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Chapter 2: History of crime

1. Which of these best defines the cultural history approach?

a. An approach primarily concerned with examining history through the lense of media and circulating ideas and their impacts

b. An approach used to examine crime statistics throughout history

c. An approach primarily concerned with how past cultural norms apply to the present day

d. An approach primarily exploring laws and legal responses to crime in the past

2. Which of the following best describes criminologists who study the history of crime, from any time period, with the primary aim of explaining current crime and/or crime regulation trends?

a. Historians of crime

b. Contemporary criminologists

c. Historians of a particular place/period

d. Historical criminologists

3. Which piece of legislation legalised homosexuality between men, but only over the age of 21 and in private?

a. Sex Discrimination Act 1975

b. Sexual Offences Act 1976

c. Sexual Offences Act 1967

d. Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994

4. What year was marital rape officially made a crime in England and Wales, following the House of Lords ruling on the R v R case?

a. 1997

b. 1973

c. 1991

d. 1980

5. Prior to the Theft Act 1968, which of the following would be considered burglary?

a. The offender breaks into a commercial property at 1.00 am and commits theft

b. The offender breaks into a residential at 9.30 pm and commits theft

c. The offender breaks into a residential property at 8.30 pm and commits theft

d. The offender steals something from the front lawn of a residential property at 5.00 am

6. In what year did Sir Robert Peel create the Metropolitan Police?

a. 1805

b. 1829

c. 1833

d. 1819

7. Which of the following best describes ‘historicising’ in the context of crime?

a. Understanding contemporary crime trends

b. Understanding past crimes exclusively through the lens of present-day criminological theory

c. Understanding crime in relation to offenders past criminal records

d. Understanding past crimes in historically specific ways

8. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using the case study approach to study the history of crime?

a. It can be used to make commentary on how particular crimes were viewed at the time

b. It can be used to study poorly documented or lower-profile cases that may have had important impacts

c. It can be used to explore economic conditions at the time

d. It can be used to demonstrate public perceptions of crime and policing at the time

9. What is the main criticism of historical criminologists’ approach to studying the history of crime?

a. History of crime is used to aid the analysis of modern crime trends

b. Only very specific time periods are studied

c. History of crime and past crimes are only deemed worthy of analysis in relation to modern problems and trends

d. Historical context is never considered

10. Which of the following type of scholars of the history of crime is most concerned with using crime and/or perceptions of crime to examine economic, social and political conditions in a given historical context?

a. Historians of crime

b. Historians of a particular place and/or period

c. Historical criminologists

d. Contemporary criminologists

Chapter 3: Crime, victimisation and criminology

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the major critical theoretical perspectives that challenged early work regarding the agency of crime victims?

a. Critical victimology

b. Culpability victimology

c. Feminist victimology

d. Radical victimology

2. What is a common feature shared by legal definitions of ‘victim’?

a. A focus on economic loss

b. The label of ‘victim’ comes about as a social process

c. The harm suffered must be directly caused by a criminal offence

d. Inclusive of family members of those who are victims of any crime

3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Rock’s (2002) definition of a victim?

a. Recognition as a victim by self

b. ‘Victim’ is a process

c. Recognition as a victim by others

d. The harmful/offending act is violent in nature

4. What are ‘deserving victims’?

a. Individuals and groups are easily able to attain the label of victim

b. Individuals or groups are unable to attain the label of victim

c. Those who are denied the legitimate label of the victim even if they deserve it

d. All victims of criminal acts

5. Von Hentig’s (1948) idea that victims have certain psychological or social characteristics making them more prone to victimisation is known as:

a. Victim attribution

b. Victim culpability

c. Victim proneness

d. Victim precipitation

6. Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘victim culpability’?

a. Based upon a thirteen-fold typology, victims can range from ‘completely innocent’ to ‘criminal’ in how responsible they are for their own victimisation

b. Based upon a thirteen-fold typology, victims can range from ‘completely innocent’ to ‘most guilty’ in how responsible they are for committing criminal offences

c. Based upon a six-fold typology, victims can range from ‘completely innocent’ to ‘most guilty’ in how responsible they are for their own victimisation

d. Based upon a six-fold typology, people can range from ‘completely innocent’ to ‘most guilty’ in how responsible they are for committing a criminal offence

7. According to Wolfgang (1958), what are ‘victim precipitated offences’?

a. Offences in which the victim is also an offender

b. Offences in which the victim directly attempts to prevent the crime

c. Offences in which the victim has no influence regarding the offence committed towards them

d. Offences in which the victim is a direct, positive precipitator in the crime

8. The concept of the ‘ideal victim’ describes:

a. A person or a category of individuals who purposefully present themselves in a manner to appear as ‘innocent’ as possible

b. A person or a category of individuals who are most readily given the status of causing their own victimisation

c. A person or a category of individuals who are most readily given the complete and legitimate status of being a victim of crime

d. . A person or a category of individuals who are easy to dislike or resent

9. A perpetrator of crime who is easy to dislike or resent, and therefore allows for my sympathy towards the victim, is known as:

a. The ‘ideal victim’

b. The ‘ideal enemy’

c. The ‘ideal criminal’

d. The ‘ideal agent’

10. Which of the following best describes Lee’s (2017) ‘risk-fear paradox’?

a. When socio-demographic groups who are least likely to be victimised report higher levels of fear of crime

b. When socio-demographic groups who are most likely to be victimised report higher levels of fear of crime

c. When socio-demographic groups who are least likely to be victimised report lower levels of fear of crime

d. When socio-demographic groups who are most likely to be victimised report lower levels of fear of crime

Chapter 4: Tool of the trade: Crime, survey and big data

1. What are the two main sources of crime measurement used in criminology?

a. Police recorded crime and self-report surveys

b. Police recorded crime and crime counts

c. Administrative data and self-report surveys

d. Police recorded data and administrative data

2. What was the previously most used crime survey in England and Wales before the CSEW?

a. British Crime and Victim Survey

b. British Crime Survey

c. British Crime Study

d. Survey of British Crime

3. How often is the CSEW conducted?

a. Yearly

b. Monthly

c. Every two years

d. Every 6 months

4. What does CSEW stand for?

a. Crime Statistics for England and Wales

b. Criminal Statistics for England and Wales

c. Crime Survey for England and Wales

d. Criminal Survey for England and Wales

5. Which of the following is NOT an example of an international crime survey?

a. International Social Survey Programme

b. International Violence Against Women Survey

c. International Crime Victims Survey

d. International Self-Report Delinquency Study

6. Which of the following is NOT a form of crime measurement?

a. Crime count

b. Crime concentration

c. Prevalence rates

d. Community impact

7. How many victim forms are given to respondents of the CSEW who report crime experiences in the main questionnaire?

a. 8

b. 6

c. 4

d. 3

8. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using police recorded crime for research?

a. It can show us which crimes are more likely to be reported to the police

b. It can provide insight into the issues with how the police choose to report crime

c. It accurately and reliably reflects national crime trends

d. It records homicide statistics

9. By how much did knife crime in Kent rise between 2010-2018 as a result of gangs travelling from London to Kent?

a. 137%

b. 160%

c. 152%

d. 120%

10. Which of these is NOT a benefit of using administrative data to help analyse crime statistics?

a. It provides better insight into potential social causes of crime

b. It can be difficult to access

c. It allows for more collaborative work between certain organisations and policy makers who deal with victims and offenders

d. It allows more in-depth analysis of crime trends

Chapter 5: Crime and the media

1. What phrase does Surette use to refer to the idea that the media tends to misrepresent the reality of crime?

a. The rule of distortion

b. The law of opposites

c. The elementary denial

d. Tabloid adversarialism

2. Which genre did Foucault see as important in signalling the shifting culture interest from ‘the execution to the investigation’?

a. The reality television show

b. The prison movie

c. The cop show

d. The detective novel

3. Which of the following refers to the tendency of news outlets to transform complex news stories into simplistic, catchy messages about crime:

a. Adversarialism

b. Media distortion

c. Mediatisation

d. Sloganization

4. News reporting on violence has:

a. Remained the same over time

b. Increased post-Second World War

c. Decreased post-Second World War

d. Become impossible to measure

5. Cohen’s original study of moral panics focused on:

a. White collar crime in the 1950s

b. Altercations between two British youth-subcultural groups in the 1960s

c. News coverage of ‘mugging’ in the 1970s

d. Party drug-users in the 1980s

6. Which of the following is widely seen as a criterion of moral panic:

a. Disproportionality

b. The existence of a folk hero

c. Responsibilisation

d. Long-lasting cultural effects

7. One alternative paradigm to ‘moral panic’ is:

a. Folk devils

b. The deviance amplification spiral

c. The cautionary tale

d. Tabloidization

8. Folk devils are:

a. The group that becomes the focus of concern and censure in a moral panic

b. Those who administer crime control measures during periods of moral panic

c. Those who speak up on behalf of those vilified during a moral panic

d. Journalists and editors who produce news items that contribute to a moral panic

9. Which of the following is an example of citizen journalism:

a. Eye-witness film footage taken on a mobile phone, circulated via social media

b. News reporting on political events that affect public policy

c. Journalism that is mindful of citizens’ needs for transparency and accountability

d. 24/7 news coverage that provides citizens with live news updates

10. When was 24/7 news introduced:

a. The 1970s

b. The 1980s

c. The 1990s

d. The 2000s

Chapter 6: Approaches to criminological theory

1. Which of the following theories follows a rational actor model of crime?

a. Labelling theory

b. Ecological explanations

c. Routine activities theory

d. Positivism

2. Which of the following is NOT a theory that follows a pre-destined actor model of crime?

a. Alienation and anomie

b. Biological explanations

c. Ecological explanations

d. Conflict theory

3. Which of the following best describes the focus of theories following a pre-destined actor model of crime?

a. Crime/criminal behaviour can be explained as rational choices made by the offender

b. Crime/criminal behaviour can be explained as the product of environmental and/or biological factors

c. Crime/criminal behaviour can be explained as solely biologically driven

d. Crime/criminal behaviour can be explained as socially generated, and reflective of existing power structures

4. Which of the following best describes the ecological explanation of crime?

a. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by the physical and social landscape in cities and neighbourhoods

b. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by biological predispositions

c. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by crime opportunities

d. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by the labelling of certain acts as criminal as part of wider power structures

5. Which of the following best describes conflict theories of crime?

a. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by the physical and social landscape in cities and neighbourhoods

b. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by biological predispositions

c. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by crime opportunities

d. Crime/criminal behaviour is caused by the labelling of certain acts as criminal as part of wider power structures

