparent distance
d. The upper one appears larger
26. Patient DF, who had suffered brain damage to extrastriate regions of the brain, had no problems in:
a. Adjusting one stimulus until its orientation matched that of another
b. Posting a card through a slot
c. Pointing to a line whose orientation matched that of a piece of card
d. Judging whether two plaques were the same or different
27. Milner and Goodale suggested that conscious perception can intrude increasingly into the control of action when:
a. The task is awkward or unpractised
b. The participant is concentrating
c. The thumb and forefinger are being used
d. None of these
28. Warren and Hannon showed that observers could judge their direction of heading with an accuracy of <2 degrees from:
a. Successive fixations
b. The change in binocular disparity
c. Optic flow
d. Motion parallax
29. Interaural Time Differences for pure tones are ambiguous when:
a. The elevation angle is zero
b. Their frequency is lower than 200 Hz
c. The interaural level differences are small
d. The peaks of the wave in one ear occur simultaneously with the troughs of the wave in the other ear
30. Which of the following is not a cue to the distance of a sound source?
a. Its absolute intensity, particularly when familiar
b. Its frequency content, particularly when familiar
c. Its reverberation, particularly in a familiar environment
d. Its azimuth angle, particularly when unfamiliar
Short answer questions
1. Why is it thought that we do not have an accurate 3D mental representation of external space?
2. Discuss the contribution to distance perception of three monocular depth cues
3. Is the visual control of actions subject to the same misperceptions as conscious visual perception of the scene?
4. How do we perceive where we are going?
5. Why is the shape of our ears important in localising sounds?
Chapter 11: Perception and action
MCQs
1. Woodworth suggested that the initial stage of a reaching to grasp movement is ballistic. What evidence contradicts this view?
a. Movement slows near the target
b. If the target is moved during the reach, the direction of movement is changed appropriately
c. A movement can still be made if the target is hidden after the movement has begun
d. Appropriate movements can be very fast
2. Patients with optical ataxia cannot:
a. Correct a reaching movement if the target is moved during it
b. Judge object size correctly
c. Pick up small objects
d. Make lateral eye movements
3. Jeannerod (1981) distinguished two stages in reaching to grasp an object, the ‘transport’ and the ‘grip’ components. He suggested that:
a. The transport component is ballistic
b. The grip component is governed by the size and shape of the object
c. The transport component is modulated by the occipital lobes
d. The grip component is programmed before the reach begins
4. Verheij et al. found that Maximum Grasp Aperture when picking up and object was related to:
a. Object mass
b. Perceived object volume
c. Desired precision
d. Avoidance of collisions.
5. In the Size-Weight Illusion:
a. Larger objects feel lighter
b. Of two objects with the same mass, the smaller feels heavier
c. Telling participants that two objects of different sizes have the same mass removes the illusion
d. It is necessary for the participant to see the objects for the illusion to occur
6. In the Material-Weight Illusion:
a. More expensive cloth feels heavier
b. Objects with smoother surfaces feel lighter
c. When two objects have the same size and mass, which apparently made of a less dense material will feel heavier
d. Objects made of lead feel lighter than they really are
7. In their study presenting targets near to or away from the participant’s hands, Reed et al. found:
a. Targets near the dominant hand were more easily identified
b. The forefinger was the critical region in aiding detection
c. Reaction times were faster for targets near the palm than near the back of the hand
d. Targets near the hand appeared larger
8. Gozli et al. studied how well small stimulus changes could be detected for stimuli near or away from the hands. They found that:
a. When stimuli were near the hands, temporal gaps were better detected than when stimuli were away from the hands
b. When stimuli were near the hands, spatial gaps were better detected than when stimuli were away from the hands
c. Spatial gaps were not affected by adjacency to the hands
d. None of these
9. The attentional blink is:
a. The increase in blink rate when people are paying attention
b. The loss of visual sensitivity during an eye movement
c. The intermittent loss of vision during blinks
d. The loss of sensitivity to the second of two targets presented in close proximity in a stream
10. Kelly and Brockmole found, when participants judged whether two arrays of lines were the same or different, that:
a. Performance was better when the stimuli were near the hands
b. Orientation differences were more easily detected for stimuli near the hands
c. Colour differences were more easily detected for stimuli near the hands
d. None of these
11. Job et al. found, when participants had to judge whether a square target was present in the display, that:
a. Responses were faster to a local target with a power grip
b. Responses slower to a local target with a precision grip
c. Responses were faster to a global target with a power grip
d. Responses were slower to a global target with a power grip
12. Vainio et al. found, when presenting objects suitable for a power or precision grip, that:
a. Power grip responses were faster when made by the left hand (and so the right hemisphere)
b. Power grip responses were slower when made by the right hand (and so the left hemisphere)
c. Precision grip responses were faster when made by the left hand (and so the right hemisphere)
d. None of these
13. Behaviour in the swinging room shows that:
a. Proprioceptive information in not important in maintaining posture
b. Visual information can overcome proprioceptive and vestibular information in maintaining posture
c. Adults can disregard misleading visual information in maintaining posture
d. Children are not sensitive to optic flow
14. Warren and Hannon showed, using optic flow displays, that:
a. Optic flow governs visual fixation
b. Optic flow can be used to judge heading direction
c. Optic flow does not change when the fixation point changes
d. Optic flow is only useful when driving
15. Participants of Harris and Carré approached a target wearing prisms in several conditions. The experiments showed that:
a. Deviation from the correct path was smallest when participants crawled rather than walked
b. Optic flow is unimportant in the perception of heading
c. Faster walking leads to greater deviation from the correct path
d. None of these
16. Tau, as an estimate of Time-To-Collision, has been criticised because:
a. There is an error in the mathematics
b. It is difficult to apply when an approaching object change shape
c. It only works for long distances
d. It relies on an accurate estimate of one’s own speed
17. It should be impossible for a batter to hit a fast-moving baseball because:
a. There is a delay of about 100 ms in visual information from the retina reaching the brain
b. The batter cannot move their feet quickly enough
c. It is difficult to maintain attention as the ball approaches
d. Optic flow is an ineffective guide to movement
18. Participants of Brenner et al. hit moving tennis balls with a bat. The experimenters found that:
a. Performance was worse when vision was blurred
b. Participants learned to swing the bat a fixed time after the ball first appeared
c. Performance was better if the balls were made larger
d. Performance depended on the length of time available to view the ball’s trajectory
19. Prinz suggested that:
a. Visual information resonates in the brain
b. Perception is a constructive process
c. Perception and action share common codes in the brain
d. Actions are slowed if perception is more difficult
20. The Theory of Event Codes has been criticised because:
a. It does not take into account the Gestalt view of perception
b. It is supported by simple experimental situations rather than continuously changing complex behaviours
c. It does not take into account individual differences
d. It has no support from neurology
21. A ballistic movement is:
a. A pre-programmed movement, made without feedback about its trajectory
b. Part of the repertoire of a dancer
c. A wild uncontrolled movement
d. A movement made without apparent effort
22. When an object appears in the path of the hand during a reach, how is behaviour affected?
a. There is inevitably a collision with the hand
b. The reach immediately stops
c. The reacher usually takes avoiding action
d. None of these
23. In Buckingham and Goodale’s study, participants lifted a cube which they could not see. Before each lift, they saw either a large or a small cube, whose size biased the apparent weight of the medium cube. This effect shows that:
a. A bottom-up explanation for the Size-Weight Illusion is plausible
b. Vision does not influence processing of proprioception
c. Proprioception is unreliable
d. Participants’ expectations play a role in the Size-Weight Illusion.
24. Abrams et al. found that search for a target in an array of distractors was slower when the display was presented near the hands. They suggested that:
a. Hand movement distracted participants
b. Stimuli near the hands get more thorough evaluation, which takes more time
c. Putting the hand near the display was uncomfortable, and this slowed responses
d. None of these
25. Makris et al. found that the nature of an object presented before a high or low tone primed participants to use a precision or a power grip in responding to the tones, but only when binocular vision was used. Their explanation for this was that:
a. Two eyes are better than one
b. Monocular viewing is unnatural
c. Binocular viewing makes the 3D nature of the object clearer
d. Vergence makes focussing on the object more efficient
26. The importance of vision in maintaining posture is shown by:
a. The increase in body sway with reduced lighting or reduced visual acuity
b. The increased likelihood of falls in the elderly
c. A reduction in vestibular acuity
d. Impairment of leg proprioception
27. Participants of Rushton et al. walked in a curved path towards a target when fitted with prisms which moved the visual scene sideways. The authors suggested that this was because:
a. Optic flow was distorted by the prisms
b. Visual direction, but not optic flow, was changed by the prisms
c. Walking correctly was harder when the visual field was constricted
d. The prisms impaired stereoscopic vision
28. Time-To-Collision is thought to be important in:
a. The perception of motion
b. The progress of political debate
c. The onset of economic recession
d. Judgements involved in safe driving
29. The time window with which a skilled batter can hit a moving ball can be as short as
a. 2 ms
b. 750 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 200 ms
30. Prinz’s view of actions is that they are controlled by:
a. Perceptual hypotheses
b. The recent history of behaviour
c. A neural code shared with perception
d. Direct pickup of sensory information
Short answer questions
1. How have our views of reaching to grasp been modified by experiments?
2. How is the Size-Weight Illusion to be explained?
3. How does adjacency to the hand affect visual perception?
4. How does a batter manage to hit a ball?
5. Do perception and motor control use a common code?
Chapter 12: Eye movements and perception of natural scenes
MCQs
1. VanRullen and Thorpe suggested that a natural scene can be categorized in about:
a. 10 ms
b. 1 s
c. 2 s
d. 150 ms
2. The contrast sensitivity function for chromatic gratings is shifted towards lower spatial frequencies than that for luminance gratings, though in natural scenes the spatial content provided by colour and by luminance is the same. How did Parraga et al. reconcile this with the idea that the human visual system is matched to the properties of the world?
a. They suggested that colour is a such a late addition to vision that evolution has had no time to shape it
b. They suggested that colour is most useful when objects are large
c. They suggested that, at a viewing distance of about 40 cm, a distance at which one would pick ripe fruit, the properties of the scene and of the visual system would match
d. They suggested that colour is important in processing of coarse moving stimuli
3. In humans, the greater sensitivity to vertical and horizontal contour compared with oblique is thought to arise because:
a. There are more vertical and horizontal contours in natural scenes
b. Humans have an aesthetic preference for these orientations
c. Humans walk upright on a flat earth
d. None of these
4. Juricevic et al. showed that patterns caused greater visual discomfort if their amplitude spectra:
a. Followed the 1/f law
b. Were curtailed
c. Were scrambled
d. Had amplitudes of spatial frequencies close to 3 c deg−1 that were greater than predicted by the 1/f law
5. Huang et al. showed that, in natural scenes, objects were more likely to be above rather than below the horizontal line of sight beyond a distance of:
a. 5 m
b. 10 m
c. 2 m
d. 20 m
6. When there is no clear distance information in a scene, observers perceive the distance of an object to be about:
a. 50 cm
b. 3 m
c. 10 m
d. 20 m
7. Categorization of scenes tends to be faster when:
a. It is between indoor and outdoor scenes
b. The scene contains man-made objects
c. The scene contains natural objects
d. It can be done from a low spatial frequency representation
8. Joubert et al. suggested that:
a. Objects are categorized more quickly than scenes
b. Scenes are categorized more quickly than objects
c. Scenes are categorized by first identifying typical objects within them
d. The scene itself, and the objects within it, are categorised in parallel, with the possibility of interaction between the processes
9. Horizontal movement of the eyes towards the nose is caused by which of the following muscles?
a. Medial rectus
b. Lateral rectus
c. Superior oblique
d. Inferior oblique
10. The lateral rectus muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?
a. Trochlear
b. Optic
c. Abducens
d. Oculomotor
11. Masson and Stone showed that, when a participant is asked to follow a moving object with their eyes, they initially track:
a. One of the object’s corners
b. The whole object
c. The direction which is an average of the directions orthogonal to its contours
d. Its centre of gravity
12. The signals which underlie conscious perception of motion and those which control pursuit eye movements are different in part because:
a. Humans can perceive movements which they cannot track with their eyes
b. Eye movements are made during sleep
c. Eye movements cannot be made to stimuli moving in depth
d. During pursuit, the eyes follow small changes of target velocity of which the participant is unaware
13. What is the approximate mean number of saccades made very second by human observers?
a. 10
b. 2
c. 5
d. 20
14. In the control of eye movements, in which brain region do neurons respond to movement of the target in the world, rather than simply on the retina?