6. Which of the following best describes ‘Differential Association’ as used in the context of sub-cultural theories of crime

a. Crime is socially constructed

b. Those who offend make rational decisions to do so

c. Association with those who commit a crime will make someone less likely to commit crime themselves

d. Criminal behaviour is learnt through social relations and acceptance/rejection from certain social groups

7. Which of the following descriptions of theories following the rational actor model is unique to the routine activities theory?

a. Punishment should fit the crime

b. Focus on prevention and limiting opportunities for crime, rather than trying to explain it

c. Despite there being a rational choice to offend, external factors (age, location, etc.) can influence how rational the choice appears to the potential offender

d. Offenders make a rational choice to commit a crime

8. Which of the following is an example of positivist criminology?

a. Criminality is the result of opportunities to commit crime

b. Criminality is the result of rational choices to commit crime

c. Criminality is the result of some kind of mental illness or disturbance

d. Criminality is the result of labelling of certain acts as criminal as part of wider power structures

9. Which of the following defines anomie?

a. Gaining wealth through illegitimate means

b. Being part of a sub-culture

c. A state of disjuncture between the dominant goals of society and the legitimate means of achieving them

d. A state of acceptance of the dominant goals of society and the legitimate means of achieving them

10. Which of the following best describes the victimised actor model of crime?

a. Crime and delinquency the result of opportunities to commit crime

b. Crime and delinquency are socially generated and reflective of societal power structures

c. Crime and delinquency are the product of environmental and/or biological factors

d. Crime and delinquency are caused by the physical and social landscape in cities and neighbourhoods

Chapter 7: Social harm and zemiology

1. Which of the following best defines zemiology?

a. A way of defining social harm

b. An academic discipline concerned with the study of social harms

c. A philosophical approach to crime

d. An academic discipline concerned with the study of crime

2. Which of the following describes social harm, but not a crime (in the UK)?

a. The sale of counterfeit goods

b. Burglary

c. The housing crisis

d. Murder

3. Who, of the following, is typically credited with laying the groundwork in the 1940s for the origins of the social harm approach as part of criminology?

a. Pemberton and Hilyard

b. Tombs and Sutherland

c. Edwin Sutherland

d. Hilyard and Tombs

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the interrelated reasons why the concept of crime fails to cover social harms mentioned in this chapter?

a. Crime consists of many ‘petty events’

b. Crime has no ontological reality

c. Crime excludes many serious harms

d. Crime describes harmful and deviant behaviour

5. Which of the following is NOT one of Hilyard and Tombs’ (2004) typologies of harm?

a. Social harm

b. Psychological harm

c. Financial harm

d. Physical harm

6. Which of the following best describes negative liberty?

a. Freedom to commit crime

b. Freedom from harm

c. Freedom from state control

d. Freedom to cause harm

7. Who of the following defined social harm as constituting the compromising of human flourishing through the systematic denial of access to the basic pre-requisites for such flourishing?

a. Pemberton (2007; 2016)

b. Hillyard and Tombs (2004)

c. Tombs (2018)

d. Yar (2012)

8. Who of the following defined social harm as the inter-subjective experience of being refused recognition with respect to any or all of the dimensions of need; love, rights and esteem?

a. Pemberton (2007; 2016)

b. Hillyard and Tombs (2004)

c. Tombs (2018)

d. Yar (2012)

9. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of the applicability of the social harm approach within criminology?

a. There is no clear definition of social harm

b. Social harm is largely difficult to measure

c. Social harm includes some criminal harms

d. The concept of social harm is underdeveloped

10. Which of the following is NOT an example of legal social harm?

a. The housing crisis

b. Poverty

c. Burglary

d. Licensed pollution

Chapter 8: Feminist criminologies

1. Which ‘wave’ of feminism is most associated with intersectional approaches to feminist criminology?

a. First-wave feminism

b. Second-wave feminism

c. Third-wave feminism

d. First-generation feminism

2. Which of the following best describes Marxist feminism?

a. A perspective with the main aim of understanding how multiple significant factors, such as race or class, can shape or compound women’s experiences of crime and victimisation

b. A perspective primarily focused on society as patriarchy, in which men dominate, oppress and sexually objectify women, with the aim to liberate women from this

c. A perspective that focuses on differences and similarities between women and feminism in all parts of the world, with the aim of moving away from Western-centric ideas of feminism

d. A perspective that considers the material basis of women’s oppression and the relationship between production, class and women’s status

3. Which of the following best describes radical feminism?

a. A perspective with the main aim of understanding how multiple significant factors, such as race or class, can shape or compound women’s experiences of crime and victimisation

b. A perspective primarily focused on society as patriarchy, in which men dominate, oppress and sexually objectify women, with the aim to liberate women from this

c. A perspective that focuses on differences and similarities between women and feminism in all parts of the world, with the aim of moving away from Western-centric ideas of feminism

d. A perspective that considers the material basis of women’s oppression and the relationship between production, class and women’s status

4. Which of the following best describes global feminism?

a. A perspective with the main aim of understanding how multiple significant factors, such as race or class, can shape or compound women’s experiences of crime and victimisation

b. A perspective primarily focused on society as patriarchy, in which men dominate, oppress and sexually objectify women, with the aim to liberate women from this

c. A perspective that focuses on differences and similarities between women and feminism in all parts of the world, with the aim of moving away from Western-centric ideas of feminism

d. A perspective that considers the material basis of women’s oppression and the relationship between production, class and women’s status

5. Of the following, which best describes the main methodological approach of general feminist scholarship?

a. A qualitative focus on the lived experiences of women for knowledge production

b. An empirical grounded in testing hypotheses concerning women and crime

c. A data-based approach focused on statistical analysis

d. A historical approach focused solely on early laws and regulations concerning women

6. Which of the following best describes Cyberfeminism?

a. The consideration and documentation of misogyny in the Global South

b. The documentation of repeat harassment both on and offline

c. The consideration of issues women face in the video games industry

d. The consideration and documentation of how gender impacts interactions on the internet and other new media technologies

7. What is meant when criminology was/is accused of being ‘androcentric’?

a. Criminological work is centred on women and has failed to include the perspectives and experiences of men in research and theory

b. Criminology has failed to include the perspectives and experiences of ethnic minorities in research and theory

c. Criminological work is centred on men and has failed to include the perspectives and experiences of women in research and theory

d. Criminology has accepted feminist criminological theories and is now fully gender-inclusive

8. Which of the following is NOT one of the examples of the gendered nature of online harassment identified by feminist criminologists?

a. Gendertrolling

b. Rickrolling

c. Revenge porn

d. Technology facilitated stalking

9. In 2007 a report was published highlighting important and prevalent issues in women’s prisons and making recommendations to improve them. The name of this report was:

a. The Bosworth Report

b. The Baroness Report

c. The Corston Report

d. The Women’s Prisons Report

10. Which of the following best describes an intersectional approach to feminist criminology?

a. An approach that considers how multiple significant factors, such as race or class, can shape or compound women’s experiences of crime and victimisation

b. An approach that prioritises the experiences of women who have been victims of crime perpetrated by men

c. An approach that considers gender to be more important than other social or economic factors in the context of experiences with crime and victimisation

d. An approach that prioritises the experiences of women in positions of power and their experiences with misogyny

Chapter 9: Developmental and life-course criminology

1. What is the primary aim of developmental and life-course criminology?

a. To study how often individuals commit specific types of crime

b. To conduct prospective longitudinal studies

c. To study the initiation and changes in the antisocial and criminal behaviour of individuals over long periods of time.

d. To study changes in the antisocial and criminal behaviour of individuals over a month

2. What is the main difference between ‘developmental’ and ‘life-course’ criminology?

a. Life-course theories focus on adulthood and developmental theories focus on childhood

b. Life-course theories take biological factors into consideration, and developmental theories do not

c. Life-course theories look at criminal behaviour over an entire lifetime, and developmental theories look at criminal behaviour up to 18 years old

d. Life-course theories tend to be sociological in natures, and developmental theories tend to be psychological

3. Which of the following best describes a prospective longitudinal study?

a. A study that lasts a minimum of 10 years

b. A study that follows a group of the same individuals over time

c. A study that requires participants to provide information on their past experiences over a specified period of time

d. A study that has two independent variables

4. Factors and/or events that increase the likelihood of the onset of criminal behaviour are known as:

a. Likelihood factors

b. Risk factors

c. Protective factors

d. Criminal traits

5. Which of the following is NOT a key theory within developmental and life-course criminology?

a. Life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behaviour

b. The Integrated Cognitive Antisocial Potential (ICAP) theory

c. The Routine Activities Theory

d. The Age-Graded Theory of Informal Social Control

6. Which of the following is a feature of the Situational Action Theory of Crime Causation?

a. A focus on moral rule-breaking

b. A focus on an individual’s antisocial potential

c. A focus on social bonds

d. A focus on offending behaviour in adolescence

7. According to the age-graded theory of informal social control, what is the term used to describe life changes that can influence social bonds and lead an individual either away from or to criminal behaviour?

a. Impactful life events

b. Social bonding

c. Points of no return

d. Turning points

8. According to developmental and life-course criminology, what should the main aim of crime prevention programs be?

a. To increase non-custodial sentences

b. To target risk factors

c. To put up more security cameras in high crime areas

d. To increase prison sentences

9. Factors and/or events that decrease the likelihood of the onset of criminal behaviour are known as:

a. Likelihood factors

b. Risk factors

c. Protective factors

d. Criminal traits

10. According to the current age-crime curve, at what stage in an individual’s life is the most likely to engage in criminal behaviour?

a. Adolescence

b. Middle age

c. Childhood

d. Old age

Chapter 10: Cultural criminology: An introduction

1. Which of the following best describes what cultural criminology is?

a. An evolving analytical perspective concerned with crime mapping and the effectiveness of contemporary criminal justice initiatives

b. An evolving theory concerned with emotion, deviance and punishment

c. An evolving analytical perspective concerned with meaning power and existential accounts of crime, punishment and control

d. An evolving theory concerned with the biosocial causes of crime and criminal justice responses too this

2. What is the term used to describe the way in which economic and cultural globalisation is serving to reshape personal identities, destabilise social values and break culture away from locality?

a. Deviant Leisure

b. Late Modernity

c. Ontological Insecurity

d. Neoliberalism

3. Which term is often used to describe the control-oriented neoliberal approaches to governance?

a. Late modern culture of risk management

b. New crime control

c. Risk management

d. The late modern culture of control

4. What does the term ‘new military urbanism’ refer to?

a. The use of new military technology among criminals

b. The normalisation of military personnel in urban areas

c. The normalised use of military tactics and surveillance technology in everyday crime control

d. The use of the military for petty crime control

5. According to cultural criminologists, how have neoliberal principles of managerialism affected criminology as a discipline?

a. Through frequent monitoring and research funding opportunities tethered to orthodox criminal justice outcomes

b. Through a lack of funding for research surrounding crime and criminal justice

c. Through crime and criminality being so strictly surveillance and controlled that it is difficult to study

d. Criminology has not been subject to these effects

6. What factors are the main focus of study in cultural criminology with regard to the aetiology of crime, deviance and punishment?

a. Time and place

b. Emotion and affect

c. Monetary motivations

d. Cost-benefit analyses

7. What is meant by the term ‘edgework’ in cultural criminology?

a. A response to late modernity, consisting of risk-taking activities exclusively participated in by young men

b. A response to late modernity, consisting of acts of voluntary, and potentially illicit, risk-taking

c. A response to late modernity, consisting of acts of involuntary risk-taking behaviours encouraged by the state

d. A response to late modernity, consisting of acts of voluntary legal risk-taking

8. What methodological approach is most associated with cultural criminology research?

a. Content analysis

b. Quantitative research

c. Survey methodologies

d. Ethnographic research

9. What of the following is the main criticism of cultural criminology?

a. That it is overly focused on culture, and does not consider individual experiences with crime and deviance

b. That it does not consider the role of social class and capitalism in shaping crime and deviancy

c. That it over-emphasises individual subjectivity at the expense of shared elements of culture, creating a confused understanding of the concept of culture

d. That its concern with emotion and affect is unimportant and cannot contribute to criminological knowledge in any way

10. The field of ‘deviant leisure’ is concerned with:

a. Expanding the concept of deviance beyond laws and norms to include activities that have the potential to cause harm through their engagement in cultural values and consumerism

b. Focusing on how deviant activities and sensibilities and be influenced by and create positive emotions

c. Expanding the concept of deviance beyond laws to consider activities and subjectivities outside accept social and cultural norms

d. Focusing on deviant activities outside the law and social norms that do not have the potential to cause harm

Chapter 11: Southern and comparative criminology

1. Which of the following best describes ethnocentrism?

a. The tendency to assess other cultures using the values and standards of your own society

b. The consideration of other cultural perspectives

c. The study of ethnicity

d. The study of different cultures

2. Which of the following best defines modernisation theory?

a. A theoretical tradition that believes the whole world must develop like industrialised, western countries

b. A theory primarily using comparative quantitative methodologies

c. A critical theory challenging comparative criminology

d. A theoretical tradition focused on developing countries

3. Which of the following is NOT an example of comparative criminology?

a. Comparative penology

b. Southern criminology

c. The study of transnational crime

d. The study of local crime

4. Which of the following best describes the Global North as described by Southern Criminology?

a. All countries to the north of the equator

b. Poor countries

c. Developed countries

d. Developing countries

5. Which of the following is a benefit of using the geographical terms Global North and Global South to describe postcolonial relations?

a. There can be developed regions in the South and developing regions in the North

b. It helps visualise global economic inequalities

c. There is debate over which countries are included in the ‘Global South’

d. It shows cultural differences

6. Which of the following best defines the term, Cognitive Justice?

a. Recognition of the South’s economic value

b. Recognition of the North’s position in global marketplaces

c. Recognition of the South’s distinctive cultures and values

d. Recognition of the North’s economic value

7. Which of the following describes how southern criminology can be applied to gendered violence?

a. Gendered violence is not present in the North

b. Poverty and the aftermath of colonialism can be seen as responsible for extremely gendered violence

c. Gendered violence is the same across countries

d. The South is responsible for gendered violence

8. Which of the following is NOT a common criticism of Southern Criminology?

a. It has been largely developed and discussed in Northern countries

b. It looks to include the perspectives of Southern countries and cultures

c. It is potentially based on romanticism

d. It does not go far enough as a critical theory

9. What is the primary aim of comparative criminology?

a. To compare different types of crime locally

b. To compare crime and penology across countries and cultures

c. To compare crime in the past to crime in the present

d. To compare violent crime to non-violent crime

10. What is the primary aim of the Southern Criminology approach?

a. To consider the impact of different cultural perspectives and globalisation on crime and criminological study

b. To apply existing criminological theory to other cultures

c. To reflect on the relationship between quantitative and qualitative methods

d. To compare crime across countries

Chapter 12: Cybercrime

1. Which of the following best defines the term ‘cyber-crime’?

a. Types of crime associated with the use of information technology systems and computers that are not connected to the Internet

b. Types of crime committed via the Internet, by someone/a group of people in another country other than the one in which the victim(s) experience the crime

c. Types of crime associated with the use of computers, the Internet, or information technology systems

d. Types of crime associated with new technologies

2. What are ‘Cyber Threat Actors’?

a. Those who are skilled at computer programming

b. Those who monitor cyber-threats

c. Those who perpetrate cyber-crime

d. Those who monitor threatening language on social media

3. Which of the following would NOT be considered an example of cyber-crime?

a. Stealing a phone with the intent to immediately sell it on

b. Accessing a device without the owner’s consent

c. Introducing malware onto a device

d. Illicit drug dealing in which the use of the internet is involved

4. In the context of cyber-crime, what are ‘Advanced Persistent Threats’ (APTs)?

a. Well-financed and resourced cyber threat actors who specialise in fraud

b. Well-financed and resourced cyber-criminal groups who continuously target companies or government agencies

c. Cyber threat actors who are career criminals

d. Well-financed and resourced cyber-criminal groups who create ransomware

5. What are the 4 key aspects critical to the handling of digital evidence?

a. Repeatability, auditability, confidentiality and integrity

b. Auditability, repeatability, reproducibility and justifiability

c. Reproducibility, justifiability, police cyber security measures and integrity

d. Justifiability, police cyber security measures, confidentiality and reproducibility

6. The CIA triad is a useful model to assist in how one should think about an individuals’ information security. What three things to consider make up the CIA triad?

a. Security, Confidentiality and Integrity

b. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability

c. Confidentiality, Availability and Security

d. Integrity, Security and Availability

7. Which of the following is NOT and the major issue surrounding the attribution of cyber-crime?

a. The use of VPNs or proxy servers

b. Cyber-crime may be transnational

c. A high confidence level is required when attempting to make attribution of cyber-crime

d. Public police agencies don’t have the technology or ability to find IP addresses

8. What is ransomware?

a. Software that makes a device unusable or data inaccessible until a ‘ransom’ has been paid

b. A type of virtual private network

c. Software used for sending out large scale amounts of phishing emails

d. An anti-virus software

9. Why does cyber-crime often increase in times of confusion or global events?

a. Times of confusion or global events make people more likely to become CTAs

b. Cyber security is less effective during such times

c. CTAs are better able to exploit human vulnerabilities during such times

d. There is easier digital access during such times

10. What is the primary method by which cyber-crime exploits are begun?

a. By phone call

b. By E-mail

c. By hacking

d. By post

Chapter 13: Terrorism

1. Which of the following is NOT part of the UK definition of terrorism as it is written in the 2006 Terrorism Act?

a. For the purpose of advancing a political-religious or ideological cause

b. The use of threat of action

c. Designed to influence the government or intimidate the public

d. Perpetrated by a large religiously led group

2. Which of the following is NOT considered a general aim of terrorist action?

a. Have psychological repercussions beyond the immediate target

b. Push a religious doctrine or state

c. Create mass anxiety and fear

d. Reveal the incompetence of the authorities

3. What is narcoterrorism?

a. Terrorism associated with trade in illegal drugs

b. Terrorism associated with snitching

c. Drug trafficking

d. Terrorism associated with criminal gangs

4. What is a ‘trigger event’ in the context of terrorism literature?

a. An extreme act committed by the perceived enemy or other provocative events that call for revenge or action

b. The first event of a series of planned terrorist attacks

c. An act of terrorism involving gun violence

d. An extreme act committed by a terrorist group that calls for some form of political change

5. Which of the following is NOT a typical factor of terrorist target selection?

a. Probability of success

b. Accessibility

c. Inhibition

d. Publicity value

6. Which of the following is NOT an issue facing attempts to define terrorism?

a. Terrorism is not understood as a problem internationally

b. There are differing definitions in different countries

c. It is sometimes used to discredit any opposing political cause

d. Most, if not all definitions, have a degree of ambiguity

7. Which of the following is NOT a common factor in those open to terrorist recruitment according to Horgan (2008)?

a. Identification with the perceived victims of the social injustice they are fighting

b. Being content to talk about political issues rather than take action

c. Belief that their current political involvement does not give them the power to effect real change

d. Having friends or family sympathetic to the cause

8. What are Trujillo et al’s (2009) two proposed recruitment pathways to terrorist activity?

a. attraction to extremist activity by a charismatic leader or mentor and recruitment through friends and family

b. recruitment through friends and family and self-recruitment

c. recruitment through friends and family and online recruitment

d. self-recruitment and attraction to extremist activity by a charismatic leader or mentor

9. Which of the following best describes ‘groupthink’?

a. When the members of a group intuitively have similar thinking patterns

b. When consensus-seeking becomes so dominant that it tends to override individual thinking

c. When individual thinking is valued by the group

d. When thoughts are shared in a group

10. What are the four main themes of the UK CONTEST strategy for counter-terrorism?

a. Defend, Protect, Respond and Pursue

b. Prevent, Protect, Pursue and Defend

c. Pursue, Protect, Attack and Pursue

d. Prevent, Protect, Pursue and Respond

Chapter 14: Corporate crime and the regulation of ecocide

1. What is men's rea in the context of criminal law?

a. An individual who contributes to an offence but is not directly responsible/involved

b. An individual is unaware that a crime was being committed

c. An individual has knowledge that their action/lack of action would cause a crime to be committed

d. An individual has knowledge that a crime was committed

2. Which of the following best describes ‘ecocide’?

a. Human activity that causes extensive damage to ecosystems and/or harms the health and well-being of a species

b. The human activity that contributes to the health and well-being of humans and non-human animals

c. The human activity that benefits ecosystems

d. Non-human animal activity that damages ecosystems

3. What does ‘joint enterprise’ mean in the context of criminal justice

a. An individual who contributes to an offence but is not directly responsible/involved

b. An individual is unaware that a crime was being committed

c. An individual has knowledge that their action/lack of action would cause a crime to be committed

d. An individual has knowledge that a crime was committed

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of how corporations avoid responsibility for potential ecocide harms?

a. Fabrication of evidence regarding the health impacts of a product

b. Manufacturing of potentially deadly products

c. Dismissal of scientific evidence that a product is harmful

d. Announcing that they are looking to a non-harmful alternative product while expanding the market for the known harmful product

5. Which of the following is NOT an example of the structural limitation of regulating ecocide caused by corporations?

a. The effects of ecocide are often not immediate

b. The defunding of the UK environmental agency

c. It is often difficult to identify a lack of action/series of reckless acts occurring at different points in the hierarchy of an organization

d. Re-establishing ecocide as a crime would make corporations and individuals more accountable for their ecocidal actions and inactions.