a. MST
b. MT
c. Superior colliculus
d. Lateral geniculate nucleus
15. Melcher and Colby argued against the possibility of a detailed trans-saccadic memory, on the grounds that:
a. Peripheral vision is coarse
b. Eye movements are imprecise
c. It would decay during a saccade
d. Objects can change their relative positions during a saccade, because of object or observer motion
16. Prime et al. found that around four items could be remembered when a saccade intervened between presentation of the two arrays, except when they applied to TMS to which brain regions?
a. Inferior temporal lobes
b. Frontal or parietal eye fields
c. Cerebellum
d. S1
17. Latour found that the probability of detection of a flash of light turned on around the time of a saccade was lowest:
a. 50 ms before saccade onset
b. 75 ms after saccade onset
c. 5 ms before saccade onset
d. 5 ms after saccade offset
18. Which of the following visual properties did Burr et al. not find to be compressed immediately before a saccade?
a. Depth
b. Space
c. Time
d. Number
19. During the task of making a cup of tea, people tend to gaze at:
a. High contrast objects
b. Their visitor
c. Relevant objects, such as the kettle
d. None of these
20. Warren presented a sentence in which one syllable had been completely replaced by a cough. His listeners could:
a. Accurately report the location of the cough in the utterance
b. Report that a syllable was missing
c. Not identify the syllable
d. Hear the sentence as though the cough had not occurred
21. Osorio and Vorobyev suggested that the advantage of trichromatic over dichromatic vision lay in:
a. Increased ability to distinguish leaves from fruit
b. Increased ability to distinguish one leaf from another
c. Increased ability to distinguish fertile from non-fertile females
d. Increased ability to distinguish health and disease
22. The 1/f law describes:
a. Sensitivity to coloured gratings
b. The decline in amplitude of spatial components in natural scenes with increases in spatial frequency
c. The reduction in sensitivity to low spatial frequencies
d. Flicker sensitivity
23. The Specific Distance Tendency reported by Gogel probably arises because:
a. The natural vergence angle means that the eyes converge at about 3 m
b. Beyond arms’ length, distance of objects is less important
c. The distance of objects in natural scenes peaks at about 3 m
d. Accommodation is not informative about a change of distance beyond 5 m
24. Categorization of scenes is faster, when the categorization is:
a. Natural vs man-made
b. Indoor vs outdoor
c. Beach vs mountain
d. Dog vs horse
25. Horizontal movement of the eyes away from the nose is caused by which of the following muscles?
a. Medial rectus
b. Lateral rectus
c. Superior oblique
d. Inferior oblique
26. After about 200 ms, in which direction to the eyes move when pursuing a moving object?
a. The direction orthogonal to one of the object’s sides
b. The direction in which the whole object is moving
c. The direction which is an average of the directions orthogonal to its contours
d. None of these
27. Losses of sensitivity during a saccade are highest for:
a. Isoluminant gratings
b. High spatial frequency luminance gratings
c. Stationary bright dots
d. Low spatial frequency luminance gratings
28. ‘Grey-out’ of the image of a room occurs around the time of a saccade when:
a. The illumination is turned on for as long as the saccade lasts
b. The illumination is turned on for 5 ms at some point during the saccade
c. The illumination is turned on when the saccade begins and is left on for 40 ms after the saccade has ended
d. The illumination is turned on 40 ms before the saccade begins and is left on for 40 ms after the saccade has ended
29. Image regions which are fixated tend not to:
a. Contain high spatial frequencies
b. Have higher contrasts than their surroundings
c. Have intensities which are different from their surroundings
d. Move
30. Listeners can perceive accurately sounds recorded in a room which causes reverberation, provided that:
a. They hear the sound through headphones
b. The test word occurs in a context of other words recorded with the same reverberation
c. The test word is presented at high intensity
d. They are familiar with the test word without reverberation
Short answer questions
1. What is the oblique effect, and how is it to be explained?
2. What is the 1/f law? Why does human contrast sensitivity not reflect it?
3. Why is it faster to categorise a scene as natural or man-made than as indoor or outdoor?
4. Give an example of physiological and another of behavioural evidence for spatial remapping across saccades.
5. What is suppressed during saccadic suppression?
Chapter 13: Recognising faces
MCQs
1. In Biederman’s theory of Recognition by Components, the units of recognition are known as:
a. Greebles
b. Voxels
c. Pixels
d. Geons
2. The inversion effect for faces describes the finding that:
a. Faces are usually recognised better than other objects, and recognition is more severely impaired when they are turned upside down
b. Contrast-reversed faces are hard to recognise
c. Inverted faces appear neutral in expression
d. Inverted faces are confused with other biological objects
3. Diamond and Carey suggested that the inversion effect for faces resulted from:
a. The operation of a special mechanism for face recognition
b. The bilateral symmetry of faces
c. Expertise in face recognition
d. Misalignment of geons in memory
4. Inversion effects have not been shown after training for:
a. Gratings
b. Random textures
c. Houses
d. Greebles
5. Which of the following is not one of the three separable aspects of configural processing of faces distinguished by Maurer et al.?
a. Perception of first-order relationships
b. Normalisation
c. Perception of second-order relationships
d. Holistic processing
6. Which of the following is not a suggested characteristic of the ‘prototype’ face thought to underlie recognition?
a. It is an average of all the faces which we have seen
b. The average is biased towards more recently seen faces
c. Faces are identified by their deviations from it
d. Its contents are subject to decay
7. In a caricature:
a. The differences between the individual being depicted and the average face are exaggerated
b. The individual is depicted as unpleasant
c. The individual is depicted as ugly
d. The differences between the individual being depicted and the average face are reversed
8. Face aftereffects have which of the following characteristics?
a. Adapting to a normal face makes a distorted face appear even more distorted
b. Adapting to a distorted face makes a normal face appear distorted in the opposite direction
c. Adapting to a distorted face makes that face appear normal
d. None of these
9. The deleterious effects of contrast reversal on recognition of faces are:
a. Less than for other objects
b. About the same as for other objects
c. Worse than for other objects
d. Negligible
10. After adaptation to vertical orange and black stripes, alternating every 15 s with identical but horizontal black and blue stripes, black and white stripes appear:
a. Black and white, whatever their orientation
b. Tinged with blue/green when horizontal, and tinged with orange when vertical
c. Tinged with blue/green when vertical, and tinged with orange when horizontal
d. Tinged yellow when vertical, and tinged with brown when horizontal
11. Adaptation to its anti-face:
a. Improves the recognition of a previously viewed face
b. Worsens the recognition of a previously viewed face
c. Has no effect on face recognition
d. Makes recognition of all faces harder
12. Which of the following have been used to show that face aftereffects are not the results of adaptation to low-level visual mechanisms?