6. What percentage of greenhouse gas emissions are estimated to be produced by just 100 corporations?

a. 68%

b. 57%

c. 71%

d. 98%

7. Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 phases of pre-meditated corporate crime?

a. Corporations take action to ensure the market for its products expands

b. Major corporations manufacture projects they either know/don’t know are deadly

c. The political policy sees regulation as a burden on business

d. Medical and scientific evidence is demeaned

8. Which of the following is NOT an argument for why deterrence theory should be primarily applied to corporate crime?

a. Those deterrence theories currently targets the most don’t have the resources to make rational choices about committing a crime

b. Corporations have a high motivation to consider the long-term consequences of their actions

c. Corporations have the resources, time and expertise to make informed rational choices about committing a crime

d. Deterrence theory is more effective for non-violent crimes

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of environmental harm mostly perpetuated by corporations?

a. Plastic pollution

b. Air pollution

c. Greenhouse gas emissions

d. Poaching

10. How many frontline regulators are responsible for the enforcement of ecocide regulation of all corporations in the UK?

a. Little more than 10,000

b. Less than 100

c. Little more than 1000

d. Over 1 million

Chapter 15: Organised and transnational crime

1. Which of the following is NOT often a feature of organised crime as it is depicted in popular media?

a. Diverse range of offenders and victims

b. Highly organised and sophisticated crime groups

c. Groups have strict codes of honour and respect

d. Extreme violence

2. Which of the following are the main two globally dominant law enforcement approaches to organised crime?

a. ‘critical consumption’ and ‘fight fire with fire’

b. ‘control at the borders’ and ‘fight fire with fire’

c. ‘fight fire with fire’ and ‘follow the money’

d. ‘follow the money’ and ‘critical consumption’

3. Which of the following best describes the ‘fight fire with fire’ response to organised crime?

a. The creation of legislation allowing governments to seize the assets of convicted organised criminals

b. Increased regulation of finance and banking

c. The creation of agencies dedicated to matching the perceived size and threat of organised crime

d. The creation of child protection measures to separate the children of organised crime members from their families

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of agencies formed in the UK to tackle organised crime?

a. National Crime Agency

b. Federal Bureau of Investigation

c. Serious Organised Crime Agency

d. National Crime Squad

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the four-pronged criteria for mafia groups according to Paoli (2014)?

a. Control of markets

b. Political dominion

c. Longevity

d. Code of honour

6. Which of the following best describes Gambetta’s (1993) Protection Theory?

a. Lack of state protection of local communities deters mafia groups

b. ‘Men of honour’ carry out protection services for local populations in exchange for tax payments. Over time these groups become embedded in local communities.

c. Mafia groups refuse to protect local communities.

d. ‘Men of honour’ carry out protection services for local populations and until the state intervenes.

7. Which of the following is NOT an issue with research and policy surrounding organised crime?

a. The definition of organised crime

b. The diversity of offenders/actors

c. Lack of media attention

d. Differing international laws

8. According to Hagan (2006), which of the following is considered ‘Organised Crime’?

a. Criminal activity involving multiple offenders

b. Activities or crimes that require organisation

c. Groups or organisations that commit crime

d. Transnational crime

9. According to Hagan (2006), which of the following is NOT one of the 3 levels of Organised Crime on the Organised Crime continuum?

a. Large transnational groups

b. Fully-fledged groups

c. Street gangs and others that are lower level in exhibiting full development

d. Semi Organised Crime groups that lack full development of some characteristics

10. Which of the following is NOT an issue with identifying victims of organised crime?

a. There is a diverse range of victims

b. Media and policy depictions assume offender/victim relationships are straightforward

c. All victims of organised crime are perpetrators of organised crime themselves

d. Some victims may partially or fully consent to their role in organised crime

Chapter 16: Green crimes and green criminology

1. Which of the following would NOT be considered ‘green crime’?

a. Wildlife trafficking

b. Large-scale air pollution

c. Deforestation

d. Burglary

2. Which of the following best describes the legalist view of green crime?

a. Only harmful actions specified as prohibited by criminal law are crimes

b. Actions that are particularly harmful or violent even if they do not violate criminal law merit the definition of crimes

c. Any action that causes environmental harm falls under the green crime

d. Harm to the environment is not a crime

3. Which of the following best describes the term Anthropocene?

a. A geological epoch indicating the period of response to climate change

b. A geological epoch indicating the period of significant human impact on the natural environment

c. The time it takes for the harmful environment-related activity to have an impact

d. A geological epoch indicating the period before humans made significant impacts on the natural environment

4. Which of the following best describes environmental justice?

a. The distribution of environments in terms of human access to/use of natural resources and environmental harm to humans

b. Responses to harm to the environment

c. The consideration of environmental harm to humans and non-human entities

d. The consideration of environmental harm to non-human animals

5. Which of the following is NOT an example of environmental justice?

a. Ecofeminism

b. Environmental racism

c. Species Justice

d. The red-green movement

6. Which of the following best describes Species Justice?

a. The distribution of environments in terms of human access to/use of natural resources and environmental harm to humans

b. Responses to harm to the environment

c. The consideration of environmental harm to humans and non-human entities

d. The consideration of environmental harm to non-human animals

7. Which of the following is NOT one of the approaches to policing green crime identified by White (2007)?

a. The social action approach

b. The regulatory approach

c. The legalist approach

d. The socio-legal approach

8. Which of the following best describes the social action approach to policing green crime?

a. The use of current criminal law and improvement in regulation and law enforcement

b. The use of social regulation to reform existing systems of production and consumption

c. Social change through democratic institutions and citizen participation.

d. Reliance on existing enforcers of environmental harm regulation

9. What systems/groups are typically responsible for the enforcement of environmental laws?

a. Administrative or civil law systems

b. Criminal Justice systems

c. Voluntary organisations

d. Corporations

10. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the social-legal perspective of green crime?

a. Actions that are particularly harmful or violent even if they do not violate criminal law merit the definition of crimes

b. Only harmful actions specified as prohibited by criminal law are crimes

c. Acknowledgement of symbiotic green crime

d. Considers changing social attitudes to environmental harm

Chapter 17: Trafficking and exploitation

1. How many victims of trafficking are there in the UK?

a. 6, 993

b. 75,000

c. 4 million

d. We can’t say for sure

2. The Modern Slavery Act was introduced in England and Wales in:

a. January 1908

b. July 1957

c. March 2015

d. October 2018

3. As part of the National Referral Mechanism, the Competent Authority makes two key decisions. They are called:

a. Reasonable Grounds and Conclusive Ground decisions

b. Recovery and Reflection decisions

c. First Assessment and Second Assessment decisions

d. The victim and Visa decisions

4. The ‘ideal victim’ of sex trafficking is someone who is regarded as

a. Having chosen to sell sex voluntarily but regrets it

b. Having exhibited no agency either in their movement across borders or in the sale of sex

c. Having chosen to cross borders using the services of a smuggler but has subsequently been exploited

d. Having chosen to sell sex but has to pay off a debt bondage

5. The Rescue Industry is made up of

a. Police and immigration officials only

b. Non-governmental organisations only

c. A range of ‘social helpers’ from a diverse network of organisations and agencies

d. Different states/countries

6. Anti-trafficking Responses are often categorised within the ‘3Ps’ framework. What are the 3Ps?

a. Patrols, protection and prosecution

b. Policing, patrols and protection

c. Prevention, protection and prosecution

d. Prevention, policing and prosecution

7. Which of the following is NOT an example of an anti-trafficking prevention strategy?

a. Targeting demand for trafficked labour

b. Rescue raids

c. Anti-trafficking campaigns

d. Identifying those at risk of trafficking in ‘origin countries’

8. Human trafficking is generally understood to be made up of three important elements; the action, the means and

a. Immigration

b. The use of force

c. The ends

d. The purpose

9. In legal terms, ‘modern slavery’ is

a. A broad term referring to several forms of exploitation, including human trafficking

b. A newer term for human trafficking

c. A term referring to forced compulsory labour

d. A term describing only the most extreme forms of trafficking and exploitation

10. What is the key challenge to prosecuting and convicting trafficking offences?

a. Offenders from foreign countries present complications for prosecution

b. The offenders involved in trafficking are difficult to identify

c. Victims are often reluctant to engage with the criminal justice system

d. Trafficking victims are difficult to find

Chapter 18: Hate crime

1. Which of the following is currently NOT one of the five monitored strands outlined in hate crime policy by the UK College of Policing?

a. Disability

b. Transgender

c. Homelessness

d. Religion

2. Which of the following is currently the most commonly monitored identity in relation to hate crimes?

a. Race/ethnicity

b. Sexual Orientation

c. Gender

d. Religion

3. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of conventional hate crime policy?

a. It does not often take intersectional identities into account

b. Its existence acknowledges the additional harm caused by hate offences

c. It has not yet effectively kept up with the potential of cyberhate crime

d. It is often exclusive

4. According to McDevitt et al’s (2002) study, which of the following is NOT a hate crime perpetrator typology?

a. Mission offenders

b. Thrill offenders

c. Defensive offenders

d. Offensive offenders

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a ‘defensive offender’?

a. Perceive victim as belonging to a group that poses an economic, social or cultural threat

b. Commit hate crime to ‘protect’ their neighbourhood/country from perceived intruders

c. Commit hate crime for an exciting experience

d. Commonly teenagers or young males

6. Which of the following best describes a ‘mission offender’?

a. Someone who commits a hate crime as a response to an event that they perceive the victim’s community to have been responsible for

b. A far-right sympathiser who commits hate crimes to prove a point or exterminate groups deemed evil/inferior

c. An individual committing a hate crime in the name of ‘protecting’ their neighbourhood from those they perceive as a threat

d. A group committing hate crime due to underlying biases, for the thrill of committing the crime

7. Which of the following, according to Hall (2013), is NOT a disadvantage of the use of imprisonment for hate crime perpetrators?

a. Prison has limited deterrent value to these offenders

b. Overcrowded prison environments offer little opportunity for rehabilitation necessary to address prejudicial beliefs

c. Prisons are often divided along the lines of race/religious affiliation and may reinforce intolerant attitudes

d. Prison sentences keep offenders separate from the groups they hold prejudice against

8. Which of the following terms are typically used in definitions of a hate crime?

a. ‘hostility’ and ‘hate’

b. ‘hate’, ‘hostility’ and ‘bias’

c. ‘prejudice’, ‘bias’ and ‘targeted hostility’

d. ‘hate’ and ‘prejudice’

9. Which of the following is NOT a typical criticism of hate crime scholarship/research?

a. There is too much research on hate crime

b. It often underplays, the differences in experiences and needs between victims and groups

c. It excludes many other groups that can be victims of prejudice based crime

d. It can be simplistic and fail to take intersectionality into account

10. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Perry’s (2001) hate crime framework?

a. Acknowledges the role of outward hatred by the offender towards the victim group(s)

b. Gives primacy to the idea that violence is different when motivated by bigotry and directed towards already marginalised populations

c. Acknowledges the complexity of hate crime victimisation by highlighting the relationship between structural hierarchies, institutionalised prejudice and acts of hate

d. Places emphasis on the group instead of the victim’s individual identity

Chapter 19: Race and racialized crime

1. Which of the following best defines ‘racialised crime’?

a. Crime is radical

b. Racial meaning is socially associated with types of crime

c. The race is never a factor in how crime is perceived

d. Crime is committed more by people of a certain race

2. Which of the following best describes the processes of racialisation?

a. People are divided based on racial characteristics

b. Racially based characteristics are ignored when perceiving and making decisions regarding criminal or deviant behaviour

c. People of different races become more likely to commit certain types of crime

d. Racially based real and imagined biological/cultural characteristics are used to render BAME groups criminal or deviant

3. Which of the following best describes ‘Xeno-racisim’?

a. A new word for racism

b. A newer type of cultural racism that has less of a negative impact than ‘traditional’ racism

c. A way to combat normalised racism

d. A newer type of cultural racism that combines different types of discrimination to become context-specific and normalised as acceptable

4. Which of the following describes the biological positivist approach to race and crime?

a. Race-based characteristics are not biological

b. Race-based characteristics are used to explain criminal behaviour

c. Race-based characteristics are unrelated to criminal behaviour

d. Race-based characteristics are biological

5. Which of the following is NOT an example of racialised crime?

a. Modern-day terrorism

b. The ‘mugging’ moral panic of the 1970s

c. Sexual abuse post-2012

d. Speeding in the 1990s

6. Which of the following best describes ‘social constructionism’?

a. The over-representation of BAMEs in the criminal justices system is explained as a result of bias, Labelling theory and power

b. The over-representation of BAMEs in the criminal justices system is explained as a result of biological characteristics

c. The over-representation of BAMEs in the criminal justices system is explained as a result of race-based psychological characteristics

d. The over-representation of BAMEs in the criminal justices system is explained as a result of problematic family formations

7. What are the two key points used to explain BAME experiences of criminal justice according to Critical Race Theory?

a. ‘Biological positivism’ and ‘ Interest convergence’

b. ‘Differential racialisation’ and ‘Interest convergence’

c. ‘Differential racialisation’ and ‘Biological positivism’

d. ‘Social constuctionism’ and ‘Interest convergence’

8. Which of the following best describes ‘differential racialisation’?

a. Different racial groups have different experiences within society and several factors inform how they are perceived and treated in the criminal justice system

b. White ethnic groups manipulate notions of ‘race’ and racial issues in order to protect their own interests

c. Different racial groups have the same experiences within society and they are perceived and treated equally in the criminal justice system

d. Different racial groups have different biological and psychological characteristics that inform how often they interact with the criminal justice system

9. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of including minority perspectives in criminology?

a. They are often better informed about how racialized crime affects minority communities

b. They challenge White hegemonic (Colonialist and Orientalist) ideas about ‘Black crime’

c. They provide a critical understanding of race and racialized crime

d. They help demonstrate that academic institutions are not racist

10. What are the aims of Black Feminist Criminology?

a. To exclusively explore gender in relation to crime and criminal justice

b. To explore the intersectionality of race and gender and how this can impact the specific experiences and perceptions of BAME women in regards to crime and criminal justice

c. To ignore other races and gender identities

d. To explore the biological characteristics of BAME women

Chapter 20: Gender, crime & victimisation

1. Which of the following best describes the term gender-based violence (GBV)?

a. Violence that is exclusively physical towards a specific gender

b. The violence that is directed towards any minority group

c. Violence that is directed at a person based on their actual or perceived gender identity or sexuality

d. Violence perpetrated by people of a specific gender

2. Which of the following is NOT an example of gender-based violence (GBV)?

a. A husband physically abuses his wife in private

b. A man verbally abuses his girlfriend in public

c. A man controls his boyfriend’s finances and private life

d. A man commits fraud against an unknown woman online

3. Which of the following best describes the focus of intersectional perspectives on gender-based violence (GBV)?

a. A focus on looking at how other social categories that are not gender can impact GBV

b. A focus on gender-inequalities and how they can result in violence against women

c. A focus on violence against women and girls with the aim of highlighting domestic and sexual abuse

d. A focus on the impact of gender non-conformity on GBV

4. Which of the following best describes queer feminist perspectives on gender-based violence (GBV)?

a. A focus on looking at how other social categories that are not gender can impact GBV

b. A focus on gender-inequalities and how they can result in violence against women

c. A focus on violence against women and girls with the aim of highlighting domestic and sexual abuse

d. A focus on the impact of gender non-conformity on GBV

5. Which of the following best describes radical feminist perspectives on gender-based violence (GBV)?

a. A focus on looking at how other social categories that are not gender can impact GBV

b. A focus on gender-inequalities

c. A focus on violence against women and girls with the aim of highlighting domestic and sexual abuse

d. A focus on the impact of gender non-conformity on GBV

6. Which of the following is NOT an example of how social media has been used to bring attention to GBV (gender-based violence)?

a. The ‘This Is Not Consent’ hashtag

b. Survivor selfies

c. The ‘MeToo’ hashtag

d. Academic feminist scholarship

7. Which of the following best describes heteronormativity?

a. The assumption of gender diversity

b. The assumption of heterosexuality and binary male/female gender and gender expression as the societal norm

c. The assumption that sexuality is diverse

d. The assumption that gender is a social construct

8. It has been argued that research into domestic violence has focused on heteronormatively gendered heterosexual relationships. Which of the following is NOT an example of the harmful implications of this?

a. It implies that women can’t be violent

b. It suggests that women are often the main targets of domestic abuse

c. It creates a narrative that describes domestic abuse as a problem between heterosexual men and women

d. It implies that domestic abuse in same-sex relationships is not harmful

9. What is the ‘justice gap’ in the criminal justice response to sexual violence and domestic abuse?

a. The gap in reporting between different genders

b. The discrepancy between reporting and actual conviction

c. The consideration of the victims needs

d. The pay gap between men and women working on these cases

10. Which of the following best describes the use of the term ‘violence against women and girls’ (VAWG)?

a. Aims to highlight that anyone can be a victim of domestic violence

b. A gender-neutral term regarding gender-related violence

c. Aims to highlight women’s vulnerability rather than men’s responsibility

d. Aims to highlight diversity in the experiences of victims

Chapter 21: Social control

1. Which of the following best describes Social Control Theory?

a. A theory that examines the devices employed which limit undesirable behaviour to bring individuals in conformity with the societal norm

b. A theory that focuses on the biosocial reasons underlying deviant behaviour

c. A theory that examines the costs and benefits of engaging in deviant or criminal behaviour

d. A theory that focuses on social class and economic deprivations as the primary cause of criminal and deviant behaviour

2. With regard to Toby’s (1957) concept of a ‘stake in conformity’, what increases the likelihood that an individual will engage in delinquency?

a. The individual feels they have a significant stake in society, leading to a reduced incentive to conform to social norms

b. The individual feels they have a significant stake in society, leading to an increased incentive to enforce the law

c. The individual has few to no stakes in society, leading to a reduced incentive to conform to social norms

d. The individual has few to no stakes in society, leading to an increased incentive to try and conform to social norms

3. Which of the following is an example of informal social control?

a. The police arrest someone who is drunk and disorderly

b. Someone is imprisoned for selling illicit drugs

c. Someone has to pay a fine for speeding

d. Someone is ridiculed for smoking cigarettes by family members

4. Which of the following best describes how Durkheim conceptualised social control?

a. Social control rests on a culturally maintained and normative sense of moral order that holds value in the minds of individuals

b. Social control

c. Social control

d. Social control

5. Ross (2009[1901]) argued that, as society develops, an increase in impersonal and contractual relations weakens four natural human instincts that would usually contribute to a harmonious society. These four instincts are sympathy, sense of justice, resentment to mistreatment and:

a. Protection of family

b. Sociability

c. Aggression

d. Sense of community

6. The two twinned factors, identified by Shaw and McKay’s (1942) ecological study of Chicago, that are thought to influence social control in urban development are:

a. High rates of population turnover and Community heterogeneity

b. Economic deprivation and High community police presence

c. Low rates of population turnover and Community heterogeneity

d. Economic abundance and Low community police presence

7. According to Bursik and Grasmick (1993), what are the 3 levels of control within the community?

a. The legal, the private and the parochial

b. The parochial, the public and the legal

c. The private, the parochial and the public

d. The public, the private and the legal

8. According to Bursik and Grasmick (1993), what is meant by ‘the parochial’ level of control within the community?

a. The capacity for neighbourhoods to secure productive services from larger political and economic institutions

b. The capacity for intimate peer relations and family members do draw on larger community resources to reinforce control

c. The control is exercised closely by intimate relations

d. The control that is exercised by neighbourhood residents and predominant institutions

9. What is meant by the concept of a ‘stake in conformity’?

a. The extent to which an individual contributes to the creation of social norms

b. The extent to which an individual has an incentive to conform to social norms

c. The extent to which a group has an incentive to break down social norms

d. The extent to which a group contributes to the reinforcement of existing social norms

10. What is ‘medical control’ in the context of social control?

a. The use of moral reinforcement from peers and informal institutions

b. The use of medical personal or knowledge to pacify unsocial behaviour

c. The use of the law, police and criminal justice to maintain order

d. The use of medications that can directly control behaviour

Chapter 22: Models of justice

1. Which of the following best describes the term ‘justice’?

a. Sending a perpetrator of the crime to prison

b. A broad term referring to a favoured outcome, remedy or consequence following an incidence of harm

c. A broad term referring to an outcome that fails to meet the needs of a victim

d. A term referring to the court process

2. Which of the following is NOT a common reason that victim-survivors of gender-based violence are unable to obtain ‘justice’?