a. Changing the size of the test faces from that of the adapting faces
b. Changing the colour of the test faces from that of the adapting faces
c. Comparing the build-up and decay of face and tilt aftereffects
d. Showing that face and tilt aftereffects are affected in different ways by subsequent adaptation to the test stimuli
13. Prosopagnosia is:
a. An impairment of colour vision, associated with lesions in the temporal lobe
b. An impairment in recognising actions, associated with lesions in the parietal lobe
c. An impairment in recognising familiar faces, associated with lesions in the temporal lobe
d. An impairment of spatial vision, associated with lesions in the occipital lobe
14. Young and Yamane suggested that faces are represented in the brain by:
a. Single ‘grandmother’ cells
b. A large network of neurons which encode individual features
c. A small number of neurons which code a few dimensions, such as inter-ocular distance
d. None of these
15. Perrett et al. concluded that some cells in superior temporal sulcus are responding to faces, on the grounds that:
a. Their responses to faces were as least twice as large as their responses to other objects
b. They respond to a variety of faces
c. They have oval receptive fields
d. They response differently to different emotional expressions
16. Which of the following is not a problem identified by Kanwisher et al. in deciding from BOLD activity whether a brain region is selectively responding to faces?
a. Is the response really to faces or to some low-level feature(s) which form part of a face?
b. Could the response be due to increased visual attention?
c. Could the response arise from the recognition of any animate (or human) object?
d. Could the response be caused by activity in another sensory modality?
17. When Kanwisher et al. compared BOLD activity evoked by different stimuli in the right fusiform gyrus, they found that:
a. Two-tone (Mooney) faces produced a similar response to scrambled versions of the faces
b. Two-tone (Mooney) faces produced a larger response than scrambled versions of the faces
c. Grey-scale images of faces and grey-scale images of houses produced similar responses
d. Grey-scale images of houses produced similar responses to two-tone faces
18. Gauthier et al. found that evoked BOLD activity in the right fusiform gyrus:
a. Was similar for faces and Greebles, even before training on the latter
b. Was absent for Greebles without training
c. Was larger for faces than for Greebles in naïve participants, but rose for Greebles after training
d. Fell for faces, after training on Greebles
19. Haxby et al. found that different patterns of activity were evoked in temporal areas by different classes of objects, unless:
a. The most active area evoked by each class of objects was removed from the analysis
b. The objects were presented as line drawings
c. The results of half the presentations in the scanner were compared with those of the other half
d. The objects were presented as grey-scale images
20. Robbins and McKone questioned whether the improvements in recognition of non-face stimuli with training reflected the development of configural processing, because:
a. They found no Composite Dog Effect in dog experts
b. They found no inversion effect on houses, after training
c. They found no increase in BOLD activity on textures, after training
d. They found no increase in BOLD activity on houses, after training
21. Biederman’s theory of Recognition by Components can easily explain:
a. How we distinguish one face from another
b. How we distinguish a face from bucket
c. How we recognise someone’s nose
d. How we identify a partially covered face
22. The composite face effect supports the hypotheses that faces are processed holistically because:
a. It is hard to identify the owners of the upper and lower parts
b. The spacing of the eyes is an important cue to recognition
c. Separating the upper and lower regions impairs identification of their owners
d. Inverted composite faces are hard to recognise
23. ‘Face space’ is:
a. A social networking website
b. A space with many dimensions within which a face can be located
c. The region of human memory reserved for encoding faces
d. The range of actions which do not incur disapproval from others
24. In an anti-face:
a. The differences between the individual being depicted and the average face are exaggerated
b. The individual is depicted as unpleasant
c. The individual is depicted as ugly
d. The differences between the individual being depicted and the average face are reversed
25. After adaptation to a male face, an androgynous face appears:
a. Male
b. Female
c. Even more androgynous
d. Hyper-masculine
26. Rhodes et al. adapted their participants to (for example) small upright faces and large inverted faces. For test faces of various sizes, they found that:
a. For inverted faces, aftereffects were of similar strength whatever the size of the test faces, whereas for upright faces, aftereffects were smaller if the test face size differed from the adapt face size
b. Aftereffects were of similar strength whatever the size and orientation of the test face
c. For upright faces, aftereffects were of similar strength whatever the size of the test faces, whereas for inverted faces, aftereffects were smaller if the test face size differed from the adapt face size
d. All aftereffects were significantly reduced if the size of the test face differed from the size of the adapting face
27. Neurons which respond to faces have not been found in which of the following brain areas?
a. Cerebellum
b. Superior temporal sulcus
c. Amygdala
d. Ventral striatum
28. In Mooney faces:
a. Black areas have been converted to white, and vice versa
b. Colours have been changed to shades of grey
c. Hairstyles have been changed to suggest adherence to a particular set of beliefs
d. All luminance values at and above some level have been changed to white, and all below that level to black
29. The idea of ‘object form topography’, suggested by Haxby et al., is that:
a. Objects are encoded by the distribution of activity in different regions of the temporal lobe
b. Different views of an object are encoded by different neurons
c. Geons are a physiological reality
d. Objects with different shapes are represented in different brain regions
30. Which of the following results for TMS was not obtained by Pitcher et al.?
a. over rOFA, it affected discriminations involving faces, but not bodies or objects
b. over rEBA, it affected discriminations involving bodies, but not faces or objects
c. over rLO, it affected discriminations involving objects but not faces or bodies
d. over rSPL, it affected discriminations involving bodies, but not faces or objects