a. Not being believed by police

b. Under-reporting

c. High attrition rates

d. Vulnerable witness protections

3. Which of the following is NOT a formal system designed to provide ‘justice’?

a. Vigilante justice

b. Prison

c. The police

d. The criminal courts

4. Which of the following is NOT a model of justice identified in this chapter?

a. Community Justice

b. Offender rights

c. Social Justice

d. Victims’ rights

5. Which of the following models of justice overlap the most?

a. Community justice and Cultural Context Model

b. Interactional justice and Effective Justice

c. Gender Justice and Feminist Jurisprudence

d. Economic Justice and Social Justice

6. Which of the following models of justice contradict each other the most?

a. Therapeutic Justice and Interactional Justice

b. Parallel Justice and Women’s Rights

c. Gender Justice and Feminist Jurisprudence

d. Human Rights and Social Justice

7. Which of the following is a feature of distributive justice?

a. Concerned with the fairness and transparency of the justice process and how decisions are made

b. The provision of a social justice allocation of goods and resources

c. A consideration of how the criminal justice system is implicated in broader socio-economic trends

d. A focus on the procedural features of the justice system

8. Which of the following is a feature of gender justice?

a. Community-based justice initiatives

b. Prioritises the consideration of victim experiences of justice

c. Calling for every woman and girl to be entitled to live in dignity and freedom and to live without fear of violence

d. Includes the meeting of the offender and victim with a third part present

9. Which of the following is NOT a feature of restorative justice?

a. The provision of a social justice allocation of goods and resources

b. Can have a reformative aim

c. Aims to repair the harm done

d. Includes the meeting of the offender and victim with a third part present

10. Which of the following models of justice is primarily concerned with treating gender-based crime and others as community responsibilities rather than individualised?

a. Transformative Justice

b. Community Justice

c. Problem-solving

d. Neo-liberal Justice

Chapter 23: Partnership and multi-agency working: Tackling domestic abuse

1. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the concept of ‘community safety’?

a. Multi-agency partnership working between the police and other agencies

b. Aims to reduce crime, harm and fear of crime

c. A policy-driven initiative exclusively involving other criminal justice agencies

d. Involvement of local community leaders

2. What is a Domestic Violence Protection Notice (DVPN)?

a. An emergency non-molestation and eviction notice which can be issued by the police to the perpetrator, when attending a domestic abuse incident

b. An eviction order that is heard within 48 hours of a domestic violence incident, that prevents a domestic violence perpetrator from having contact with the victim for up to 28 days

c. An emergency notice that forces a victim of domestic violence to decide how to approach their situation within 48 hours

d. An emergency eviction notice can be issued by the police to the perpetrator of a drug-related incident

3. In the context of approaches to domestic violence, what is meant by ‘perpetrator responsibilisation’?

a. Holding perpetrators to account for their actions

b. Focusing on why victim’s don’t leave perpetrators following domestic violence incidents

c. Using increasingly punitive measures to punish perpetrators

d. Making it the responsibility of the public policy to prevent domestic violence incidents

4. Why is the trend of community safety becoming more of an anti-social behaviour enforcement strategy considered a criticism of community safety initiatives?

a. It can result in an increase in crime, with initiatives actively encouraging some types of criminal behaviour

b. Communities rarely care about anti-social behaviour, with initiatives failing to serve the interests of the community

c. The aims are often subverted by corporatist local policymaking

d. It can serve to legitimise racist or xenophobic attitudes, with initiatives often being targeted behaviour more often engaged in by young members ethnic minority groups

5. Which of the following best describes the aims of the Multi-Agency Tasking and Coordination (MATAC) approach with regard to perpetrators of domestic violence?

a. To address serial perpetrators by encouraging them to leave the victim and disrupting the ability to contact the victim or their family/peers

b. To address serial perpetrators by encouraging offender behaviour change and disrupting the ability to commit future offences

c. To address one-time perpetrators with punitive legal measures

d. To address serial perpetrators through complete exclusion from the community

6. Which of the following best describes the aims of the Multi-Agency Tasking and Coordination (MATAC) approach with regard to victims of domestic violence

a. To ensure that victims are held to account for potentially disruptive domestic violence incidents

b. To ensure the victims leave domestic violence situations and have no contact with the perpetrator

c. To ensure that victims receive justice through extremely punitive legal measures against perpetrators

d. To ensure that victims receive prompt and comprehensive wrap-around support where abuse occurs

7. What is a ‘Warning Notice’?

a. A notice is given to victims of domestic violence explaining that the perpetrator is in the MATAC, and providing information about services and support

b. A notice is given to prospective victims of domestic violence explaining that their partner has been a perpetrator in the past, and providing information about services and support

c. A notice is given to perpetrators of domestic violence explaining that the perpetrator is in the MATAC, and providing information about services and support

d. A notice is given to perpetrators of domestic violence explaining that the perpetrator is in the MATAC and that they are going to be taken into custody within the next 7 days

8. As the follow on from the MATAC, the Whole Systems Approach involves multi-agency partnerships and collaborations across three themes. These are; effective working in the criminal justice system, partnership work with civil and family courts and:

a. Collaboration with Victim Support

b. Multi-agency offender support

c. Multi-agency victim support and offender management

d. Multi-agency police and community support

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the common stakeholder challenges involved in collaborative safety efforts, like the MATAC?

a. Identification of all key partners and the ‘right’ representative/s

b. Provision of support from multiple agencies and community members

c. Communication

d. Creating effective feedback Mechanisms

10. In what way is information sharing considered a common stakeholder challenge in collaborative safety efforts, like the MATAC?

a. Some stakeholders may be unsure about what they can safely and legally share with others, which can slow down partnership work

b. Some stakeholders do not have useful information to share, making their position in the partnership potentially contested

c. Some stakeholders may wish to without important information from others, which can slow down or halt partnership work

d. Some stakeholders may share too much information, which can slow down partnership work as other stakeholders attempt to decipher what is required

Chapter 24: Policing

1. Which of the following best defines ‘social control’?

a. The social processes through which the behaviour of individuals is directly controlled by the police

b. The control of how individuals or groups perceive social norms

c. The social processes through which the behaviour of individuals or groups is regulated.

d. The lack of control of how individuals or groups behave

2. What is ‘Hotspots policing’?

a. The targeting of resources and activities to those places where crime is most concentrated

b. Non-crime related activities that police deal with

c. The ability of the police to use force

d. The moving of resources to low-level crime areas

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional ‘three Rs’ of police activity outlined by Sherman (2013)?

a. Random patrol

b. Reactive investigations

c. Restorative justice

d. Rapid response

4. What is ‘Evidence based policing’ (EPB)?

a. Police officers carry out a random patrol in different areas

b. Non-crime related police duties

c. Police officers and communities work together to decide the best methods of policing certain areas and neighbourhoods

d. Police officers and staff create, review and use the best available evidence to inform and challenge policies, practices and decisions

5. What are the ‘three Ts’ of evidence-based policing activity?

a. Testing, Transformation and Tracing

b. Targeting, Testing and Tracking

c. Targeting, Tracking and Transformation

d. Tracking, Transformation and Testing

6. In what way has the internet, and consequently cyber-crime, presented significant challenges to policing?

a. It has allowed for better sharing of records and data between police forces

b. Criminals can look up policing strategies and try to get around them

c. It has shifted criminal activity from geographical spaces to virtual, in which the perpetrators may be located anywhere

d. It has shifted the nature of policing away from offline crime

7. What are the two most important factors underlying positive police-community relationships?

a. The willingness of the public to trust and grant legitimacy granted to the police, and awareness within the police that they need to earn this through their actions

b. Police relying on knowing the offenders in the community and having civilian friends

c. The ability of police to create the appearance of conflict – that needs a police response – and the legitimacy that flows from specialist knowledge about crime

d. The extent to which police know potential offenders personally and the legitimacy granted by other police organisations

8. What is procedural justice in the context of policing?

a. The procedures utilised by police

b. The ability of the police to bring justice

c. The fairness and transparency of police activity

d. The ability of the police to reform offenders

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 most important elements of the ‘mosaic of control’ in terms of governing the police?

a. The notion of legitimacy

b. Governance by the law

c. Forms of direct democratic oversight and governance placed around and above police organisations

d. Intimidation of the police from large gangs and/or crime groups

10. What is organisational justice in the context of policing?

a. The policing of organisations

b. Police officers and staff perceptions of fairness in the workplace

c. Police responses to crimes against or between organisations

d. The policing of corruption within the police force

Chapter 25: The crown prosecution service

1. What are the two main Acts credited with the creation of the Crown Prosecution Service?

a. The Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 and the Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999

b. The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 and the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985

c. The Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 and the Crown Prosecution Service Act 1980

d. The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 and the Philips Enquiry 1981

2. What is the main overall function of the Crown Prosecution Service?

a. To send offenders to prison

b. To assist the police in prosecuting criminal cases in England and Wales

c. To prosecute criminal cases that have been investigated by the police and several other state investigative organisations in England and Wales

d. To oversee civil court cases

3. Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Director of Public Prosecutions?

a. Advising police forces on matters relating to criminal offences

b. Appearing for the prosecution when directed by the court to do so on certain types of appeal cases

c. Taking over the conduct of criminal proceedings instituted by a police force

d. To safeguard the independence of prosecutors

4. Who is responsible for designating barristers or solicitors within the CPS as Crown Prosecutors?

a. The Associate Prosecutors

b. The Attorney General

c. The Director of Public Prosecutions

d. The Police

5. What is an associate prosecutor within the CPS?

a. Barristers or solicitors responsible for representing the CPS in the courts

b. Staff who are not legally qualified, but are permitted to represent the CPS in bail applications and other pre-trial applications

c. The head of the CPS

d. The representative of the defendant

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four key functions of the CPS?

a. Making decisions on whether to prosecute and for which offence

b. Advising the police

c. Determining whether a case is suitable for an “out of court disposal”

d. Making decisions on changing suspects of minor road-traffic and regulatory offences

7. What are the two stages of the Full Code Test?

a. The Evidential Stage and the Public Interest Stage

b. The Public Interest Stage and the Cross-examination Stage

c. The Prosecution Stage and the Cross-examination Stage

d. The Evidential Stage and the Prosecution Stage

8. Within the CPS, who is responsible for meeting the requirements of the Victims Code?

a. The Police

b. Victim Code Enforcers

c. Victim Liaison Units

d. The Director of Public Prosecutions

9. In what situation is the full code test used?

a. When deciding how an offender should be punished

b. When deciding if a suspect should be charged with an offence

c. When the offender is found guilty

d. When the victim is vulnerable

10. Which of the following is NOT an example of a private prosecution?

a. A immigration-related case brought by the UK Border Agency

b. A case brought to the courts by a lawyer acting on behalf of an individual person

c. An animal welfare case brought by the RSPCA

d. A case of a driving license offence brought by the DVLA

Chapter 26: The court system in England & Wales

1. Which of the following best describes a common law legal system?

a. A legal system based on what crimes are common

b. A legal system based on law is written as a set of rules, known as codes.

c. A legal system based on the decisions of judges and led by custom, rather than written laws

d. A legal system based on legislation written by parliament

2. What are the three main ‘streams’ of the court system in England and Wales?

a. Criminal, Supreme and County courts

b. Criminal, Civil and Family courts

c. Civil, Family and Magistrates courts

d. Family, Criminal and Supreme courts

3. Which of the following best describes the Supreme Court?

a. The second highest court within the jurisdiction of England and Wales, which can only hear cases from lower family courts

b. The highest court within the jurisdiction of England and Wales, which can only hear criminal law cases

c. The second highest court within the jurisdiction of England and Wales, which can hear cases on any area of law

d. The highest court within the jurisdiction of England and Wales, which can hear cases on any area of law

4. Which of the following describes the evidential standard for a family court proceeding?

a. Proof that the offence has been committed beyond reasonable doubt

b. Proof that the offence has been committed based on the claimant’s account of events

c. Proof that the offence has been committed based on the defendant’s account of events

d. Proof that the offence has been committed is on the balance of probabilities

5. Which of the following describes the evidential standard for a criminal court proceeding?

a. Proof that the offence has been committed beyond reasonable doubt

b. Proof that the offence has been committed based on the claimant’s account of events

c. Proof that the offence has been committed based on the defendant’s account of events

d. Proof that the offence has been committed is on the balance of probabilities

6. Which of the following is NOT a reason that a victim-survivor of domestic abuse may choose a family court proceeding to prosecute an alleged perpetrator?

a. Financial reasons for not wanting the perpetrator arrested/sent to prison

b. There is not enough evidence for the police to take action or for the CPS to progress a case to court

c. A lack of trust in the police

d. The case is brought to the courts by the police

7. Which of the following best describes ‘Litigants in Person’ (LiPs)?

a. Individuals legally represented by private solicitors in court

b. Individuals who represent themselves in court

c. Individuals with partial legal representation in court

d. Individuals legally represented by the CPS in court

8. Which of the following Acts is considered responsible for cuts in legal aid and increasing Litigants in Person (LiP)?

a. The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984

b. The Legal Aid Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012

c. The Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999

d. The Prosecution of Offences Act 1985

9. Which of the following is NOT a special measure that can be offered to vulnerable or intimidated victim-survivors/witnesses?

a. Providing evidence via live video-link

b. Separate entrances

c. Separate courtrooms

d. Physical screens

10. Which of the following is NOT an example of a case that could be taken to more than one ‘stream’ of court?

a. Non-physical domestic abuse

b. Domestic violence

c. Child protection

d. Murder

Chapter 27: Out of court disposals & diversion

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the main aims of using Out of Court Disposals (OOCDs) rather than formal charges?

a. To appear tough on crime

b. To deliver a simple, swift and proportionate response to low-risk offending

c. To reduce the number of times that courts deal with minor cases

d. To potentially reduce recidivism

2. Which of the following best describes summary and non-indictable offences?

a. Less serious offences dealt with by Crown Courts

b. Less serious offences dealt with in Magistrates Courts

c. Offences triable either before a judge and jury or before a Magistrate judge

d. Serious offences and dealt with by Crown Courts

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 main types of Out of Court Disposals (OOCDs)?

a. Fixed Penalty Notice

b. Simple caution

c. Prison sentence

d. Penalty Notices for Disorder

4. Which of the following best describes a Conditional Caution?

a. A monetary penalty that must be paid to avoid prosecution for the offence

b. A formal warning with no additional conditions

c. A formal warning including specific conditions perpetrators must adhere to avoid prosecution for the offence

d. A formal warning was given to those found to be in possession of a small amount of cannabis

5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a Simple Caution?

a. The decision to impose rests with the police and/or the CPS

b. Specific conditions perpetrators must adhere to avoid prosecution for the offence are included

c. Given by the police to persons aged 18 and over when it is not in the public interest to prosecute for low-level, mainly first time, offending

d. Given only for non-indictable offences and potentially some ‘either-way’ offences, when a person admits the offence

6. Which of the following best describes a Fixed Penalty Notice?

a. A monetary fine issued for a range of specific offences

b. A formal warning with no additional conditions

c. A formal warning including specific non-monetary conditions perpetrators must adhere to

d. A formal warning was given to those found to be in possession of a small amount of cannabis

7. Which of the following is NOT a common criticism of Out of Court Disposals (OOCDs)?

a. OOCDs may marginalise the courts' roles in the criminal justice process

b. They may enable reparation by an offender

c. Offenders may accept some OOCDs when they are not guilty without understanding the implications for their criminal record

d. The extent to which the principles of restorative justice are reflected in OOCDs is questionable

8. Which of the following best describes the ‘two-tier framework’?

a. A piloted framework including the provision of all available OOCDs

b. A widely used framework includes the provision of only a conditional caution and a simple caution

c. A piloted framework including the provision of only a conditional caution and a community resolution

d. A piloted framework including the provision of only a simple caution and a fixed penalty notice

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the six conditional caution pathways designed as part of the Northumbria Police Revised Conditional Caution Framework?

a. Men’s pathway

b. Unpaid Work

c. Alcohol Behaviour Change

d. Victim Awareness

10. Why is there a specific conditional caution pathway for women as part of the Northumbria Police Revised Conditional Caution Framework?

a. External voluntary organisations run programs are not available for women who may fall into the categories of the other conditional caution pathways

b. Offenders of different genders are not allowed to mix

c. Women offenders do not fit into any of the other conditional caution pathway categories

d. The reasons women offend are typically different from the reasons men offend, and they often have different needs in terms of preventing future offending

Chapter 28: Non-custodial sentencing

1. Which of the following best describes non-custodial sentences?

a. A sentence that never involves any form of being kept in custody

b. A sentence provided by a court that is not a prison sentence

c. A sentence that involves going to prison

d. A sentence is given outside of court

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the main sentences available to courts?

a. Fine

b. Absolute discharge

c. Suspended sentence of imprisonment

d. Simple caution

3. Of the following sentences, which is considered the most punitive?

a. Compensation order

b. Conditional discharge

c. Community order

d. Fine

4. Which of the following best describes Suspended Sentence orders?

a. A sentence that is legally custodial but can be served in the community if none of the conditions is breached

b. A sentence in which nothing is required of the offender, but if another offence is committed within a certain time frame the offender will be sentenced according to the new offence and the previous one

c. A sentence in which an offender must pay a monetary sum to the court

d. A sentence in which the offender is ordered by the court to pay a specified sum of money to the victim

5. Which of the following are NOT features of a Community Order?

a. A sentence served in the community made up of a number of potential requirements an offender must meet

b. The offender must spend a small amount of time in custody

c. The maximum length of three years

d. Mandatory to have a punitive requirement

6. Which non-custodial sentence is the most commonly used in the crown court?

a. Suspended sentence order

b. Community order

c. Fine

d. Absolute discharge

7. Which sentence is most commonly used by magistrates courts?

a. Suspended sentence order

b. Community order

c. Fine

d. Absolute discharge

8. What are the main assumptions underlying the belief that non-custodial sentences are a ‘soft option’?

a. The probation service has been restructured often

b. Fines can be very punitive

c. Non-custodial sentences are typically cheaper

d. Prison is the only option that can truly punish offenders

9. In what way could non-custodial sentences be considered to NOT be more effective than a custodial sentence?

a. Cost

b. Association with violent harms

c. The potentially non-comparative nature of recidivism rates

d. Recidivism rates

10. Currently, which type of offence is a community order typically used for?

a. Indictable offences

b. Summary offences

c. Either way offences

d. Offences not brought to court

Chapter 29: Prisons

1. Which of the following best describes the ‘holiday camp’ representation of prisons in media? media

a. A film portrays prison as an oppressive institution in which prisoners are subject to difficult manual labour and abuse

b. A TV show comedically portrays a new and naïve prisoner trying to join a violent prison gang for protection

c. A news outlet runs a story about how ‘violent criminals’ are being given Xboxes in prison

d. A documentary shows the most chaotic and disorderly moments captured in a high-security prison

This creates a ‘constructed reality’ of the prison in our minds (Surette 1997), which in turn informs our opinions and assumptions. Often there is a distinction between the myths/stereotypes evident in film/TV and those in news media. This creates two sets of ideas on prison life: on the one hand depictions of an overly brutal environment, on the other the portrayal of prison as a “holiday camp”. The contrast between these constructed realities, and the opinions and assumptions upon which they are built, creates a conflict between what we want, need, and imagine the prison to be.