Short answer questions
1. What does the inversion effect tell us about face recognition?
2. How have Greebles contributed to our understanding of face recognition?
3. Why is the variability of faces important?
4. How have image processing techniques contributed to our understanding of face recognition?
5. Could faces and other objects be represented in a network of processes in the brain?
Chapter 14: Attention and awareness
MCQs
1. According to Petersen and Posner’s definition, which of the following is not included in the orienting network
a. Pulvinar
b. Cerebellum
c. Superior colliculus
d. Parietal cortex
2. Which of these terms has not been used to describe active attention?
a. Endogenous
b. Sustained
c. Voluntary
d. Transient
3. Mueller and Rabbitt found that the optimal cue-target interval for exogenous attention was:
a. About 130 ms
b. 300 ms or more
c. 20 ms
d. 200 ms
4. Liu et al. found that:
a. Attentional selection by feature is faster than selection by location
b. Selection by feature inhibits selection by location
c. Selection by location and selection by feature are equally fast
d. Selection by location is faster than selection by feature
5. Lavie suggested that:
a. All items in an array receive perceptual processing
b. Only target items are processed
c. How many items are processed depends on perceptual load
d. The bottleneck in perception is in transfer of items to memory
6. Studies of attention have suggested a ‘Mexican hat’ neural response profile that applies not just to spatial location but also to feature space. This suggests:
a. an inhibitory centre and inhibitory surround
b. an excitatory centre and excitatory surround
c. an excitatory centre and inhibitory surround
d. an inhibitory centre and excitatory surround
7. Using a transparent motion display in which two dot patterns moved in opposite directions, Lankheet and Verstraten found that:
a. Attention to one direction produced subsequent motion aftereffects in the other direction
b. Attention to one direction produced subsequent motion aftereffects in the same direction
c. Attention to one direction raised contrast thresholds for faint patterns moving in that direction
d. Had no effect on subsequent motion perception
8. Georgiades and Harris found that diverting attention during adaptation to moving stripes:
a. Reduced the apparent change of size of subsequently viewed stripes
b. Reduced the velocity of subsequent motion aftereffects
c. Had no effect on subsequent aftereffects
d. Increased the duration of subsequent motion aftereffects
9. Spitzer et al. found that during a more difficult discrimination task:
a. A neuron’s response to its preferred orientation rose, but its bandwidth fell
b. A neuron’s response to its preferred orientation rose, but its bandwidth also rose
c. A neuron’s bandwidth fell but its orientation sensitivity was unaffected
d. Both the neuron’s orientation sensitivity and its bandwidth fell
10. Experiments with humans that have manipulated the attentional field size via use of small or large (relative to target size) exogenous pre-cues have observed:
a. performance shifts in the direction of response gain when attentional fields were small and when attentional fields were large
b. performance shifts in the direction of contrast gain when attentional fields were small and in the direction of response gain when attentional fields were large
c. performance shifts in the direction of response gain when attentional fields were small and in the direction of contrast gain when attentional fields were large
d. performance shifts in the direction of contrast gain when attentional fields were small and when attentional fields were large
11. Using fMRI, Saproo and Serences (2014) showed that:
a. Attending to a direction in one part of the visual field has no effect on activity in regions responding to other parts of the visual field
b. Attending to a direction in one part of the visual field enhances responses in regions throughout the visual field
c. Attending to a direction in one part of the visual field can enhance the response to that direction and decrease the response to the opposite direction elsewhere in the visual field
d. None of these
12. In the studies of Long and Moran on the effects of viewing an unambiguous figure:
a. Viewing time was irrelevant to the perception of subsequently viewed ambiguous versions of the figure
b. After long viewing periods, the percept of the ambiguous figure was the same as that of the previously viewed unambiguous figure
c. After long viewing periods, the percept of the ambiguous figure was the opposite to that of the previously viewed unambiguous figure
d. After short viewing periods, the percept of the ambiguous figure was the opposite to that of the previously viewed unambiguous figure
13. Rock et al. showed that when participants are unaware of the possibility of a change in the perception of ambiguous figures:
a. Changes in perception are rare or do not occur
b. Frequency of changes in perception is similar to when participants are aware
c. Frequency of changes in perception is higher than when participants are aware
d. More changes of fixation occur
14. Applying TMS over the posterior intra-parietal sulcus:
a. eliminates perceptual switching of ambiguous stimuli
b. slows perceptual switching of ambiguous stimuli
c. speeds up perceptual switching of ambiguous stimuli
d. has no effect on perceptual switching of ambiguous stimuli
15. In Type 1 Blindsight:
a. Patients cannot make any discriminations and say that they are unaware of the stimuli
b. Patients can make some discriminations but say that they are unaware of the stimuli
c. Patients can make some discriminations and say that they have some awareness of the stimuli
d. Patients cannot make any discriminations but say that they have some awareness of the stimuli
16. Azzopardi and Cowey showed that patients with blindsight:
a. Could discriminate 0% and 100% coherently moving dot patterns
b. Could discriminate the direction of motion of gratings
c. Could discriminate the direction of motion of single bars
d. Could not discriminate between stationary and moving gratings
17. Which of the following was not suggested by Campion et al. as an explanation for blindsight?
a. Residual islands of functioning cortex
b. Scattered light within the eye
c. Response bias
d. Activation of the pupil
18. Moradi et al. showed that face identity aftereffects from monocular viewing:
a. Were reduced or abolished if a field of moving dots was simultaneously viewed by the other eye
b. Were reduced compared to those from binocular viewing
c. Were unaffected by a field of moving dots simultaneously viewed by the other eye
d. Were very similar to those from binocular viewing
19. Blake et al. showed that a high contrast grating shown to one eye produced a similar amount of adaptation, whether or not the grating was suppressed from awareness by an orthogonal grating presented to the other eye. When they replaced the high contrast adapting grating with a low contrast grating, they found:
a. A similar result
b. Less adaptation in the suppressed condition
c. That the orthogonal grating had a reduced effect
d. More adaptation in the suppressed condition
20. Maruya et al. used Continuous Flash Suppression in the other eye to prevent perception of a monocularly presented moving adapting stimulus and compared the resulting aftereffects to those obtained without monocular suppression adaptation. They found:
a. Aftereffects from the adapted eye even with monocular suppression
b. No aftereffects from the adapted eye with monocular suppression
c. Aftereffects from the unadapted eye with monocular suppression, but only on static test fields
d. No aftereffects from the unadapted eye with monocular suppression
21. Mueller and Rabbitt found that:
a. Endogenous attention could be interrupted by an exogenous cue
b. Endogenous attention was immune to external interruptions
c. Exogenous attention could be interrupted by an endogenous attention
d. None of these
22. Goddard et al.’s MEG study found that:
a. effects of spatial attention emerged before those of feature-selective attention
b. effects of feature-selective attention emerged before those of spatial attention
c. effects of spatial attention and feature-selective attention emerged at the same time
d. effects of spatial attention and feature-selective attention emerged only after the onset of feedback from frontal regions
23. Lavie and Fox showed that:
a. Negative priming was unaffected by the number of distractors
b. Negative priming was reduced when the number of distractors in the array was large
c. Positive priming was unaffected by the number of distractors
d. Positive priming was enhanced when the number of distractors in the array was large
24. Which of the following was not suggested by Carrasco as a process by which attention could affect perception?
a. Signal enhancement
b. Internal noise reduction
c. Signal phase shifting
d. External noise reduction
25. The feature similarity gain model of Martinez Trujillo and Treue suggests that:
a. Attentional effects are confined to neurons which process similar features
b. The only effect of attention is to increase the gain of neurons which process similar features
c. Attention increases the gain of neurons which process a particular value of a feature and decreases the gain in neurons which process different values of that feature
d. None of these
26. Attention-driven enhanced neural responding in contrast detection tasks typically suggest increases as a function of:
a. Response gain in electrophysiological (EEG) studies and contrast gain in brain imaging (fMRI) studies
b. Additive gain in electrophysiological (EEG) studies and response gain in brain imaging (fMRI) studies
c. Contrast gain in electrophysiological (EEG) studies and response gain in brain imaging (fMRI) studies
d. Response gain in electrophysiological (EEG) studies and additive gain in brain imaging (fMRI) studies
27 Georgiades and Harris suggested that:
a. The initial percept of an ambiguous visual figure depends on which feature is fixated
b. The initial percept of an ambiguous visual figure depends on the observer’s personality
c. The initial percept of an ambiguous visual figure occurs at random
d. The initial percept of an ambiguous visual figure depends on viewing period
28. Weiskrantz et al. showed that Patient DB (for whom part of V1 in the right hemisphere had been removed) could do which of the following to stimuli presented in the ‘blind’ region of the visual field:
a. Recognise familiar faces
b. Discriminate X from O at better than chance level
c. Discriminate small orientation differences of tiny lines
d. Discriminate the direction of motion of moving plaids
29. Fox and Blake showed that after monocular adaptation to high contrast stimuli:
a. Aftereffects were similar whether or not the other eye viewed a different high contrast stimulus
b. An aftereffect could not be obtained from the unadapted eye
c. Aftereffects were as strong as with binocular adaptation
d. Aftereffects were stronger than with low contrast adapting stimuli
Short answer questions
1. How do exogenous and endogenous attention differ?
2. Do we attend to a location or to a feature?
3. Describe the feature similarity gain model, and evidence from humans which supports it.
4. What neural structures have most commonly been associated with blindsight?
5. What have studies with binocular rivalry revealed about the sites of visual adaptation?
Chapter 15: Changes in perception through the life-span
MCQs
1. Which of the following has not been used to measure infant visual acuity?
a. Sweep VEP
b. Preferential looking
c. Habituation
d. Selective adaptation
2. At what age did the data of Braddick et al. show that responses to grating orientation first appear in the VEP?
a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
c. At birth
d. 1 week
3. In a study of infants using preferential looking, Wattam-Bell found that the minimum velocity for discriminating relative motion:
a. Rose between 10 and 13 weeks
b. Fell between 10 and 13 weeks
c. Could not be measured
d. Stayed constant between 10 and 13 weeks
4. Kremenitzer et al. showed that OKN:
a. Developed by 6 weeks
b. Developed by 1 year
c. Was present at birth
d. Developed at 4 weeks, but only for very large fields
5. Using VEPs, Wattam-Bell et al. showed when stimuli changed between 0% and 100% coherence:
a. Responses to changes in form and motion were adult-like at 3 weeks
b. Responses to changes in form, but not to motion, were adult-like at 3 weeks
c. Responses to changes in form and motion were adult-like at 5 months
d. Responses to changes in motion were adult-like 5 months in all infants, with those to form adult-like in only about half the infants
6. In children under 10 years of age born prematurely:
a. Thresholds for global motion are likely to be worse affected that those for global form
b. Thresholds for global form are likely to be worse affected that those for global motion
c. Thresholds for global motion and global form are likely to be similar
d. Thresholds for biological motion are likely to be normal
7. Banks et al. showed that spatial frequency selectivity of visual masking was:
a. Present at birth
b. Present at 6 weeks
c. Present at 12 weeks
d. Absent at 12 weeks
8. Norcia et al. suggested that infant contrast sensitivity measured with the sweep VEP was better than when measured with behavioural methods because:
a. The procedure was fast and the infant was less likely to be bored or distracted
b. The parent was told to be more encouraging to the infant
c. Their display was of higher luminance than that usually used
d. The stimuli were presented monocularly
9. Pascalis and de Schonen showed that different faces can be discriminated by infants at:
a. Neonatal stage
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 4 weeks
10. Picci and Scherf found that, at puberty, face recognition was better for:
a. More attractive individuals in the peer group
b. Peers than for adults
c. All family members
d. Well-known celebrities
11. Muir and Field showed that infants have some ability to localise sounds:
a. At 3 weeks
b. At birth
c. At 3 months
d. At 6 weeks
12. Romand found that, in the kitten:
a. Detection thresholds of neurons tuned to lower frequencies tend to reach adult levels sooner than do those of neurons tuned to medium and higher frequencies
b. Detection thresholds of neurons tuned to higher frequencies tend to reach adult levels sooner than do those of neurons tuned to medium and lower frequencies
c. There are no obvious differences in the rates of maturation of neurons tuned to different frequencies