2. What is a ‘deprivation’ model of imprisonment?

a. Experience and social organisation in prison is imposed by whoever the toughest prisoner is in any given prison

b. Experience and social organisation in prison is imposed by deprivations of particular wants/needs that are often available outside of prison

c. Experience and social organisation in prison is imported by those who are held in prisons

d. Experience and social organisation in prison is imported by those who run prisons

3. What is an ‘importation’ model of imprisonment?

a. Experience and social organisation in prison is imposed by whoever the toughest prisoner is in any given prison

b. Experience and social organisation in prison is imposed by deprivations of particular wants/needs that are often available outside of prison

c. Experience and social organisation in prison is imported by those who are held in prisons

d. Experience and social organisation in prison is imported by those who run prisons

4. Sykes (1959) identified 5 ‘pains of imprisonment’ that shape prison experiences. These are the deprivations of liberty, autonomy, heterosexual/social relationships, security and:

a. Accurate media representation

b. When and what to eat

c. Spatial movement

d. Good and services

5. Sykes (1959) identified 5 ‘pains of imprisonment’ that shape prison experiences. Of these is the ‘deprivation of autonomy’. What is meant by this?

a. Prisoners lose the power to make personal decisions

b. Prisoners are subject to intrusive threats to personal safety

c. Prisoners spend the majority of their time in an institutionally defined single-sex environment

d. Prisoners experience a loss of freedom

6. Irwin and Cressey identified the ‘inmate code’, comprised of three distinct subcultures that shape social organisation and experience in prison; Thief Culture, Convict Culture and:

a. Those who are specially orientated towards extreme violence

b. Gang Culture

c. Those who otherwise largely adhere to law-abiding values in wider society

d. Youth Culture

7. What is ‘Prison Order’?

a. The extent to which Sykes’ ‘Pain of imprisonment’ can be put in order of seriousness

b. The degree to which the prison environment is structured, stable, predictable and acceptable

c. The ability of prison officers to help prisoners access medical care

d. The extent to which there is a strictly enforced social hierarchy among prisoners

8. What is the term used to describe institutions that are characterised by their occupants being cut off from the outside world for prolonged periods, and shared rituals and routines reinforced by the ‘separateness’ of the institution itself.

a. Organisational Institutions

b. Separate Institutions

c. Total Institutions

d. Ritual Institutions

9. What is the term ‘soft power’ used to refer to in the context of imprisonment?

a. How access to medical care can be a significant issue in prisons

b. How authority is founded on the micro-interactions between staff and prisoners

c. How those in positions of power conceptualise authority

d. How prisons are architecturally structured

10. Which of the following is NOT an example of how prisons reinforce or exacerbate existing structural inequality?

a. The social stigma attached to imprisonment can affect employment opportunities

b. Prison can exacerbate or trigger mental health problems

c. Those who already experience social deprivation are more likely to end up in prison than those who do not

d. Those in prison may form social relationships with others in prison

Chapter 30: Youth crime and youth justice

1. What is currently the minimum age of criminal responsibility (MACR) in England and Wales?

a. 12 years old

b. 16 years old

c. 10 years old

d. 18 years old

2. Why is ‘youth justice’ or children offending considered to be a social construct?

a. Children can be given custodial sentences for offending behaviour

b. Definitions and approaches to youth crime change frequently and vary massively internationally

c. Children offending are treated similarly to adults offending in England and Wales

d. The age of the MACR is too young

3. What are the key features of the welfare model of youth justice that was only partially employed in England and Wales prior to the ‘back to justice’ movement?

a. Treats offending by children as exactly the same as offending by adults and interventions should be similar regardless of age

b. Treats offending as a symptom of underlying welfare need and interventions should aim to tackle root causes

c. Treats offending as something most children grow out of and interventions should be kept to a minimum outside of serious cases

d. Treats offending as behaviour that contravenes criminal legislation and interventions should be proportionate to the seriousness of the offending

4. Which of the following was NOT a feature of the ‘back to justice’ movement in England and Wales (1970s-1990s)?

a. Minimum intervention for children who offend

b. Children who offend should be dealt with by the criminal justice system

c. The creation of a new family proceedings court

d. The belief that most children grow out of offending behaviours

5. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the term doli incapax?

a. Knowingly breaking the law

b. Deemed capable of committing a crime

c. Deemed incapable of intending to commit a crime

d. Deemed incapable of committing a crime

6. Which of the following changes in youth justice was NOT a consequence of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998?

a. The raised MACR

b. The abolishment of doli incapax

c. The minimisation of risk became more important than rehabilitation

d. The establishment of Youth Offending Teams

7. Which of the following is NOT a main argument advocating a review of the MACR in England and Wales?

a. Other social safeguarding policies, such as being able to legally drink, are at a much higher activity than the MACR

b. Contact with the criminal justice system is damaging for children

c. The UN Committee on the Rights of the Child suggest that signatories to the UNCRC should increase their MACR to at least 14 years old

d. The MACR has stayed the same for a long time

8. Which of the following best describes the risk factor paradigm?

a. Concerned with minimising interventions for children who offend

b. Concerned with reducing the risk of child offending rather than rehabilitation

c. Concerned with addressing the welfare needs of children who offend

d. Concerned with rehabilitating child offenders

9. What is the main difference between the youth justice teams of the late 1970s and youth offending teams of the late 1990s?

a. Youth justice teams were created later than youth offending teams

b. Youth justice teams aimed to advocate for children and reduce intervention for offending, Youth offending teams aimed to supervise children who broke the law.

c. Youth justice teams aimed to supervise children who broke the law, Youth offending teams aimed to advocate for children and reduce intervention for offending

d. Youth justice teams were created earlier than youth offending teams

10. What is the main issue with measuring youth crime?

a. Current measures of crime exclude children

b. Victim surveys are considered the best measure of the volume of crime and do not offer information on the age of offenders

c. Children can’t consent to be measured

d. It is not possible to measure the age of offenders

Chapter 31: Victims, witnesses and the criminal justice system

1. Which of the following best describes an ‘ideal victim’?

a. Those refused the status of being a victim because they are perceived as vulnerable, defenceless and clearly innocent

b. Those readily given the legitimate status of being a victim because they are perceived as vulnerable, defenceless and clearly innocent

c. A victim who suffers in silence and refrains from attempting to gather sympathy or publicly displaying weakness

d. Those readily given the legitimate status of being a victim because they are perceived as tough and involved with the offender in some way

2. How is a witness defined by the Crown Prosecution Service?

a. A person who states what they know outside of court to a solicitor

b. A person who has been a victim of a crime

c. A person who is meets the requirements for being considered vulnerable or intimidated

d. A person who stands up in court to state what they know after taking an oath, to tell the truth

3. Under which of the following circumstances would someone NOT be considered a Vulnerable or Intimidated Witness?

a. The witness is suffering from a mental health disorder

b. The witness is under 18

c. The witness has a physical disability or disorder

d. The witness has no impairment of intelligence and social function

4. Which of the following is NOT a current criticism of a victim’s role in the criminal justice system in England and Wales?

a. Victims are supported through external voluntary organisations

b. Vulnerable and intimidated victim special measures are often poorly employed

c. The role is reduced to a witness as part of a case brought in the public interest.

d. It is considered secondary to the conflict between the offender and the crown

5. Why is a Victim Personal Statement considered positive and/or important?

a. It may affect the objectivity of the court

b. All victims want to give a statement

c. It gives a victim a voice in the courtroom beyond their witness role

d. It is very often not offered to witnesses

6. What is meant by ‘Attrition’ in the context of the criminal justice system and court cases?

a. The process of how court cases proceed

b. The process whereby cases and complainants ‘drop out’ of the legal process

c. The process of further harm caused to the victims of crime in court

d. The process of insensitive questioning by police

7. According to Wolhuter et al (2009) what are the two main systematic problems that often result in secondary victimisation for victims of crime?

a. Institutional culture and the common law adversarial system

b. Institutional culture and the civil law adversarial system

c. The common law adversarial system and societal culture in the UK

d. Social pressure from media and the civil law adversarial system

8. How does the common law adversarial system contribute to experiences of secondary victimisation?

a. It allows the victim to testify on their own terms and be central to the criminal justice process

b. It used the principles of orality and repositions the victim as a witness and the crime as against the state

c. It has a crime-control focus on catching criminals and obtaining convictions, meaning that the needs of victims are side-lined

d. It is focused on achieving justice for victims

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the issues associated with witness protection as provided by the UK Protected Persons Service (UKPPS)?

a. It aims to provide protection to people judged to be at risk of serious harm

b. Those on witness protection have aired concerns about their safety

c. There is little public knowledge about witness protection in the UK

d. It can be very traumatic for those involved in it

10. Which of the following best describes the concept of the ‘true victim’?

a. Those refused the status of being a victim because they are perceived as vulnerable, defenceless and clearly innocent

b. Those readily given the legitimate status of being a victim because they are perceived as vulnerable, defenceless and clearly innocent

c. A victim who suffers in silence and refrains from attempting to gather sympathy or publicly displaying weakness

d. Those readily given the legitimate status of being a victim because they are perceived as tough and involved with the offender in some way

Chapter 32: Being a criminologist and doing real-world criminological research

1. Which of the following best describes a deductive approach to forming a research question?

a. The existing literature on a topic is read/reviewed and a research question is developed based on gaps in the literature

b. The existing literature is ignored in favour of a ‘fresh’ approach

c. Data is collected with an aim in mind and the literature of the topic is read after this to add context

d. A research question is deduced from what the data shows

2. Which of the following is an example of an explanatory research question?

a. What are the perceptions of the use of force by police among white and non-white young adults living in Newcastle in 2020?

b. What are the feelings of safety or fear of crime among male and female students of Northumbria University when walking home to city centre Halls of Residence after midnight on Friday and Saturday nights?

c. Does the introduction of an arts and crafts programme improve prisoner mental health in an adult women’s prison?

d. What are the perceptions among old and young residents of the prevalence of violent crime in Wallsend on a weekend?

3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of quantitative research?

a. It typically looks to measure causality

b. It tends to collect broad information from large numbers of respondents

c. It is closely linked to the concept of positivism

d. It tends to collect detailed information from a small number of respondents

4. What is interpretivism?

a. The assumption that researchers must aim to interpret every social phenomenon

b. The assumption that there is an objective ‘truth’ that social scientists should be seeking to reveal

c. The assumption that instead of one, single objective reality, there are different forms of reality constructed by different people

d. The assumption that everyone experiences reality the same way

5. What is meant by the term ethnogenesis in the context of qualitative research methods?

a. An approach that seeks to measure how often an action is performed by an individual

b. An approach that attempts to understand individual actions as part of a wider ‘episode’ in an individual’s life

c. An approach that looks to understand individual actions as wholly reflective of a person

d. An approach that attempts to understand an objective truth to why people behave in a certain way

6. Which of the following is NOT a type of random sample?

a. A purposive sample

b. A simple random sample

c. A systematic random sample

d. A stratified random sample

7. In which of the following situations would purposive sampling be the most appropriate?

a. For research with few resources and limited access to people outside their existing contacts

b. For research wanting to study people within a population who meet a certain set of criteria

c. For research that needs a strictly representative sample of a population

d. For research that just needs a very simple random sample

8. Which of the following is an advantage of face-to-face interviews?

a. They are time-consuming

b. Avoids interviewer bias

c. Can look for non-verbal cues to deduce the potential accuracy of the information being provided

d. Low cost because there is never any travel time involved

9. Which of the following data collection methods is qualitative?

a. Focus groups

b. Online questionnaires

c. Postal questionnaires

d. Structured telephone interviews

10. In which of the following situations would the use of inferential statistics be the most appropriate?

a. The data is quantitative and has been collected from the entire population being tested

b. The data is quantitative and has been collected from a random sample

c. The data is qualitative and has been collected from a random sample

d. The data is quantitative and has been collected from a sample that is not a random sample

11. Which of the following is NOT an analysis designed for qualitative data?

a. Narrative analysis

b. Thematic analysis

c. Secondary analysis

d. Content analysis