d. Frequency tuning does not improve after 1 week
13. Folsom and Wynne found that auditory tuning:
a. Was sharper in adults than in children at higher frequencies
b. Was broader in adults than in children at lower frequencies
c. Was sharper in adults than in children at higher frequencies
d. Was broader in adults than in children at higher frequencies
14. Spatial contrast sensitivity in 80-year-olds:
a. Is much worse at low spatial frequencies than in 20-year-olds
b. Is worse at medium and high spatial frequencies than in 50-year-olds
c. Peaks at low spatial frequencies
d. None of these
15. Temporal contrast sensitivity:
a. Is not affected by ageing
b. Is worse in the elderly at lower frequencies
c. Is worse in the elderly for large fields
d. Is worse in the elderly at higher frequencies
16. Tests of monaural sensitivity to pure tones suggest that:
a. There are losses in the elderly for frequencies above about 100 Hz
b. There are no losses between 20 and 30 years of age
c. Peak sensitivity is at the same frequency in 20- and 80-year-olds
d. There are no losses in the elderly for frequencies above about 3 kHz
17. Which of the following is not a risk factor for hearing loss?
a. Taking some anti-cancer medications
b. Smoking
c. Moderate alcohol consumption
d. Being male rather than female
18. Which of the following has not been suggested to contribute to age-related losses of taste?
a. Loss of taste buds in circumvallate papillae
b. Reduced access of tastants to taste buds
c. Loss of taste buds in fungiform papillae
d. Reduced activity in left posterior insula
19. The just noticeable difference in taste for concentration:
a. Is similar for caffeine in young and elderly participants
b. Is similar for sucrose in young and elderly participants
c. Is much higher for sucrose in elderly than in young participants
d. Is similar for sucrose and caffeine
20. Which of the following has not been suggested as a cause of the decline in sensitivity of smell in the elderly?
a. blockages in the holes in the cribriform plate
b. changes in the blood vessels and blood flow in the nasal epithelium
c. alterations to the airways
d. Increase in hair inside the nose
21. In a study using habituation, Slater et al. showed that infants could discriminate different orientations at:
a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
c. At birth
d. 1 week
22. In a study of infants using preferential looking, Wattam-Bell found that the maximum velocity for discriminating relative motion:
a. Rose between 10 and 13 weeks
b. Fell between 10 and 13 weeks
c. Could not be measured
d. Stayed constant between 10 and 13 weeks
23. VEP responses to global motion are:
a. Greatest in V5 in adults
b. Greatest in V3 in adults
c. Greater subcortically in infants
d. Not present in V5 in infants
24. Scherf et al. (2007) measured activity in the ventral stream with fMRI as their participants viewed still pictures of faces, objects or places, in children, adolescents and adults. They found:
a. Reduced activity in children to places and objects
b. Identical responses to faces in adolescents and adults
c. Similar face-specific responses in all participants
d. Reduced face-specific activity in children
25. Infants begin to prefer looking at human bodies to those of monkeys at:
a. 2 weeks
b. 3.5 months
c. 6 months
d. 3.5 weeks
26. Olsho et al. concluded from their study of changes in sensitivity to sounds in infancy that:
a. between 3 and 6 months, the improvement is greater at higher frequencies
b. After 12 months, the improvement is greater at higher frequencies
c. After 12 months, the only improvements are at lower frequencies
d. No improvements occur before 3 months
27. Losses of contrast sensitivity in the elderly:
a. Are due solely to changes in the eye’s optics
b. Apparently occur because the elderly are more cautious
c. Occur solely because of neural losses
d. Occur through a combination of optical changes and neural losses
28. Which of the following has not been suggested as a cause of sensorineural deafness?
a. Losses of outer hair cells
b. Reduction in the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the midbrain
c. Reduction of movement of the ossicles
d. Losses of fibres in the auditory nerve
29. Compared with the young, the elderly require on average how many times as many molecules or ions to detect or recognise a tastant as do the young?
a. 4.7
b. 8.7
c. 14
d. 22
30. As one ages:
a. Taste and smell decline at similar rates
b. Taste declines faster than smell
c. Taste does not decline
d. Smell declines faster than taste
Short answer questions
1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the methods have been used to investigate infant vision?
2. Which aspects of motion perception are present at birth?
3. At what age does face recognition become adult-like?
4. How does sensitivity to different auditory frequencies differ in adults and infants?
5. How do taste and smell decline in the elderly?
Chapter 16: Pathologies of perception
MCQs
1. In which of the following are people with ASD not thought to be superior?
a. Finding hidden figures
b. Perceiving emotional expressions
c. Block design tests
d. Visual search tasks
2. Grinter et al. showed, using radial frequency patterns, that people with ASD were:
a. Normal when discrimination could be done from local features, and impaired when only more global features were available
b. Impaired when discrimination could be done from local features, and impaired when only more global features were available
c. Normal when discrimination could be done from local features, and also normal when more global features were available
d. Impaired when discrimination could be done from local features, and normal when more global features were available
3. Booth and Happé’s (2018) study used an impossible figures detection task to measure configural processing in ASD and typically developing participants. They showed that individuals with ASD:
a. were significantly less able than typically developing children to discriminate between possible and impossible figures
b. were significantly more able than typically developing children to discriminate between possible and impossible figures
c. were unable to discriminate between possible and impossible figures
d. discriminated between possible and impossible figures as well as typically developing children
4. Pellicano et al. measured detection thresholds for flicker and for motion coherence in ASD. They found:
a. Abnormally high flicker thresholds, and normal motion coherence thresholds
b. Normal flicker and normal motion coherence thresholds
c. Normal flicker and abnormally high motion coherence thresholds
d. Abnormally high thresholds for both flicker and motion coherence
5. Most studies of motion coherence with ASD children have shown behavioural impairments compared with controls when:
a. longer periods of time are available to globally integrate visual information
b. basic integration of motion coherence stimuli is required
c. motion coherence stimulus speed is fast (making it easier to perceive motion direction)
d. motion coherence stimuli had a very limited dot lifetime (appear briefly)
6. Patient JB, diagnosed as having associative agnosia, had difficulty:
a. Saying which pair of three words (e.g. car, road, sky) go together
b. Object decision tasks
c. Saying which pair of three pictures (e.g. car, road, sky) go together
d. Perceiving colours
7. An integrative agnostic is likely to have problems with which of the following?
a. Discriminating squares from rectangles
b. Segmenting shapes from their background
c. Perceiving motion
d. Colour vision
8. From structural MRI scans, which areas did Riddoch et al. conclude were associated with a deficit in naming the small but not the large letters in hierarchical stimuli in patient HJA?
a. Medial ventral extrastriate visual area
b. Extrastriate dorsal area
c. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
d. Insula
9. From their review, which of the following did Capitani et al. (2003) not conclude to be supported by good evidence as a separate category in memory?
a. Animate objects
b. Inanimate biological objects, such as fruit and vegetables
c. Artefacts
d. Landscapes
10. Haigh et al.’s (2018) EEG study measuring decoding accuracy in patients with agnosia (in a task where participants viewed pattern-reversing checkerboards of differing spatial frequency) found low accuracy:
a. For early visual responses with both apperceptive and integrative agnosia and late visual responses with integrative agnosia
b. For early visual responses with integrative agnosia and late visual responses with apperceptive agnosia
c. For early visual responses with apperceptive agnosia and late visual responses with integrative agnosia
d. For early visual responses with both apperceptive and integrative agnosia and late visual responses with apperceptive agnosia
11. Dalla Bella and Peretz (1999) describe cases of agnosia in non-musicians who suffered bilateral damage to the auditory cortex as a result of brain surgery. Which of the following was not impaired in such cases?
a. Understanding speech
b. Recognising familiar tunes
c. Recognising human voices
d. Recognising musical instruments
12. Optic ataxia is characterised by damage to:
a. The cerebellum
b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
c. Insula
d. Posterior parietal cortex
13. In visual apraxia, patients most commonly show impairments when:
a. Performing actions using an object
b. Making appropriate movements towards an object
c. Imitating actions towards a named object
d. Imitating actions towards a visually presented object
14. Neglect has not been demonstrated in:
a. Touch
b. Smell
c. Hearing
d. Vision
15. In the Landmark test, the patient is presented with:
a. A simple map
b. Two signposts
c. A series of pre-transected lines
d. A target embedded in an array of distracters
16. Berti and Frassinetti showed that their patient, who neglected near space, also neglected far space, when:
a. Pointing with a light pen
b. Telling the experimenter where to point
c. Touching with a stick
d. Moving a cursor on a screen
17. When TMS was applied to the right ventral occipital (VO) lobe by Bjoertomt et al., the participant behaved as though:
a. The midpoint of lines in far space appeared shifted to the right
b. The midpoint of lines in near space appeared shifted to the right
c. The midpoint of lines in far space appeared shifted to the left
d. The midpoint of lines in near space appeared shifted to the left
18. When TMS was applied to the right posterior parietal cortex by Giglia et al., the participants’ judgement of the midpoint of lines in far space:
a. appeared shifted to the right both with and without using a stick
b. appeared shifted to the right but only when using a stick
c. appeared shifted to the left both with and without using a stick
d. appeared shifted to the left but only when using a stick
19. Using fMRI, Revill et al. showed that which of the following areas was more active during a bisection than during a search task:
a. Anterior insula
b. Fusiform gyrus
c. Medial superior frontal regions
d. Superior parietal cortex
20. Prism adaptation appears to be clinically effective in reducing symptoms of visuospatial neglect for patients who:
a. Show worse neglect in verbal variants of the (perceptual) Landmark task
b. Have disrupted ventral (occipitotemporal) visual stream processes
c. Present with spatial neglect as a result of parietal stroke
d. Present with spatial neglect as a result of frontal stroke
21. According to the weak central coherence hypothesis, how is perceptual processing affected in ASD?
a. Higher level processes are impaired, and low-level processes normal
b. Higher level processes are impaired, and low-level processes also impaired
c. Higher level processes are normal, and low-level processes impaired
d. Higher level processes are impaired, and low-level processes better than normal
22. Dakin and Frith argued that a result which seemed to show superior global integration of orientation information over space in ASD could instead have been produced by:
a. Better performance at conjunction search
b. The operation of a local low spatial frequency mechanism
c. Better parallel search performance
d. Different fixation patterns
23. Robertson et al.’s studies of motion perception in ASD using forced-choice motion discrimination tasks showed behavioural and brain imaging results in ASD consistent with:
a. typical responses in both early and late stages of visual processing
b. atypical responses in early stages of visual processing but typical responses in late stages of visual processing
c. typical responses in early stages of visual processing but atypical responses in late stages of visual processing
d. atypical responses in both early and late stages of visual processing
24. Of the two broad types of visual agnosia distinguished by Lissauer, apperceptive agnosia is:
a. Impaired access to concepts
b. Impaired visual acuity
c. Impaired higher-level perception
d. Impaired colour vision
25. From structural MRI scans, which areas did Riddoch et al. conclude were associated with a deficit in naming the large but not the small letters in hierarchical stimuli in patient SA?
a. Medial ventral extrastriate visual area
b. Extrastriate dorsal area
c. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
d. Insula
26. In an object decision task, one judges:
a. Which is a certain part of speech in a sentence
b. Which of a couple is speaking and which listening
c. Whether an image is of a legitimate object
d. Whether an array of scattered parts could be combined into an object
27. Cavina-Pratesi et al. showed that their patient MH, diagnosed with optic ataxia, could not:
a. Make appropriate reaching movements to objects
b. Scale his grip appropriately for objects to which he did not have to reach
c. Recognise objects
d. Name objects correctly
28. When TMS was applied to the right posterior parietal cortex by Bjoertomt et al., the participant behaved as though:
a. The midpoint of lines in far space appeared shifted to the right
b. The midpoint of lines in near space appeared shifted to the right
c. The midpoint of lines in far space appeared shifted to the left
d. The midpoint of lines in near space appeared shifted to the left
29. In pre-motor neglect, the patient:
a. Has difficulty in indicating which pre-marked line appears to be an accurate bisection
b. Has normal reaction times
c. Is slower in making responses into one side of space
d. Has difficulty with naming
30. Vossel et al. showed that perceptual biases in neglect were associated with lesions to:
a. Ventral occipital lobe
b. Amygdala
c. Cerebellum
d. Uncus
Short answer questions
1. To what extent is motion perception impaired in ASD?
2. What is the empirical support for the enhanced perceptual function hypothesis in ASD?
3. Describe examples of different types of apperceptive agnosia.
4. What is the empirical support for the distinction between perceptual and premotor neglect?
5. How do arousal levels and sustained attention capacity affect visuospatial performance in patients with neglect?
6. Can visual neglect be treated?
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